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Worksheets

594-696

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A call detail record (CDR) provides metadata about calls made over a phone service. From the following data fields, which one is not contained in a CDR?

a)

Phone number receiving the call

b)

A unique sequence number identifying the record

c)

The language of the call

d)

The call duration

2.

"In exceptional circumstances, where a person finds it necessary to access original data held on a computer or on storage media, that person must be competent to do so and be able to explain his/her actions and the impact of those actions on the evidence, in the court." Which ACPO principle states this?

a)

Principle 3

b)

Principle 1

c)

Principle 2

d)

Principle 4

3.

On NTFS file system, which of the following tools can a forensic investigator use in order to identify timestomping of evidence files?

a)

Exiv2

b)

analyzeMFT

c)

Timestomp

d)

wbStego

4.

Matthew needs to analyze a suspicious MS Office document via static analysis on an Ubuntu-based forensic machine to determine type, encryption, and presence of flash objects/VBA macros. Which python-based script should he run to get relevant information?

a)

oleid.py

b)

oleform.py

c)

oledir.py

d)

pdfid.py

5.

Before accessing digital evidence from victims, witnesses, or suspects, on their electronic devices, what should the investigator do first to respect legal privacy requirements?

a)

Obtain a formal written consent to search

b)

Notify the fact to the local authority or employer

c)

Remove the battery or turn-off the device

d)

Protect the device against external communication

6.

During a forensic investigation, a large number of files were collected. The investigator begins to identify attributes such as "author name," "organization name," "network name," or supporting data meant for owner's identification. Which term describes these attributes?

a)

Data header

b)

Data index

c)

Metabase

d)

Metadata

7.

A forensic specialist inspects an active computer's RAM, cache, and DLLs to check for incident signatures. Identify the data acquisition method employed in this scenario.

a)

Dead data acquisition

b)

Live data acquisition

c)

Non-volatile data acquisition

d)

Static data acquisition

8.

When analyzing logs, device clocks must be synchronized. Which protocol helps in synchronizing these clocks?

a)

UTC

b)

PTP

c)

UCT

d)

NTP

9.

What happens to the header of the file once it is deleted from the Windows OS file systems?

a)

The hex byte coding remains the same, but the file location differs

b)

The OS replaces the first letter of a deleted file name with a hex byte code: E5h

c)

The OS replaces the entire hex byte coding of the file

d)

The OS replaces the second letter of a deleted file name with a hex byte code: Eh5

10.

A file requires 10 KB space on a hard disk partition. An entire cluster of 32 KB has been allocated for this file. The remaining, unused space of 22 KB on this cluster will be identified as __________.

a)

Swap space

b)

Cluster space

c)

Slack space

d)

Buffer space

11.

Which layer in the IoT architecture is comprised of hardware parts such as sensors, RFID tags, and devices that play an important role in data collection?

a)

Edge technology layer

b)

Application layer

c)

Middleware layer

d)

Access gateway layer

12.

Which of the following tools will allow a forensic investigator to acquire the memory dump of a suspect machine so that it may be investigated on a forensic workstation to collect evidentiary data like processes and Tor browser artifacts?

a)

Hex Editor

b)

DB Browser SQLite

c)

Belkasoft Live RAM Capturer and AccessData FTK Imager

d)

Bulk Extractor

13.

"No action taken by law enforcement agencies or their agents should change data held on a computer or storage media which may subsequently be relied upon in court" - this principle is advocated by which of the following?

a)

FBI Cyber Division

b)

Scientific Working Group on Imaging Technology (SWGIT)

c)

Locard's exchange principle

d)

The Association of Chief Police Officers (ACPO) Principles of Digital Evidence

14.

Cloud forensic investigations impose challenges related to multi-jurisdiction and multi-tenancy aspects. To have a better understanding of the roles and responsibilities between the cloud service provider (CSP) and the client, which document should the forensic investigator review?

a)

Service level agreement

b)

National and local regulation

c)

Key performance indicator

d)

Service level management

15.

For the purpose of preserving the evidentiary chain of custody, which of the following labels is not appropriate?

a)

Relevant circumstances surrounding the collection

b)

SSN of the person collecting the evidence

c)

General description of the evidence

d)

Exact location the evidence was collected from

16.

