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Taxonomy, Genetics, and Pedigree Worksheet (Grade 12)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the Linnaean system of classification, which of the following represents the most specific category?

a)

Genus

b)

Species

c)

Family

d)

Order

2.

Which domain consists of prokaryotes that are often found in extreme environments such as hot springs or salt lakes?

a)

Eukarya

b)

Bacteria

c)

Archaea

d)

Protista

3.

According to binomial nomenclature, what is the correct way to write the scientific name for humans?

a)

homo sapiens

b)

Homo Sapiens

c)

Homo sapiens

d)

sapiens Homo

4.

What is the primary basis for modern phylogenetic classification?

a)

Physical appearance

b)

Geographic location

c)

Evolutionary relationships and DNA

d)

Dietary habits

5.

In a cladogram, what does a 'node' represent?

a)

A specific species

b)

The common ancestor of the lineages that branch from it

c)

A trait that has been lost

d)

The environment where the organisms lived

6.

Which kingdom includes multicellular, heterotrophic organisms that absorb nutrients from decomposing organic matter?

a)

Plantae

b)

Animalia

c)

Fungi

d)

Protista

7.

What is the correct order of taxonomic ranks from broadest to most specific?

a)

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

b)

Phylum, Kingdom, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species

c)

Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom

d)

Domain, Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species

8.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the Kingdom Plantae?

a)

Prokaryotic cell structure

b)

Cell walls made of chitin

c)

Autotrophic nutrition via photosynthesis

d)

Lack of a cell wall

9.

What distinguishes the Domain Eukarya from the Domains Bacteria and Archaea?

a)

The presence of DNA

b)

The presence of a cell membrane

c)

The presence of a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles

d)

The ability to reproduce

10.

Why is the use of common names (like 'jellyfish') often discouraged in scientific studies?

a)

They are too hard to pronounce

b)

They can be misleading and vary by region or language

c)

They are only used for plants

d)

Common names are always in Latin

11.

If an organism has the genotype AaAa , it is described as being:

a)

Homozygous dominant

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Homozygous recessive

d)

Phenotypically recessive

12.

Which term refers to the observable physical or physiological traits of an organism?

a)

Genotype

b)

Allele

c)

Phenotype

d)

Gamete

13.

In pea plants, purple flowers (P) are dominant over white flowers (p). What is the phenotype of a plant with the genotype PpPp ?

a)

White flowers

b)

Purple flowers

c)

Light purple flowers

d)

Both purple and white flowers

14.

A Punnett square is used to:

a)

Determine the exact DNA sequence of a gene

b)

Predict the possible genetic outcomes of a cross

c)

Count the number of chromosomes in a cell

d)

Identify mutations in the genome

15.

If two heterozygous parents ( Aa×AaAa \times Aa ) are crossed, what is the expected genotypic ratio of the offspring?

a)

3:1

b)

1:2:1

c)

1:1

d)

All AaAa

16.

Which of the following is true regarding recessive alleles?

a)

They are only expressed if two copies are present

b)

They are less common in the population than dominant alleles

c)

They always cause genetic diseases

d)

They are 'weaker' versions of the gene

17.

In a test cross, an individual with an unknown genotype expressing a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual that is:

a)

Homozygous dominant

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Homozygous recessive

d)

Hemizygous

18.

What happens in the case of codominance?

a)

The dominant allele completely masks the recessive allele

b)

The traits blend together to form an intermediate phenotype

c)

Both alleles are expressed equally and distinctly in the phenotype

d)

One allele is lost during development

19.

Human blood type (A, B, AB, O) is an example of:

a)

Single allele inheritance

b)

Multiple alleles and codominance

c)

Polygenic inheritance

d)

Incomplete dominance only

20.

A man with type AB blood and a woman with type O blood have children. What are the possible blood types of their offspring?

a)

AB and O

b)

A and B

c)

Only AB

d)

A, B, AB, and O

21.

In a pedigree chart, what symbol is typically used to represent a male?

a)

Circle

b)

Square

c)

Diamond

d)

Triangle

22.

What does a shaded or darkened symbol in a pedigree represent?

a)

A person who has died

b)

A person who is a carrier

c)

An individual expressing the trait or disorder being studied

d)

The oldest person in the family

23.

If a trait appears in every generation and every affected child has at least one affected parent, the trait is likely:

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

X-linked recessive

24.

If two unaffected parents have an affected child, what does this suggest about the inheritance of the trait?

a)

The trait is dominant

b)

The trait is recessive

c)

The trait is Y-linked

d)

It is not a genetic trait

25.

In a pedigree, a horizontal line connecting a square and a circle represents:

a)

Siblings

b)

A mating or marriage

c)

Identical twins

d)

A move to a different generation

26.

