Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

UCSP

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines social science in this course context?

a)

Study of natural phenomena in laboratories

b)

Study of market prices and accounting rules

c)

Study of social structure and human behavior

d)

Study of moral virtues and metaphysics

2.

Which list correctly identifies branches commonly included in social science?

a)

Theology, Aesthetics, Logic

b)

Geography, History, Demography

c)

Biology, Chemistry, Physics

d)

Architecture, Music, Fine Arts

3.

Which subfield of anthropology focuses on human evolution and physical appearance?

a)

Archaeology

b)

Linguistic anthropology

c)

Cultural anthropology

d)

Physical anthropology

4.

Which approach is part of anthropological method?

a)

Computer simulations of atoms

b)

Holism and cultural relativism

c)

Deductive geometry proofs

d)

Randomized clinical trials

5.

Who is noted as the father of American anthropology in this material?

a)

Max Weber

b)

Aristotle

c)

Auguste Comte

d)

Franz Boas

6.

What goal is central to anthropology as taught here?

a)

Predict stock market trends

b)

Study fossils and human adaptation

c)

Model planetary motion

d)

Design legal contracts

7.

Sociology is characterized in this course as the scientific study of which focus?

a)

Human society and group behavior

b)

Supreme Court case law

c)

Individual brain chemistry

d)

Trade routes and climate change

8.

Which thinker is identified as the father of sociology?

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

Émile Durkheim

c)

Karl Marx

d)

Auguste Comte

9.

Political science studies power, law, and governance to understand what?

a)

How poems create meaning

b)

How stars form and collapse

c)

How cells divide and mutate

d)

How decisions are made and used

10.

Which branch of government is responsible for making laws in this framework?

a)

Administrative branch

b)

Legislative branch

c)

Executive branch

d)

Judicial branch

11.

Which statement best defines culture in this context?

a)

Genetic traits passed through generations

b)

A way of life shaped by shared meanings

c)

Economic systems organizing production and trade

d)

Government policies regulating social behavior

12.

Which is an example of material culture?

a)

Smartphones used daily

b)

Honesty as a moral value

c)

Respecting elders in greetings

d)

Belief in personal integrity

13.

Which term describes abstract human creations like beliefs and values?

a)

Legal structures

b)

Formal institutions

c)

Material culture

d)

Non-material culture

14.

Which norm category covers routine conventions such as saying “po” or “opo”?

a)

Folkways

b)

Mores

c)

Laws

d)

Taboos

15.

Stealing is wrong because it violates norms with moral significance. Which category is this?

a)

Laws

b)

Folkways

c)

Taboos

d)

Mores

16.

Cannibalism is treated as a forbidden act with the strongest negative sanctions. Which category fits?

a)

Taboos

b)

Customs

c)

Mores

d)

Folkways

17.

Which characteristic emphasizes that culture changes to solve problems?

a)

Patterned social interactions

b)

Dynamic, flexible, adaptive

c)

Requires language for communication

d)

Transmitted through socialization

18.

Which driver of social change is illustrated by rising healthcare needs due to population shifts?

a)

Technological innovation

b)

Legal reforms

c)

Population changes

d)

Environmental pressures

19.

Which statement best describes cultural relativism?

a)

Viewing behaviors within their cultural context

b)

Preferring foreign customs over local ones

c)

Judging all cultures by universal standards

d)

Believing one culture is naturally superior

20.

What is a core feature of ethnocentrism?

a)

Equal respect for all traditions

b)

Explaining customs through local meanings

c)

Assuming cultural differences are harmless

d)

Believing one’s culture is superior to others

21.

Which habit is identified as a unique Filipino practice?

a)

Eating exclusively with utensils

b)

Siesta after midnight only

c)

Living with parents into adulthood

d)

Formal greetings without elders

22.

Xenocentrism is best defined as

a)

Rejection of all cultural symbols entirely

b)

Preference for foreign cultures over one’s own

c)

Loyalty to one’s homeland above all

d)

Balanced appreciation of all cultures equally

23.

Which example best shows bayanihan?

a)

Strictly following individual preferences

b)

Avoiding involvement in local issues

c)

Communal unity in helping neighbors

d)

Competing for personal gain alone

24.

What is the primary purpose of social construction in culture?

a)

To make symbols sensible to human perception

b)

To remove abstract ideas from rituals

c)

To deny that societies create shared meanings

d)

To enforce legal penalties uniformly

25.

Which pair correctly matches symbol and its function?

a)

Symbol—represents something meaningful

b)

Symbolism—removes cultural significance

c)

Symbol—random decoration only

d)

Symbolism—denies abstract interpretation

26.

Which practice expresses respect for elders in Filipino culture?

a)

Harana as a casual pastime

b)

Mano po as a respectful gesture

c)

Fiesta as a religious ceremony

d)

Siesta as a daily rest period

27.

Which idea best captures John Locke’s Tabula Rasa?

a)

Infants possess innate moral truths

b)

Infants are born as a clean slate

c)

Infants inherit fixed social roles

d)

Infants remember past-life knowledge

28.