During an investigation, the first responders stored mobile devices in specific containers to provide network isolation. All the following are examples of such pieces of equipment, except for:

a)

Faraday bag

b)

VirtualBox

c)

Wireless StrongHold bag

d)

RF shield box

17.

What is the extension used by Windows OS for shortcut files present on the machine?

a)

.dat

b)

.pf

c)

.lnk

d)

.log

18.

Consider a scenario where the perpetrator of a dark web crime has uninstalled Tor browser from their computer after committing the crime. The computer has been seized by law enforcement so they can investigate it for artifacts of Tor browser usage. Which of the following should the investigators examine to establish the use of Tor browser on the suspect machine?

a)

Files in Recycle Bin

b)

Prefetch files

c)

Swap files

d)

Security logs

19.

Harry has collected a suspicious executable file from an infected system and seeks to reverse its machine code to instructions written in assembly language. Which tool should he use for this purpose?

a)

oledump

b)

HashCalc

c)

Ollydbg

d)

BinText

20.

Maria has executed a suspicious executable file in a controlled environment and wants to see if the file adds/modifies any registry value after execution via Windows Event Viewer. Which of the following event ID should she look for in this scenario?

a)

Event ID 4657

b)

Event ID 4688

c)

Event ID 7040

d)

Event ID 4624

21.

Edgar is part of the FBI's forensic media and malware analysis team; he is analyzing a current malware and is conducting a thorough examination of the suspect system, network, and other connected devices. Edgar's approach is to execute the malware code to know how it interacts with the host system and its impacts on it. He is also using a virtual machine and a sandbox environment. What type of malware analysis is Edgar performing?

a)

Malware disassembly

b)

Static analysis

c)

VirusTotal analysis

d)

Dynamic malware analysis/behavioral analysis

22.

An investigator is examining a file to identify any potentially malicious content. To avoid code execution and still be able to uncover hidden indicators of compromise (IOC), which type of examination should the investigator perform:

a)

Threat analysis

b)

Threat hunting

c)

Static analysis

d)

Dynamic analysis

23.

Rule 1002 of Federal Rules of Evidence (US) talks about _______________.

a)

Admissibility of other evidence of contents

b)

Admissibility of original

c)

Admissibility of duplicates

d)

Requirement of original

24.

Which of the following is the most effective tool for acquiring volatile data from a Windows-based system?

a)

Ethereal

b)

Coreography

c)

Datagrab

d)

Helix

25.

Jacob, a cybercrime investigator, joined a forensics team to participate in a criminal case involving digital evidence. After the investigator collected all the evidence and presents it to the court, the judge dropped the case and the defense attorney pressed charges against Jacob and the rest of the forensics team for unlawful search and seizure. What forensics privacy issue was not addressed prior to collecting the evidence?

a)

Compliance with the Fourth Amendment of the U.S. Constitution

b)

Compliance with the Second Amendment of the U.S. Constitution

c)

None of these

d)

Compliance with the Third Amendment of the U.S. Constitution

26.

This is a statement, other than one made by the declarant while testifying at the trial or hearing, offered in evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted. Which among the following is suitable for the above statement?

a)

Rule 1001

b)

Testimony by the accused

c)

Hearsay rule

d)

Limited admissibility

27.

Jack is reviewing file headers to verify the file format and hopefully find more information of the file. After a careful review of the data chunks through a hex editor; Jack finds the binary value 0xffd8ff. Based on the above information, what type of format is the file/image saved as?

a)

JPEG

b)

GIF

c)

ASCII

d)

BMP

28.

Which among the following acts has been passed by the U.S. Congress to protect investors from the possibility of fraudulent accounting activities by corporations?

a)

Gramm-Leach-Bliley act

b)

Sarbanes-Oxley act of 2002

c)

Federal Information Security Management act of 2002

d)

Health Insurance Probability and Accountability act of 1996

29.

Simona has written a regular expression for the detection of web application-specific attack attempt that reads as (/((%3C)|(\(%2F)) V)*[a-z0-9%]+((%3E)|>)/ix. Which of the following does the part ((%3E)|>) look for?

a)

Alphanumeric string or its hex equivalent

b)

Forward slash for a closing tag or its hex equivalent

c)

Closing angle bracket or its hex equivalent

d)

Opening angle bracket or its hex equivalent

30.

