wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

السماحي الناهيه

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If secondary active transport is disturbed, transport of which molecule would be impaired?

a)

Urea

b)

Alcohol

c)

O₂

d)

Amino acid

2.

Which type of transport through the cell membrane requires both energy and a carrier?

a)

Active transport

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Simple diffusion

3.

Absorption of amino acids through the intestinal brush border occurs by which of the following transport mechanisms?

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Secondary active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

4.

Which of the following is a function of the Na⁺/K⁺ pump?

a)

Adds more positivity to the resting membrane potential

b)

Controls cell volume

c)

Pumps Na⁺ into the cell

d)

Pumps K⁺ out of the cell

5.

What is the ratio of K⁺ influx to Na⁺ efflux by the Na⁺/K⁺ pump?

a)

1 : 2

b)

2 : 1

c)

2 : 3

d)

3 : 2

6.

Which of the following is a feature of active transport?

a)

Na⁺/H⁺ exchange is an example of symport secondary active transport

b)

Na⁺/glucose cotransport is an example of antiport primary active transport

c)

Phagocytosis means ingestion of minute particles in solution

d)

Endocytosis is a special type of active transport for large particles

7.

The Na⁺/K⁺ pump is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Electrogenic pump

b)

Carrier-independent

c)

Secondary active transport

d)

Responsible for transport of water

8.

The cell membrane has different types of transporters. Which of the following is an antiporter?

a)

Na⁺/glucose

b)

Na⁺/H⁺

c)

Na⁺/amino acid

d)

HCO₃⁻ transporter

9.

Regarding body fluid measurement using the dilution principle, which of the following substances is used to measure plasma volume?

a)

Evans blue

b)

Methylene blue

c)

Insulin

d)

Inulin

10.

Stimulation of the baroreceptors in the juxtaglomerular apparatus increases the release of which hormone from the kidneys?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Renin

c)

Atrial natriuretic peptide

d)

Cortisol

11.

Regarding nervous control of body water, which of the following stimulates the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney?

a)

Hypervolemia

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Hyperosmolarity

12.

Which of the following describes the role of angiotensin II in the regulation of body water?

a)

Inhibits thirst sensation

b)

Decreases aldosterone secretion

c)

Increases ADH secretion

d)

Stimulates atrial natriuretic peptide

13.

Using the dilution principle, extracellular fluid volume is calculated by injection of which of the following?

a)

Inulin

b)

Deuterium

c)

Heavy water

d)

Evans blue

14.

Which of the following is a transcellular fluid?

a)

Serum

b)

Plasma

c)

Synovial fluid

d)

Interstitial fluid

15.

Stimulation of osmoreceptors increases the release of which hormone?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

d)

Atrial natriuretic peptide

16.

Regarding body fluid measurement using the dilution principle, which substance is used to measure Total body water?

a)

Radioactive plasma proteins

b)

Evan’s blue

c)

Inulin

d)

Heavy water

17.

Regarding body fluid measurement using the dilution principle, which substance is used to measure plasma volume?

a)

Radioactive plasma proteins

b)

Methylene blue

c)

Insulin

d)

Inulin

18.

Concerning the parasympathetic system, stimulation of the sacral division leads to which of the following actions?

a)

Decrease in intestinal motility

b)

Defecation

c)

Urine retention

d)

Decreased pancreatic secretion

19.

Stimulation of the vagus nerve causes which of the following effects?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Mydriasis

c)

Constriction of the bronchioles

d)

Micturition

20.

Concerning the sympathetic nervous system, which of the following is correct?

a)

Stimulation of β₃ receptors increases heart rate

b)

Sympatholytic drugs are used in hemorrhage

c)

Adrenaline is used in the treatment of bronchial asthma

d)

Sympathomimetic drugs are used in angina pectoris

21.