If a trait primarily affects males and often skips generations, it is most likely:

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

X-linked recessive

c)

X-linked dominant

d)

Mitochondrial

27.

On a pedigree, Roman numerals (I, II, III) are used to label:

a)

Individual people

b)

Generations

c)

The number of children

d)

The severity of the disease

28.

A half-shaded symbol in a pedigree usually identifies:

a)

A dominant individual

b)

An obligate carrier of a recessive trait

c)

An individual with an unknown phenotype

d)

A spontaneous mutation

29.

In an X-linked recessive pedigree, an affected female MUST have:

a)

An affected mother

b)

An affected father

c)

Only affected sons

d)

Affected sisters

30.

Which of the following would rule out a trait being X-linked recessive?

a)

A father passing the trait to his son

b)

A mother passing the trait to her son

c)

An affected female having an affected son

d)

Two affected parents having an affected child

31.

The wing of a bat and the arm of a human are examples of:

a)

Analogous structures

b)

Homologous structures

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Convergent evolution

32.

Analogous structures are evidence of:

a)

Common ancestry

b)

Convergent evolution

c)

Genetic mutations

d)

Divergent evolution

33.

The wings of a butterfly and the wings of a bird are:

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Vestigial

d)

Embryological

34.

What defines a structure as 'homologous'?

a)

Similarity in function but not origin

b)

Similarity in origin and structure, regardless of function

c)

The structure is no longer used by the organism

d)

The structure only appears in embryos

35.

The streamlined bodies of sharks (fish) and dolphins (mammals) are an example of:

a)

Homology

b)

Analogy resulting from convergent evolution

c)

Divergent evolution

d)

Coevolution

36.

A vestigial structure, like the human tailbone or whale pelvic bones, is:

a)

An analogous structure for balance

b)

A homologous structure that has lost its original function

c)

A newly evolved trait for a new environment

d)

Evidence of convergent evolution

37.

Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence that two structures are homologous?

a)

They are used for the same task

b)

They look identical from the outside

c)

They develop from the same embryonic tissues

d)

They are both found in aquatic animals

38.

Divergent evolution leads to:

a)

Analogous structures

b)

Homologous structures

c)

Extinction of all ancestral traits

d)

Identical DNA sequences in unrelated species

39.

Which of the following pairs are analogous?

a)

Cat leg and Whale flipper

b)

Cactus spine and Rose thorn

c)

Bird wing and Bat wing bones

d)

Human appendix and Rabbit caecum

40.

Why do homologous structures help scientists build phylogenetic trees?

a)

They show how environment changes organisms

b)

They reflect shared genetic heritage and common ancestry

c)

They prove that evolution is a fast process

d)

They allow scientists to ignore DNA evidence

41.

What is recombinant DNA?

a)

DNA that has been mutated by UV light

b)

DNA that contains genes from two or more different sources

c)

DNA that has been replicated during mitosis

d)

DNA found only in mitochondria

42.

Which molecular 'scissors' are used to cut DNA at specific sequences?

a)

DNA Ligase

b)

Restriction Enzymes

c)

Polymerase

d)

Helicase

43.

A small, circular piece of DNA found in bacteria that is often used as a vector in genetic engineering is called a:

a)

Chromosome

b)

Plasmid

c)

Centromere

d)

Ribosome

44.

What is the function of DNA ligase in the creation of recombinant DNA?

a)

To cut the target gene out of the genome

b)

To seal the gaps between DNA fragments by forming covalent bonds

c)

To separate DNA strands for sequencing

d)

To identify which bacteria took up the plasmid

45.

Which process involves introducing recombinant DNA into a host cell, such as a bacterium?

a)

Transcription

b)

Transformation

c)

Translation

d)

Transpiration

46.

What are 'sticky ends' in recombinant DNA technology?

a)

The ends of DNA after being heated

b)

Single-stranded DNA overhangs created by restriction enzymes

c)

The phosphate groups at the 5' end of DNA

d)

DNA that is bound to proteins

47.

What is a common medical application of recombinant DNA technology?

a)

Treating viral infections with antibiotics

b)

Production of human insulin by E. coli bacteria

c)

Manual heart surgery

48.

Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to:

a)

Insert DNA into a nucleus

b)

Separate DNA fragments based on their size

c)

Mutate DNA sequences

d)

Synthesize new proteins

49.

Why are selectable markers, such as antibiotic resistance genes, included in plasmids?

a)

To make the bacteria stronger

b)

To identify which bacteria successfully took up the recombinant plasmid

c)

To help the DNA replicate faster

d)

To prevent the plasmid from leaving the cell

50.

The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is often used alongside recombinant DNA techniques to:

a)

Cut DNA into pieces

b)

Amplify (make many copies of) a specific DNA sequence

c)

Change the sequence of a gene

d)

View the DNA under a microscope