Web browsers can store relevant information from user activities. Forensic investigators may retrieve files, lists, access history, cookies, among other digital footprints. Which tool can contribute to this task?

a)

MZCacheView

b)

Google Chrome Recovery Utility

c)

Task Manager

d)

Most Recently Used (MRU) list

31.

Which of the following statements is true with respect to SSDs (solid-state drives)?

a)

SSDs cannot store non-volatile data

b)

Faster data access, lower power usage, and higher reliability are some of the major advantages of SSDs over HDDs

c)

Like HDDs, SSDs also have moving parts

d)

SSDs contain tracks, clusters, and sectors to store data

32.

When installed on a Windows machine, which port does the Tor browser use to establish a network connection via Tor nodes?

a)

49664/49665

b)

49667/49668

c)

9150/9151

d)

7680

33.

What command-line tool enables forensic investigator to establish communication between an Android device and a forensic workstation in order to perform data acquisition from the device?

a)

Android Debug Bridge

b)

APK Analyzer

c)

SDK Manager

d)

Xcode

34.

In forensics __________ are used to view stored or deleted data from both files and disk sectors.

a)

Hash algorithms

b)

SIEM tools

c)

Hex editors

d)

Host interfaces

35.

Place the following in order of volatility from most volatile to the least volatile.

a)

Archival media, temporary file systems, disk storage, archival media, register and cache

b)

Registers and cache, routing tables, temporary file systems, disk storage, archival media

c)

Register and cache, temporary file systems, routing tables, disk storage, archival media

d)

Registers and cache, routing tables, temporary file systems, archival media, disk storage

36.

A clothing company has recently deployed a website on its latest product line to increase its conversion rate and base of customers. Andrew, the network administrator recently appointed by the company, has been assigned with the task of protecting the website from intrusion and vulnerabilities. Which of the following tool should Andrew consider deploying in this scenario?

a)

Kon-Boot

b)

Recuva

c)

CryptaPix

d)

ModSecurity

37.

Adam is thinking of establishing a hospital in the US and approaches John, a software developer to build a site and host it for him on one of the servers, which would be used to store patient health records. He has learned from his legal advisors that he needs to have the server's log data reviewed and managed according to certain standards and regulations. Which of the following regulations are the legal advisors referring to?

a)

Electronic Communications Privacy Act

b)

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)

c)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996(HIPAA)

d)

Data Protection Act of 2018

38.

A computer forensics investigator or forensic analyst is a specially trained professional who works with law enforcement as well as private businesses to retrieve information from computers and other types of data storage devices. For this, the analyst should have an excellent working knowledge of all aspects of the computer. Which of the following is not a duty of the analyst during a criminal investigation?

a)

To enforce the security of all devices and software in the scene

b)

To fill the chain of custody

c)

To recover data from suspect devices

d)

To create an investigation report

39.

Jeff is a forensics investigator for a government agency's cyber security office. Jeff is tasked with acquiring a memory dump of a Windows 10 computer that was involved in a DDoS attack on the government agency's web application. Jeff is onsite to collect the memory. What tool could Jeff use?

a)

Memcheck

b)

RAMMapper

c)

Volatility

d)

Autopsy

40.

ISO/IEC 17025 is an accreditation for which of the following:

a)

CHFI issuing agency

b)

Forensics lab licensing

c)

Chain of custody

d)

Encryption

41.

Brian analyzes malware in an isolated virtual environment with separated virtual networks and no Internet or intranet connectivity. He runs the executable to observe its behavior. What type of analysis did Brian perform?

a)

Dynamic malware analysis

b)

Static malware analysis

c)

Static OS analysis

d)

Status malware analysis

42.

____________ allows a forensic investigator to identify the missing links during investigation.

a)

Evidence reconstruction

b)

Chain of custody

c)

Evidence preservation

d)

Exhibit numbering

43.

An investigator seized a notebook with Microsoft Windows. Which type of file systems would support investigating the data size and structure on the device?

a)

NTFS and FAT

b)

HFS and GNUC

c)

Ext2 and Ext4

d)

APFS and HFS

44.