Which of the following is triggered by stimulation of the oculomotor nerve?

a)

Decrease in heart rate

b)

Stimulation of gastric secretion

c)

Miosis

d)

Bronchoconstriction

22.

Which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic supply to the parotid gland?

a)

Cranial nerve III

b)

Cranial nerve V

c)

Cranial nerve VII

d)

Cranial nerve IX

23.

Parasympathetic stimulation increases which of the following?

a)

Gastric secretion

b)

Respiratory rate

c)

Sweat secretion

d)

Heart rate

24.

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to lacrimal and nasal glands relay in which ganglion?

a)

Otic ganglion

b)

Ciliary ganglion

c)

Submandibular ganglion

d)

Sphenopalatine ganglion

25.

Which of the following is triggered by parasympathetic stimulation?

a)

Decrease in heart rate

b)

Inhibition of gastric secretion

c)

Mydriasis

d)

Urine retention

26.

Vagus nerve stimulation causes which of the following?

a)

Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

b)

Contraction of the stomach wall

c)

Vasodilation of erectile tissue of the penis

d)

Accommodation for near vision

27.

Stimulation of lateral horn cells of S2, S3, and S4 segments of the spinal cord causes which of the following?

a)

Pupillary constriction

b)

Bronchodilation

c)

Exophthalmos

d)

Micturition

28.

Iron is essential for hemoglobin synthesis. Which of the following decreases iron absorption?

a)

Acidic pH of the stomach

b)

Succinate

c)

Ascorbate

d)

Excess oxalates in food

29.

Regarding hemolytic anemia, intracorpuscular causes include which of the following?

a)

Heat

b)

G6PD deficiency

c)

Incompatible blood transfusion

d)

Malaria

30.

Regarding the mechanism of blood coagulation, which pathway begins with tissue thromboplastin?

a)

Common pathway

b)

Extrinsic pathway

c)

Fibrin stabilization

d)

Intrinsic pathway

31.

Which of the following best describes congenital spherocytosis?

a)

The RBCs are macrocytes

b)

It is a type of hemolytic anemia

c)

It is a sex-linked Mendelian recessive disease

d)

The cell membrane is more permeable to K⁺ ions

32.

Which of the following occurs in stored blood?

a)

Decreased 2,3-DPG

b)

Decreased K⁺ ions in plasma

c)

Increased dextrose with conversion to lactic acid

d)

Increased plasma tissue factor concentration

33.

Regarding opsonization, which of the following best describes it?

a)

Migration of WBCs through intact capillaries

b)

Chemotactic movement of WBCs

c)

Making foreign materials more susceptible to phagocytosis

d)

Decrease in WBC count below 4000/mm³

34.

Concerning blood transfusion, which change occurs in stored blood?

a)

Increased dextrose

b)

Increased 2,3-DPG

c)

Increased K⁺ level in plasma

d)

Increased platelets

35.

Hemoglobin represents the main constituent of RBCs. Which of the following is normally carried by hemoglobin?

a)

CO₂ binds to ferrous iron of hemoglobin

b)

CO₂ binds to ferric iron of hemoglobin

c)

O₂ binds to ferrous iron of hemoglobin

d)

O₂ binds to ferric iron of hemoglobin

36.

Hemoglobin undergoes many reactions. Its oxidation forms which of the following?

a)

Carbaminohemoglobin

b)

Carboxyhemoglobin

c)

Methemoglobin

d)

Oxyhemoglobin

37.

Which of the following is the type of Rh antibody?

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgD

38.

A 27-year-old male requires blood transfusion and can receive blood from all blood groups. What is his blood group?

a)

AB positive

b)

AB negative

c)

O positive

d)

O negative

39.

Which of the following white blood cells is responsible for antibody-mediated immunity?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Monocyte

c)

B-lymphocyte

d)

T-lymphocyte

40.

Which blood cell is increased in allergic conditions?

a)

Macrophage

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Eosinophil

41.