In Mead’s Imitation Stage, what does the child primarily do?

a)

Form a complete sense of self

b)

Mimic the behaviors of significant others

c)

Invent original social rules

d)

Integrate multiple adult roles fully

29.

Which statement distinguishes enculturation from socialization?

a)

Both are identical processes across fields

b)

Enculturation is an anthropologist’s view; socialization is a sociologist’s view

c)

Enculturation happens only in schools; socialization only at home

d)

Socialization concerns language; enculturation concerns biology

30.

During Mead’s Play Stage, what key change occurs?

a)

Child rejects all social rules

b)

Child achieves a full sense of self

c)

Child masters complex legal norms

d)

Child takes on different roles seen in adults

31.

Which feature defines Mead’s Game Stage?

a)

No real understanding of rules

b)

Only understanding separate roles

c)

Develops a full sense of self

d)

Ignores how roles fit with others

32.

Which example fits Primary Socialization?

a)

Joining a college club

b)

Starting a new job

c)

Learning honoring gestures from family

d)

Preparing for future adult roles

33.

Which scenario best illustrates Secondary Socialization?

a)

Teens anticipating workplace expectations

b)

Employees adapting to a new organization’s rules

c)

Toddlers learning family norms

d)

Infants acquiring basic language at home

34.

What is Anticipatory Socialization mainly about?

a)

Fixing innate moral deficiencies

b)

Practicing roles expected in the future

c)

Returning to childhood habits

d)

Rejecting all cultural norms

35.

Which statement best describes the “Context” part of socialization?

a)

It is the activity where norms are taught to novices

b)

It records personal dreams and specific social demands

c)

It denotes culture, language, social ranks within groups

d)

It measures outcomes after exposure to processes

36.

In socialization, what distinguishes “Content” from “Process”?

a)

Content is rewards; process is punishments

b)

Content is ranks; process is rules of society

c)

Content is outcomes; process is individual identity

d)

Content is what is passed; process is how it is taught

37.

Which factor is listed as shaping one’s social identity and self-identity?

a)

Environment, interactions, life experiences

b)

Genetics, physiology, brain chemistry

c)

Education, employment, income level

d)

Religion, politics, economic system

38.

What is the primary function of role/status in socialization?

a)

To measure loss of belonging and purpose

b)

To provide positive reinforcement and rewards

c)

To internalize society’s values and norms

d)

To control and guide behavior, especially youth

39.

Durkheim’s concept of anomie most closely occurs during which conditions?

a)

Periods of high conformity and low deviance

b)

Rapid social, economic, or political change

c)

Stable moral consensus and strong institutions

d)

Increased education and technological progress

40.

Which is a listed effect of anomie?

a)

Greater social cohesion and solidarity

b)

Identity and social roles no longer valued

c)

Enhanced personal dreams and goal setting

d)

More positive reinforcement and praise

41.

How is deviance defined in contrast to crime?

a)

Deviance is punished by rewards; crime by shame

b)

Deviance is legal behavior; crime is moral behavior

c)

Deviance violates written codes; crime violates customs

d)

Deviance violates unwritten norms; crime violates written laws

42.

Which statement captures how norms/values shape behavior?

a)

They shape acceptable behavior and thinking in society

b)

They create confusion about norms and belonging

c)

They cause disconnection from society and increased crime

d)

They replace identity with purposelessness and hopelessness

43.

Which statement best captures the idea that deviance is relative to cultural norms?

a)

All societies label the same acts as deviant

b)

Deviance exists independently of social expectations

c)

Deviance always violates universal moral principles

d)

An act is deviant only within specific societal norms

44.

What does it mean that deviance is socially labeled?

a)

Deviance is judged by observers in society

b)

Deviance disappears when laws are repealed

c)

Deviance is biologically predetermined at birth

d)

Deviance is fixed by natural law universally

45.

Which view links deviance to social power?

a)

Deviance is unrelated to political authority

b)

Norms and laws reflect existing power relations

c)

Deviance is always a personal moral failure

d)

Powerful people never define social norms

46.

Which feature best distinguishes a primary group from a secondary group?

a)

Interactions that are impersonal and short-term

b)

Long-lasting intimate relationships among members

c)

Focus on task efficiency and formal roles

d)

Membership based on temporary shared goals

47.

Which characteristic is typical of secondary groups?

a)

Intimacy and long-term personal bonds dominate

b)

Common interests bind members more than relationships

c)

Deep emotional ties form the core of membership

d)

Members rarely coordinate around shared goals

48.

What is a reference group used for?

a)

A replacement for all primary relationships

b)

A standard for self-evaluation and behavior

c)

A source of mandatory membership and loyalty

d)

A legal authority for enforcing sanctions

49.

Which statement reflects in-group membership?

a)

Persistent antagonism and contempt for members

b)

Mandatory participation without shared identity

c)

No interaction beyond occasional meetings

d)

A sense of belonging, loyalty, and respect

50.

According to Richard Gelles and Ann Levine, which criterion identifies social groups?

a)

Groups avoid establishing roles and statuses

b)

Members have shared identity and interact regularly

c)

Individuals refuse ongoing participation entirely

d)

Membership is accidental and rarely organized