A SIM card shows ICCID 8944245252001451548. What do the first four digits (89 and 44) in the ICCID represent?

a)

Issuer identifier number and TAC

b)

Country code and industry identifier

c)

Industry identifier and country code

d)

TAC and industry identifier

45.

Frank needs to back up OS disks of two Azure VMs storing business‑critical data. Which type of Azure blob storage can he use for this purpose?

a)

Page blob

b)

Append blob

c)

Block blob

d)

Medium blob

46.

Which Windows event log records events related to device drivers and hardware changes?

a)

System log

b)

Forwarded events log

c)

Security log

d)

Application log

47.

Which application allows a forensic investigator to track user login sessions and transactions on an MS SQL Server?

a)

Event Log Explorer

b)

netcat

c)

ApexSQL Audit

d)

Notepad++

48.

Which method of mobile device data acquisition captures all data present on the device, including deleted data and access to unallocated space?

a)

Physical acquisition

b)

Direct acquisition

c)

Logical acquisition

d)

Manual acquisition

49.

Which forensic tool allows an investigator to detect and extract hidden streams on an NTFS drive?

a)

analyzeMFT

b)

Autopsy

c)

TimeStomp

d)

Stream Detector

50.

According to RFC 3227, which item is considered the most volatile on a typical system?

a)

Temporary system files

b)

Kernel statistics and memory

c)

Registers and cache

d)

Archival media

51.

In Java on Android, which process enables low memory use and fast start-up by avoiding multiple Dalvik VM instances?

a)

Daemon

b)

Zygote

c)

Media server

d)

Init

52.

Which IoT attack uses many forged identities to create an illusion of traffic congestion that disrupts communication between nodes and networks?

a)

Jamming attack

b)

Sybil attack

c)

Blueborne attack

d)

Replay attack

53.

Data density of a disk drive is calculated using which set of measures?

a)

Track space, bit area, and slack space

b)

Slack space, bit density, and slack density

c)

Track density, areal density, and slack density

d)

Track density, areal density, and bit density

54.

On a Windows XP system, where is the Recycle Bin located?

a)

local/share/Trash

b)

Drive:\RECYCLER\

c)

Drive:\RECYCLED

d)

Drive:\$Recycle.Bin\

55.

To copy an OS disk snapshot of a compromised VM to a storage account in a different Azure region, which tool should be used?

a)

Azure CLI

b)

Azure Portal

c)

Azure Active Directory

d)

Azure Monitor

56.

Which iOS architecture layer provides frameworks for iOS app development?

a)

Cocoa Touch

b)

Media services

c)

Core OS

d)

Core services

57.

A forensic analyst reviews web application logs showing database errors after crafted inputs. What attack type was performed?

a)

SQL injection

b)

Unvalidated input

c)

Log tampering

d)

Directory traversal

58.

Which tool can extract passwords and hashes from SAM and System files to obtain a list of users?

a)

PWdump7

b)

HashKey

c)

FileMerlin

d)

Nuix

59.

When analyzing RAM with the Volatility Framework, which plugin identifies hidden processes or injected code/DLLs in a memory dump?

a)

malfind

b)

malscan

c)

mallist

d)

pslist

60.

Packers can be used in anti-forensics to hinder analysis of malware or binaries. Which statement best explains their role?

a)

They compress and obfuscate executable code

b)

They disable antivirus services directly

c)

They erase system logs permanently

d)

They delete registry hives automatically

61.

Which set of anti-forensic tools/techniques allows a program to compress and/or encrypt an executable file to hide attack tools from being detected by reverse-engineering or scanning?

a)

Emulators

b)

Botnets

c)

Password crackers

d)

Packers

62.

A cybercriminal is attempting to remove evidence from a Windows computer. He deletes the file evidence1.doc, sending it to Windows Recycle Bin. The cybercriminal then empties the Recycle Bin. After having been removed from the Recycle Bin, what will happen to the data?

a)

The data will be overwritten with zeroes

b)

The data will remain in its original clusters until it is overwritten

c)

The data will become corrupted, making it unrecoverable

d)

The data will be moved to new clusters in unallocated space

63.