Which of the following characterizes fetal hemoglobin (HbF)?

a)

Contains two alpha and two delta chains

b)

Has less affinity for oxygen

c)

Has less affinity for 2,3-diphosphoglycerate

d)

Caused by congenital abnormality of beta chain

42.

Which of the following cells secrete histamine as an allergic mediator?

a)

Basophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Lymphocytes

43.

A 25-year-old male has blood group AB. Which type of antibodies is present in his plasma?

a)

Anti-A

b)

Anti-B

c)

Both anti-A and anti-B

d)

Neither anti-A nor anti-B

44.

Which of the following is a feature of hemoglobin?

a)

Contains four ferric atoms

b)

Globin part binds carbon dioxide

c)

Binds oxygen by oxidation

d)

Represents 13% of RBC contents

45.

Which type of hemoglobin contains two alpha and two gamma chains?

a)

HbA

b)

HbA₂

c)

HbF

d)

HbS

46.

Blood groups have which of the following features?

a)

Blood group A has the highest distribution in the population

b)

Blood grouping is a positive test in disputed paternity

c)

Blood group O has surface antigens A and B

d)

Blood group AB is the universal recipient

47.

Which of the following is a precaution for blood transfusion?

a)

Hematocrit value of donor should be at least 30%

b)

Blood bag contains sodium citrate as anticoagulant

c)

Blood is stored at 20°C

d)

Cooling of blood just before transfusion

48.

Which of the following is a feature of neutrophils?

a)

Represent 20% of WBC count

b)

Perform phagocytic function

c)

Have a single rounded nucleus

d)

Are antigen-presenting cells

49.

Leukopenia occurs in which condition?

a)

Chronic infection

b)

Acute infection

c)

Typhoid fever

d)

Allergy

50.

If secondary active transport is disturbed, transport of which molecule would be impaired?

a)

Urea

b)

Alcohol

c)

O₂

d)

Amino acid

51.

Which type of transport through the cell membrane requires both energy and a carrier?

a)

Active transport

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Simple diffusion

52.

Absorption of amino acids through the intestinal brush border occurs by which of the following transport mechanisms?

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Secondary active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

53.

Which of the following is a function of the Na⁺/K⁺ pump?

a)

Adds more positivity to the resting membrane potential

b)

Controls cell volume

c)

Pumps Na⁺ into the cell

d)

Pumps K⁺ out of the cell

54.

What is the ratio of K⁺ influx to Na⁺ efflux by the Na⁺/K⁺ pump?

a)

1 : 2

b)

2 : 1

c)

2 : 3

d)

3 : 2

55.

Which of the following is a feature of active transport?

a)

Na⁺/H⁺ exchange is an example of symport secondary active transport

b)

Na⁺/glucose cotransport is an example of antiport primary active transport

c)

Phagocytosis means ingestion of minute particles in solution

d)

Endocytosis is a special type of active transport for large particles

56.

The Na⁺/K⁺ pump is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Electrogenic pump

b)

Carrier-independent

c)

Secondary active transport

d)

Responsible for transport of water

57.

The cell membrane has different types of transporters. Which of the following is an antiporter?

a)

Na⁺/glucose

b)

Na⁺/H⁺

c)

Na⁺/amino acid

d)

HCO₃⁻ transporter

58.

Regarding body fluid measurement using the dilution principle, which of the following substances is used to measure plasma volume?

a)

Evans blue

b)

Methylene blue

c)

Insulin

d)

Inulin

59.

Stimulation of the baroreceptors in the juxtaglomerular apparatus increases the release of which hormone from the kidneys?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Renin

c)

Atrial natriuretic peptide

d)

Cortisol

60.

Regarding nervous control of body water, which of the following stimulates the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney?

a)

Hypervolemia

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Hyperosmolarity

61.

Which of the following describes the role of angiotensin II in the regulation of body water?

a)

Inhibits thirst sensation

b)

Decreases aldosterone secretion

c)

Increases ADH secretion

d)

Stimulates atrial natriuretic peptide

62.

