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2205 Exam 2 OT pt.1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client is receiving dinoprostone for cervical ripening. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to stop the medication and notify the provider first?

a)

More than 5 contractions in 10 minutes averaged over 30 minutes

b)

Maternal pulse 92/min

c)

Cervix dilates from 1 cm to 2 cm

d)

Temperature 98.6°F (37°C)

2.

The nurse is teaching a client about dinoprostone. Which statement shows correct understanding?

a)

“I should expect my contractions to become constant without breaks.”

b)

“If my baby’s heart rate becomes nonreassuring, the medication can be removed/stopped.”

c)

“This medication is the same as oxytocin and is titrated every 10 minutes.”

d)

“I can get out of bed immediately after insertion with no monitoring.”

3.

A provider prescribes dinoprostone for induction. Which condition is a contraindication/major safety concern the nurse should clarify before administration?

a)

Post-term pregnancy

b)

Bishop score of 3

c)

Prior classical uterine incision or major uterine surgery

d)

Irregular contractions

4.

A client has dinoprostone in place and develops a prolonged deceleration. Which nursing action is priority?

a)

Increase IV oxytocin rate

b)

Perform amniotomy to speed labor

c)

Encourage the client to bear down

d)

Reposition laterally and initiate intrauterine resuscitation measures per protocol

5.

A client asks why fetal monitoring is needed during dinoprostone use. Best response?

a)

“It prevents postpartum hemorrhage.”

b)

“It can cause uterine tachysystole, which can decrease oxygen to the fetus.”

c)

“It eliminates the need for a cesarean.”

d)

“It guarantees the baby will tolerate labor.”

6.

Which order should the nurse question for a client who is receiving dinoprostone and is now having tachysystole with recurrent late decelerations?

a)

Start oxytocin immediately to shorten labor

b)

Insert an IUPC to measure contractions

c)

Continue dinoprostone without changes for 1 hour

d)

Administer IV fluid bolus per protocol

7.

A client receiving dinoprostone suddenly reports severe abdominal pain with a rigid abdomen and abnormal FHR. What is the priority concern?

a)

Normal uterine irritability

b)

Physiologic “transition”

c)

Imminent vaginal delivery

d)

Possible uterine rupture—treat as obstetric emergency

8.

After dinoprostone placement, which nursing plan is most appropriate?

a)

Encourage immediate ambulation without monitoring

b)

Monitor fetal status and uterine activity; avoid adding uterine stimulants unless ordered and safe

c)

Perform frequent digital cervical exams every 30 minutes

d)

Place the client supine to keep the insert in place

9.

A newborn delivered by cesarean has tachypnea soon after birth with mild retractions and clear breath sounds. Which complication is most consistent?

a)

Meconium aspiration syndrome

b)

Respiratory distress syndrome from surfactant deficiency (most likely term)

c)

Transient tachypnea of the newborn (delayed lung fluid clearance)

d)

Congenital heart disease until proven otherwise

10.

During a cesarean birth, which fetal complication is most directly linked to uterine incision extraction?

a)

Hyperbilirubinemia at 1 week

b)

Necrotizing enterocolitis

c)

Late-onset sepsis

d)

Fetal laceration/skin injury

11.

A term infant delivered via cesarean has nasal flaring and grunting. Which immediate nursing priority is most appropriate?

a)

Support airway/oxygenation and notify neonatal team

b)

Initiate oral feeding to prevent hypoglycemia

c)

Delay interventions to promote bonding

d)

Bathe the newborn to stimulate breathing

12.

Which newborn finding after cesarean birth requires the most urgent follow-up?

a)

Mild acrocyanosis

b)

Persistent respiratory distress with falling oxygen saturation

c)

Startle reflex present

d)

Vernix on skin folds

13.

A fetus is delivered by cesarean after prolonged labor and intrauterine infection. Which newborn complication is the nurse most concerned about?

a)

Physiologic jaundice only

b)

Hypothermia only

c)

Cephalohematoma from vacuum use

d)

Neonatal sepsis/respiratory compromise

14.

A client asks why babies born by cesarean may have more breathing problems right after birth. Best response?

a)

“They don’t get the same chest compression that helps clear lung fluid during vaginal birth.”

b)

“Cesarean birth always causes lung damage.”

c)

“It happens because they breathe in meconium during surgery.”

d)

“It’s mainly from vitamin K deficiency.”

15.

Which assessment best helps the nurse detect early newborn respiratory compromise after cesarean birth?

a)

Bowel sounds

b)

Respiratory rate/effort and oxygen saturation trends

c)

Moro reflex

d)

Fontanel palpation

16.

A newborn after cesarean has weak cry, poor tone, and HR 90/min. What is the priority action?

a)

Skin-to-skin only

b)

Feed immediately

c)

Begin neonatal resuscitation steps per NRP

d)

Delay stimulation to reduce stress

17.

The nurse notes a fetal heart rate of 90/min for 3 minutes. Which is the most likely immediate cause to assess first?

a)

Maternal hypotension (often after epidural or supine positioning)

b)

Maternal mild anxiety

c)

Fetal sleep cycle

d)

Braxton Hicks contractions

18.

Which situation is most likely to cause fetal bradycardia?

a)

Maternal fever

b)

Umbilical cord compression/prolapse

c)

Mild maternal dehydration only

d)

Fetal hiccups

19.

A client develops fetal bradycardia immediately after epidural placement. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Stop fetal monitoring

b)

Position the client lateral and increase IV fluids per protocol

c)

Encourage pushing

d)

Obtain a urine specimen

20.

A client on oxytocin has fetal bradycardia and tachysystole. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Increase oxytocin to speed delivery

b)

Perform amniotomy

c)

Reposition and discontinue oxytocin while initiating intrauterine resuscitation

d)

Document and reassess in 30 minutes

21.