You are the incident response manager at a regional bank. While performing routine auditing of web application logs, you find several attempted login submissions that contain the following strings: What kind of attack has occurred?

a)

Cross-site scripting

b)

Buffer overflow

c)

Cross-site request forgery

d)

SQL injection

64.

Which of the following statements pertaining to First Response is true?

a)

First Response is neither a part of pre-investigation phase nor a part of investigation phase. It only involves attending to a crime scene first and taking measures that assist forensic investigators in executing their tasks in the investigation phase more efficiently

b)

First Response is a part of the post-investigation phase

c)

First Response is a part of the investigation phase

d)

First Response is a part of the pre-investigation phase

65.

Storage location of Recycle Bin for NTFS file systems (Windows Vista and later) is located at:

a)

Drive:\RECYCLE.BIN

b)

Drive:\$Recycle.Bin

c)

Drive:\RECYCLED

d)

Drive:\RECYCLER

66.

Which of the following attacks refers to unintentional download of malicious software via the Internet? Here, an attacker exploits flaws in browser software to install malware merely by the user visiting the malicious website.

a)

Malvertising

b)

Internet relay chats

c)

Phishing

d)

Drive-by downloads

67.

Which of the following directory contains the binary files or executables required for system maintenance and administrative tasks on a Linux system?

a)

/sbin

b)

/lib

c)

/usr

d)

/bin

68.

The information security manager at a national legal firm has received several alerts from the intrusion detection system that a known attack signature was detected against the organization's file server. What should the information security manager do first?

a)

Manually investigate to verify that an incident has occurred

b)

Report the incident to senior management

c)

Update the anti-virus definitions on the file server

d)

Disconnect the file server from the network

69.

An investigator needs to perform data acquisition from a storage media without altering its contents to maintain the integrity of the content. The approach adopted by the investigator relies upon the capacity of enabling read-only access to the storage media. Which tool should the investigator integrate into his/her procedures to accomplish this task?

a)

Backup tool

b)

Write blocker

c)

BitLocker

d)

Data duplication tool

70.

Chloe is a forensic examiner who is currently cracking hashed passwords for a crucial mission and hopefully solve the case. She is using a lookup table used for recovering a plain text password from cipher text; it contains word list and brute-force list along with their computed hash values. Chloe is also using a graphical generator that supports SHA1. a. What password technique is being used? b. What tool is Chloe using?

a)

a. Cain & Able b. Rten

b)

a. Rainbow Tables b. Winrtgen

c)

a. Dictionary attack b. Cisco PIX

d)

a. Brute-force b. MScache

71.

You are a forensic investigator who is analyzing a hard drive that was recently collected as evidence. You have been unsuccessful at locating any meaningful evidence within the file system and suspect a drive wiping utility may have been used. You have reviewed the keys within the software hive of the Windows registry and did not find any drive wiping utilities. How can you verify that drive wiping software was used on the hard drive?

a)

Check the list of installed programs

b)

Look for distinct repeating patterns on the hard drive at the bit level

c)

Document in your report that you suspect a drive wiping utility was used, but no evidence was found

d)

Load various drive wiping utilities offline, and export previous run reports

72.

Which law sets rules for commercial email, establishes requirements for commercial messages, gives recipients the right to opt out, and spells out tough penalties for violations?

a)

European Anti-Spam act

b)

Telemarketing act

c)

Federal Spam act

d)

The CAN-SPAM act

73.

To understand the impact of a malicious program after the booting process and gather recent information from the disk partition, an investigator should evaluate the content of the:

a)

MBR

b)

UEFI

c)

BIOS

d)

GRUB

74.

An investigator uploads a suspicious executable to VirusTotal to confirm whether the file is malicious, provide information about its functionality, and produce simple network signatures. What type of malware analysis was performed?

a)

Dynamic

b)

Volatile

c)

Static

d)

Hybrid

75.

Debbie executed a search warrant to seize digital devices used for downloading illicit images. She seized all devices except a digital camera. Why did she not collect the digital camera?

a)

Vehicle was full, no space

b)

Overlooked because not a computer

c)

Not listed in the warrant

d)

Old and damaged, no batteries

76.