Using the dilution principle, extracellular fluid volume is calculated by injection of which of the following?

a)

Inulin

b)

Deuterium

c)

Heavy water

d)

Evans blue

63.

Which of the following is a transcellular fluid?

a)

Serum

b)

Plasma

c)

Synovial fluid

d)

Interstitial fluid

64.

Stimulation of osmoreceptors increases the release of which hormone?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

d)

Atrial natriuretic peptide

65.

Regarding body fluid measurement using the dilution principle, which substance is used to measure Total body water?

a)

Radioactive plasma proteins

b)

Evan’s blue

c)

Inulin

d)

Heavy water

66.

Concerning the parasympathetic system, stimulation of the sacral division leads to which of the following actions?

a)

Decrease in intestinal motility

b)

Defecation

c)

Urine retention

d)

Decreased pancreatic secretion

67.

Stimulation of the vagus nerve causes which of the following effects?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Mydriasis

c)

Constriction of the bronchioles

d)

Micturition

68.

Concerning the sympathetic nervous system, which of the following is correct?

a)

Stimulation of β₃ receptors increases heart rate

b)

Sympatholytic drugs are used in hemorrhage

c)

Adrenaline is used in the treatment of bronchial asthma

d)

Sympathomimetic drugs are used in angina pectoris

69.

Which of the following is triggered by stimulation of the oculomotor nerve?

a)

Decrease in heart rate

b)

Stimulation of gastric secretion

c)

Miosis

d)

Bronchoconstriction

70.

Which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic supply to the parotid gland?

a)

Cranial nerve III

b)

Cranial nerve V

c)

Cranial nerve VII

d)

Cranial nerve IX

71.

Parasympathetic stimulation increases which of the following?

a)

Gastric secretion

b)

Respiratory rate

c)

Sweat secretion

d)

Heart rate

72.

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to lacrimal and nasal glands relay in which ganglion?

a)

Otic ganglion

b)

Ciliary ganglion

c)

Submandibular ganglion

d)

Sphenopalatine ganglion

73.

Which of the following is triggered by parasympathetic stimulation?

a)

Decrease in heart rate

b)

Inhibition of gastric secretion

c)

Mydriasis

d)

Urine retention

74.

Vagus nerve stimulation causes which of the following?

a)

Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

b)

Contraction of the stomach wall

c)

Vasodilation of erectile tissue of the penis

d)

Accommodation for near vision

75.

Stimulation of lateral horn cells of S2, S3, and S4 segments of the spinal cord causes which of the following?

a)

Pupillary constriction

b)

Bronchodilation

c)

Exophthalmos

d)

Micturition

76.

Iron is essential for hemoglobin synthesis. Which of the following decreases iron absorption?

a)

Acidic pH of the stomach

b)

Succinate

c)

Ascorbate

d)

Excess oxalates in food

77.

Regarding hemolytic anemia, intracorpuscular causes include which of the following?

a)

Heat

b)

G6PD deficiency

c)

Incompatible blood transfusion

d)

Malaria

78.

Regarding the mechanism of blood coagulation, which pathway begins with tissue thromboplastin?

a)

Common pathway

b)

Extrinsic pathway

c)

Fibrin stabilization

d)

Intrinsic pathway

79.

Which of the following best describes congenital spherocytosis?

a)

The RBCs are macrocytes

b)

It is a type of hemolytic anemia

c)

It is a sex-linked Mendelian recessive disease

d)

The cell membrane is more permeable to K⁺ ions

80.

Which of the following occurs in stored blood?

a)

Decreased 2,3-DPG

b)

Decreased K⁺ ions in plasma

c)

Increased dextrose with conversion to lactic acid

d)

Increased plasma tissue factor concentration

81.

