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WorksheetsPaediatric Orthopaedics
Total questions: 30
Worksheet time: 23mins
A 2-year-old child has symmetrical bowing of both legs, no pain, and is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate management?
Prescribe orthotics
X-ray of lower limbs
Urgent orthopaedic referral
Reassure and observe
Check inflammatory markers
Which feature suggests that in-toeing is pathological rather than a normal variant?
Age 3 years
Bilateral involvement
Worse when tired
Family history of in-toeing
Associated pain and limp
Flexible flat feet in a 5-year-old should be managed by:
Rigid orthotics
Foot surgery referral
MRI foot
Physiotherapy
Reassurance only
Toe walking is most concerning when it is associated with:
Bilateral involvement
Age under 3 years
Developmental delay
Ability to heel-strike on command
Family history of toe walking
A 4-year-old presents with an acute limp following a viral URTI. Afebrile, mild hip pain, able to weight bear. Most likely diagnosis?
Osteomyelitis
Perthes disease
Transient synovitis
SCFE
Septic arthritis
Which feature most strongly suggests septic arthritis rather than transient synovitis?
Mild restriction of movement
Age under 5
Raised ESR only
Refusal to weight bear
Hip pain after infection
A child refusing to weight bear should be:
Reviewed in 48 hours
Treated with NSAIDs
Sent for physiotherapy
Given reassurance
Referred urgently
Perthes disease most commonly affects which age group?
Three to ten years
Ten to fourteen years
Under 2 years
Adolescents only
Neonates
Which is the strongest risk factor for DDH?
Breech presentation
Prematurity
Multiple births
Maternal smoking
Male sex
Appropriate imaging for suspected DDH in a 3-month-old infant is:
Bone scan
Hip ultrasound
Pelvic X-ray
CT scan
MRI
The GP’s role in DDH screening primarily involves:
Repeated Barlow manoeuvres
Ordering MRI scans
Measuring leg lengths only
Identifying risk factors and referring
Initiating splinting
A 13-year-old overweight boy presents with knee pain and a limp. Examination shows reduced internal rotation of the hip. What is the diagnosis?
Patellofemoral pain syndrome
SCFE
Perthes disease
Septic arthritis
Osgood–Schlatter disease
Initial management of suspected SCFE includes:
Immediate non-weight bearing and urgent referral
Physiotherapy
NSAIDs and review
Weight bearing as tolerated
Knee X-ray only
A buckle (torus) fracture is best described as:
Growth plate fracture
Compression injury of bone cortex
Complete fracture
Greenstick fracture
Spiral fracture
Which fracture has the highest risk of neurovascular compromise?
Supracondylar fracture
Greenstick fracture
Clavicle fracture
Metacarpal fracture
Buckle fracture
A Salter-Harris type II fracture involves:
Joint surface only
Metaphysis and physis
Diaphysis only
Epiphysis only
Physis only
Sever’s disease is caused by:
Stress fracture
Achilles tendon rupture
Calcaneal apophysitis
Tarsal coalition
Infection of calcaneus
Rigid flat foot with pain should prompt suspicion of:
Tarsal coalition
Poor footwear
Growing pains
Normal variant
Plantar fasciitis
Osgood–Schlatter disease typically presents with:
Knee locking
Hip pain
Night pain
Medial knee pain
Anterior knee pain over tibial tuberosity
Best initial management of Osgood–Schlatter disease is:
NSAIDs, activity modification, reassurance
Knee brace long-term
Complete sports cessation for 1 year
Steroid injection
Surgery
Nursemaid’s elbow most commonly occurs due to:
Sports injury
Fall on outstretched hand
Sudden pulling of the arm
Birth injury
Direct trauma
Following reduction of nursemaid’s elbow, the child usually:
Requires X-ray
Needs splinting
Regains function immediately
Needs orthopaedic referral
Needs analgesia for weeks
Scoliosis is defined as:
Postural imbalance only
Painful spinal curvature
Lateral spinal curvature over ten degrees
Kyphotic deformity
Any spinal asymmetry
Back pain in children is most concerning when associated with:
Heavy school bags
Night pain
Poor posture
Mild stiffness
Sports activity
Which feature is most suggestive of bone malignancy?
Night pain with weight loss
Joint stiffness only
Pain relieved by NSAIDs
Pain after exercise
Bilateral leg pain
Osteomyelitis commonly presents with:
Only limp without pain
No systemic features
Fever and localized bone pain
Chronic symptoms only
Isolated joint swelling
Which finding should raise concern for non-accidental injury?
Clavicle fracture at birth
Spiral fracture in a non-ambulatory child
Single fracture after fall
Greenstick fracture
Buckle fracture
Which is the most appropriate safety-net advice for parents of a limping child sent home?
Return urgently if fever or refusal to walk develops
Come back if still limping in six months
Book routine physiotherapy
Avoid all activity for weeks
It will resolve
Pain in growing children is:
Always normal
Usually benign
Never concerning
Not a normal feature of growth
Always psychological
Most paediatric orthopaedic presentations in general practice require:
Physiotherapy
Surgery
Imaging
Urgent referral
Reassurance and observation