A Cisco firewall log shows: "%ASA-1-106021: Deny ICMP reverse path check from 10.0.0.44 to 10.0.0.33 on interface outside." What does "%ASA-1-106021" denote?

a)

Type of request

b)

Type of traffic

c)

Mnemonic message

d)

Firewall action

77.

You are an information security analyst at a large pharmaceutical company. While performing a routine review of audit logs, you have noticed a significant amount of egress traffic to various IP addresses on destination port 22 during off-peak hours. You researched some of the IP addresses and found that many of them are in Eastern Europe. What is the most likely cause of this traffic? A. The organization's primary internal DNS server has been compromised and is performing DNS zone transfers to malicious external entities

a)

Data is being exfiltrated by an advanced persistent threat (APT)

b)

The organization's primary internal DNS server has been compromised and is performing DNS zone transfers to malicious external entities

c)

Malicious software on internal system is downloading research data from partner SFTP servers in Eastern Europe

d)

Internal systems are downloading automatic Windows updates

78.

Fred, a cybercrime investigator, finished storing a solid-state drive in a static resistant bag and filled out the chain of custody form. Two days later, John grabbed the solid-state drive and created a clone of it (with write blockers enabled) in order to investigate the drive. He did not document the chain of custody though. When John was finished, he put the solid-state drive back in the static resistant bag and placed it back in the evidence locker. A day later, the court trial began and upon presenting the evidence and the supporting documents, the chief justice outright rejected them. Which of the following statements strongly supports the reason for rejecting the evidence?

a)

John investigated the clone instead of the original evidence itself

b)

John did not document the chain of custody

c)

Block clones cannot be created with solid-state drives

d)

Write blockers were used while cloning the evidence

79.

The working of the Tor browser is based on which of the following concepts?

a)

Static routing

b)

Default routing

c)

Onion routing

d)

Both static and default routing

80.

A breach resulted from a malware attack that evaded detection and compromised the machine memory without installing any software or accessing the hard drive. What technique did the adversaries use to deliver the attack?

a)

Trojan

b)

JavaScript

c)

Spyware

d)

Fileless

81.

Sally accessed the computer system that holds trade secrets of the company where she is employed. She knows she accessed it without authorization and all access (authorized and unauthorized) to this computer is monitored. To cover her tracks, Sally deleted the log entries on this computer. What among the following best describes her action?

a)

Network intrusion

b)

Anti-forensics

c)

Brute-force attack

d)

Password sniffing

82.

Which of the following is considered as the starting point of a database and stores user data and database objects in an MS SQL server?

a)

Application data files (ADF)

b)

Primary data files (MDF)

c)

Transaction log data files (LDF)

d)

ibdata1

83.

Fill in the missing Master Boot Record component. 1. Master boot code 2. Partition table 3. __________

a)

Disk signature

b)

Signature word

c)

Boot loader

d)

Volume boot record

84.

"To ensure that the digital evidence is collected, preserved, examined, or transferred in a manner safeguarding the accuracy and reliability of the evidence, law enforcement, and forensics organizations must establish and maintain an effective quality system" is a principle established by:

a)

NIST

b)

NCIS

c)

EC-Council

d)

SWGDE

85.

Recently, an internal web app that a government agency utilizes has become unresponsive. Betty, a network engineer for the government agency, has been tasked to determine the cause of the web application's unresponsiveness. Betty launches Wireshark and begins capturing the traffic on the local network. While analyzing the results, Betty noticed that a syn flood attack was underway. How did Betty know a syn flood attack was occurring?

a)

Wireshark capture does not show anything unusual and the issue is related to the web application

b)

Wireshark capture shows multiple ACK requests and SYN responses from single/multiple IP address(es)

c)

Wireshark capture shows multiple SYN requests and ACK responses from single/multiple IP address(es)

d)

Wireshark capture shows multiple SYN requests and RST responses from single/multiple IP address(es)

86.

Steve received an email that seemed to have come from her bank. The mail has instructions for Steve to click on a link and provide information to avoid the suspension of her account. The link redirected her to a form asking for details such as name, phone number, date of birth,

a)

Phishing

b)

Vishing

c)

Pharming

d)

Smishing

87.