Regarding opsonization, which of the following best describes it?

a)

Migration of WBCs through intact capillaries

b)

Chemotactic movement of WBCs

c)

Making foreign materials more susceptible to phagocytosis

d)

Decrease in WBC count below 4000/mm³

82.

Concerning blood transfusion, which change occurs in stored blood?

a)

Increased dextrose

b)

Increased 2,3-DPG

c)

Increased K⁺ level in plasma

d)

Increased platelets

83.

Hemoglobin represents the main constituent of RBCs. Which of the following is normally carried by hemoglobin?

a)

CO₂ binds to ferrous iron of hemoglobin

b)

CO₂ binds to ferric iron of hemoglobin

c)

O₂ binds to ferrous iron of hemoglobin

d)

O₂ binds to ferric iron of hemoglobin

84.

Hemoglobin undergoes many reactions. Its oxidation forms which of the following?

a)

Carbaminohemoglobin

b)

Carboxyhemoglobin

c)

Methemoglobin

d)

Oxyhemoglobin

85.

Which of the following is the type of Rh antibody?

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgD

86.

A 27-year-old male requires blood transfusion and can receive blood from all blood groups. What is his blood group?

a)

AB positive

b)

AB negative

c)

O positive

d)

O negative

87.

Which of the following white blood cells is responsible for antibody-mediated immunity?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Monocyte

c)

B-lymphocyte

d)

T-lymphocyte

88.

Which blood cell is increased in allergic conditions?

a)

Macrophage

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Eosinophil

89.

Which of the following characterizes fetal hemoglobin (HbF)?

a)

Contains two alpha and two delta chains

b)

Has less affinity for oxygen

c)

Has less affinity for 2,3-diphosphoglycerate

d)

Caused by congenital abnormality of beta chain

90.

Which of the following cells secrete histamine as an allergic mediator?

a)

Basophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Lymphocytes

91.

A 25-year-old male has blood group AB. Which type of antibodies is present in his plasma?

a)

Anti-A

b)

Anti-B

c)

Both anti-A and anti-B

d)

Neither anti-A nor anti-B

92.

Which of the following is a feature of hemoglobin?

a)

Contains four ferric atoms

b)

Globin part binds carbon dioxide

c)

Binds oxygen by oxidation

d)

Represents 13% of RBC contents

93.

Which type of hemoglobin contains two alpha and two gamma chains?

a)

HbA

b)

HbA₂

c)

HbF

d)

HbS

94.

Blood groups have which of the following features?

a)

Blood group A has the highest distribution in the population

b)

Blood grouping is a positive test in disputed paternity

c)

Blood group O has surface antigens A and B

d)

Blood group AB is the universal recipient

95.

Which of the following is a precaution for blood transfusion?

a)

Hematocrit value of donor should be at least 30%

b)

Blood bag contains sodium citrate as anticoagulant

c)

Blood is stored at 20°C

d)

Cooling of blood just before transfusion

96.

Which of the following is a feature of neutrophils?

a)

Represent 20% of WBC count

b)

Perform phagocytic function

c)

Have a single rounded nucleus

d)

Are antigen-presenting cells

97.

Leukopenia occurs in which condition?

a)

Chronic infection

b)

Acute infection

c)

Typhoid fever

d)

Allergy

Similar Resources on Wayground

Muroja'ah Tuhfatul Athfal

100 questions

Muroja'ah Tuhfatul Athfal

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

MRP I жүйесі бойынша сұрақтар

97 questions

MRP I жүйесі бойынша сұрақтар

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Psychological Assessment Exam

101 questions

Psychological Assessment Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

A & P Lab Practical #1

96 questions

A & P Lab Practical #1

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Scientific Method and Astronomy Quiz

100 questions

Scientific Method and Astronomy Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

BV Intra Op

100 questions

BV Intra Op

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Elements of Machine Design Quiz

92 questions

Elements of Machine Design Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

marketing research

98 questions

marketing research

quiz

Worksheet

•

University