Mark works for a government agency as a cyber-forensic investigator. He has been given the task of restoring data from a hard drive. The partition of the hard drive was deleted by a disgruntled employee in order to hide their nefarious actions. What tool should Mark use to restore the data?

a)

EFSDump

b)

R-Studio

c)

Diskview

d)

Diskmon

88.

An EC2 instance storing critical data of a company got infected with malware. The forensics team took the EBS volume snapshot of the affected instance to perform further analysis and collected other data of evidentiary value. What should be their next step?

a)

Terminate instances in the same VPC

b)

Pause the running instance

c)

Terminate instance after backup

d)

Keep instance running for critical data

89.

A security analyst identifies an influx of network traffic from an IoT HVAC system in a multinational corporation. The corporation is concerned about a possible HVAC attack. What should the security analyst prioritize to mitigate this potential threat?

a)

Check signs of Rolling Code attack

b)

Validate for potential DDoS attack

c)

Investigate BlueBorne attack possibility

d)

Inspect HVAC system for backdoor access

90.

A digital forensics investigator performs a browser history analysis after a suspected breach. The investigator deals with three web browsers: Mozilla Firefox, Google Chrome, and Microsoft Edge. The suspect was using Windows. The investigator must locate the cache, cookies, and history for all three browsers. What are the correct locations?

a)

Firefox: Cache - C:\UsersWAppData\Local\Mozilla\Firefox\Profiles\XXXXXXXX.default\cache2; Chrome: History - C:\Users\{user)\AppData\Local\Google\Crrome\User Data\Default; Edge: Cookies - C:\Users\Admin\AppData\Local\Packages\Microsoft.MicrosoftEdge_xxxxxxxxxx\AC\Microsoft Edge\Cookies

b)

Firefox: Cookies - C:\Users\\AppData\Roaming\Mozilla\Firefox\Profiles\XXXXXXXX.default\cookies.sqlite; Chrome: Cache - C:\Users\{user}\AppData\Local\Coogle\Chrome\User Data\Default\Cache; Edge: History - C:\Users\Admin\AppData\Local\Microsoft\Windows\History

c)

Firefox: Cache - C:\UsersWAppData\Roaming\Mozilla\Firefox\Profiles\XXXXXXXX.default\places.sqlite; Chrome: Cookies - C:\Users\{user}\AppData\Local\Google\Chrome\User Data\Default; Edge: History - C:\Users\Admin\AppData\Local\Microsoft\Windows\WebCache

d)

Firefox: History - C:\Users\\AppData\Local\Mozilla\Firefox\Profiles\XXXXXXXX.default\cookies.sqlite; Chrome: Cache - C:\Users\{user}\AppData\Local\Coogle\Chrome\User Data\Default\Cache; Edge: Cookies - C:\Users\Admin\AppData\Local\Packages\Microsoft.MicrosoftEdge_xxxxxxxxxx\AC\Microsoft Edge\Cookies

91.

A Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator (CHFI) is examining a compromised Macintosh computer. The system was found to be missing the pre-linked kernel at /System/Library/Caches/com.apple.kernelcaches. What is the next step that the Macintosh boot process will take to load the operating system in such a scenario?

a)

Boot loader passes control to BootX or boot.efi

b)

System initializes I/O kit and links drivers

c)

Boot loader loads mkext cache file

d)

Boot loader searches for drivers in Extensions

92.

An experienced forensic investigator, Chris, is tasked with preparing a testbed for malware analysis. Given the complexity of the malware samples, which are mostly compatible with Windows binary executables, Chris must take meticulous precautions to ensure the integrity of the lab environment. Which of the following procedures would Chris NOT be likely to follow in preparing the testbed for malware analysis?

a)

Enable shared folders and guest isolation

b)

Install guest OS in virtual machines

c)

Use INetSim with NIC in host-only mode

d)

Create VM snapshot before analysis

93.

A forensic investigator is analyzing a smartphone to gather crucial evidence. To fully understand the device's working and data flow, he needs to comprehend the various mobile architectural layers. While examining the device's frequency conversion, the investigator focuses on which of the following hardware components?

a)

Baseband part

b)

DAC/ADC

c)

Antenna

d)

RF part

94.

As a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator, you are analysing a system with a UEFI boot process underway. You have reached the Boot Device Selection phase, and you notice that the system is attempting to load MBR boot code into memory. What can you infer from this?

a)

The system is transitioning to the DXE phaseThe system is transitioning to the DXE phase

b)

The system is stuck in the Pre-EFI initialization phase

c)

The system follows a UEFI boot process

d)

The system is going through a legacy BIOS boot proceThe system is going through a legacy BIOS boot process

95.

As a forensic investigator, you are investigating a suspected cyberattack that led to the system crash of a Windows 10 computer. You obtained a memory dump file and intend to utilize Microsoft's DumpChk tool for a quick analysis. However, you are interested in isolating a particular process that you suspect is responsible for the crash, rather than inspecting the whole memory dump file. Based on the given details and your knowledge of Windows memory analysis, which of the following would be the most efficient approach?As a forensic investigator, you are investigating a suspected cyberattack that led to the system crash of a Windows 10 computer. You obtained a memory dump file and intend to utilize Microsoft's DumpChk tool for a quick analysis. However, you are interested in isolating a particular process that you suspect is responsible for the crash, rather than inspecting the whole memory dump file. Based on the given details and your knowledge of Windows memory analysis, which of the following would be the most efficient approach?

a)

Directly analyze the entire memory dump file using DumpChk, then isolate the details of the suspected processDirectly analyze the entire memory dump file using DumpChk, then isolate the details of the suspected process

b)

Use ListDLLs.exe to list all DLLs loaded into the suspected process, then analyze these DLLs using DumpChk

c)

Run DumpChk with the -y SymbolPath parameter, specifying the path to the symbols of the suspected process

d)

Use the Process Dumper tool to dump the entire process space of the suspected process to a file, then analyze the dump file using DumpChk

96.

Someone in the field of forensic investigation is looking at an Apache access log. They're searching for any evidence of a command injection attack. During this process, they find a log entry where the IP address "10.0.0.8" placed a GET request using the command ip=127.0.0.1;ls+/var/www/html. Judging by this data, what might be the individual’s objective behind this attack?

a)

The individual behind the attack is attempting a brute-force attack on the host server

b)

The individual behind the attack is working towards replacing the target file on the host server

c)

The individual behind the attack aims to see what's inside the /var/www/html directory of the host server

d)

The individual behind the attack is working to put an XML external entity into the web application

97.

In an ongoing investigation, a computer forensics investigator encounters a suspicious file believed to be packed using a password-protected program packer. The investigator possesses both the knowledge of the packing tool used and the necessary unpacking tool. What critical step should the investigator consider before analyzing the packed file?In an ongoing investigation, a computer forensics investigator encounters a suspicious file believed to be packed using a password-protected program packer. The investigator possesses both the knowledge of the packing tool used and the necessary unpacking tool. What critical step should the investigator consider before analyzing the packed file?In an ongoing investigation, a computer forensics investigator encounters a suspicious file believed to be packed using a password-protected program packer. The investigator possesses both the knowledge of the packing tool used and the necessary unpacking tool. What critical step should the investigator consider before analyzing the packed file?In an ongoing investigation, a computer forensics investigator encounters a suspicious file believed to be packed using a password-protected program packer. The investigator possesses both the knowledge of the packing tool used and the necessary unpacking tool. What critical step should the investigator consider before analyzing the packed file?

a)

Conduct static analysis on the packed file immediatelyConduct static analysis on the packed file immediately

b)

Reverse engineer the packed file to understand the hidden attack toolsReverse engineer the packed file to understand the hidden attack tools

c)

Attempt to decrypt the password prior to unpacking the file

d)

Run the packed file in a controlled environment for dynamic analysis

98.

During an ongoing cybercrime investigation involving a significant amount of encrypted communication, a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator (CHFI) believes the suspect's computer holds crucial evidence. However, there's a high chance that the suspect could destroy the evidence before obtaining a warrant. Which action is legally permissible in this circumstance according to the US courts?

a)

The investigator should wait for a warrant regardless of potential evidence destruction

b)

The investigator can seize the evidence without a warrant but must immediately seek a retroactive warrant

c)

The investigator can seize the evidence without a warrant if there's probable cause to believe that the computer holds evidence of the crime

d)

The investigator cannot seize the evidence without the suspect's consent, even if there's an imminent risk of evidence destruction