A nurse suspects umbilical cord prolapse after rupture of membranes. What is the first action?

a)

Apply a fetal scalp electrode

b)

Perform a vaginal exam to check for a cord

c)

Start oxytocin to shorten labor

d)

Prepare for discharge teaching

22.

Overt umbilical cord prolapse is confirmed. Which action must the nurse maintain until delivery?

a)

Replace the cord into the uterus

b)

Keep the client supine and calm

c)

Manually elevate the presenting part off the cord without removing the hand

d)

Clamp the cord to prevent bleeding

23.

Which position is most appropriate to reduce cord compression during prolapse management?

a)

Flat supine

b)

High Fowler’s

c)

Knee-chest or Trendelenburg (per protocol)

d)

Lithotomy

24.

When managing cord prolapse, which action is contraindicated?

a)

Calling for emergency assistance

b)

Applying oxygen if ordered after other measures

c)

Preparing for rapid operative delivery

d)

Manipulating/pinching the cord

25.

The nurse documents the fetus as breech. Which presenting part is the denominator for position documentation?

a)

Occiput

b)

Sacrum

c)

Mentum

d)

Scapula

26.

The fetus is in a face presentation. Which denominator is used?

a)

Occiput

b)

Sacrum

c)

Mentum

d)

Fontanel

27.

Which fetal presentation most increases the risk of cord prolapse after rupture of membranes?

a)

Vertex OA

b)

Frank breech

c)

Complete breech

d)

Footling breech

28.

The nurse palpates a firm, round structure in the fundus and small irregular parts near the pelvis during Leopold maneuvers. Best interpretation?

a)

Cephalic presentation

b)

Transverse lie

c)

Breech presentation

d)

Compound presentation

29.

A cesarean candidate’s fetus is transverse lie at term. What is the primary concern?

a)

Likely uncomplicated vaginal delivery

b)

Increased chance of spontaneous rotation to vertex during crowning

c)

Vaginal birth is unsafe unless corrected; cesarean is likely

d)

Guaranteed shoulder dystocia

30.

A nurse suspects a compound presentation during vaginal exam. Which finding supports this?

a)

Palpation of fetal buttocks only

b)

Palpation of fetal head only

c)

Palpation of fetal chin/face structures

d)

Palpation of a fetal hand alongside the head

31.

The provider asks for the client’s GBS status at 37 weeks. Which screening is most relevant?

a)

Group B streptococcus culture obtained at 36–37 weeks

b)

Quad screen

c)

Rubella titer

d)

1-hour glucose tolerance test

32.

A client is GBS positive with no penicillin allergy. Which intrapartum plan is expected?

a)

No antibiotics if membranes are intact

b)

IV penicillin/ampicillin during labor per protocol

c)

Oral antibiotics after delivery only

d)

Ceftriaxone for all clients

33.

A client is GBS positive with a history of anaphylaxis to penicillin. Best nursing action?

a)

Hold antibiotics until postpartum

b)

Administer penicillin slowly

c)

Notify provider for alternative antibiotic selection per protocol

d)

Use nitrazine testing to decide

34.

A forceps-assisted delivery occurs. Which newborn finding requires the most urgent evaluation?

a)

Mild molding

b)

Transient acrocyanosis

c)

Mild caput

d)

Facial asymmetry/weak suck suggesting facial nerve injury

35.

Which newborn complication is associated with forceps delivery?

a)

Intracranial hemorrhage risk (especially with trauma)

b)

Patent ductus arteriosus from antibiotics

c)

Omphalocele

d)

Necrotizing enterocolitis as the most common outcome

36.

The nurse monitors a newborn after forceps delivery. Which assessment is most important early on?

a)

Tooth eruption pattern

b)

Apgar only at 10 minutes

c)

Neuro status and signs of head/eye trauma

d)

Heel stick glucose only

37.

A client develops hypotension after an epidural. Which complication does this most threaten?

a)

Maternal hyperglycemia

b)

Decreased uteroplacental perfusion leading to fetal distress

c)

Precipitous labor

d)

Increased fetal oxygenation

38.

Which nursing intervention best treats epidural-related hypotension?

a)

Place the client flat supine

b)

Reduce IV fluids to prevent overload

c)

Turn lateral and give IV fluid bolus per protocol

d)

Encourage Valsalva pushing

39.

A client receives IV opioid analgesia in labor and becomes somnolent with RR 8/min. What is the priority medication?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Naloxone

c)

Dinoprostone

d)

Oxytocin

40.

Which finding is a serious complication of a high spinal/epidural block?

a)

Mild itching

b)

Shivering

c)

Nausea

d)

Difficulty breathing with hypotension

41.

The nurse is evaluating a fetal monitor strip. Which is Category III?

a)

Absent variability with recurrent late decelerations

b)

Moderate variability with accelerations

c)

Marked variability with occasional early decelerations

d)

Baseline 120 with moderate variability, no decelerations

42.

Which variability is most reassuring for fetal acid–base status at the time of observation?

a)

Absent

b)

Minimal

c)

Moderate

d)

Marked

43.

The nurse notes loss of variability. Which is a common reason?

a)

Maternal position changes

b)

Fetal sleep cycle or maternal medication (sedation/opioids)

c)

Uterine rupture is always the cause

d)

Normal sign of placental abruption

44.

Which pattern is most consistent with uteroplacental insufficiency?

a)

Early decelerations

b)

Variable decelerations

c)

Accelerations

d)

Late decelerations

45.

A client has uterine tachysystole. Which definition is correct?

a)

>5 contractions in 10 minutes averaged over 30 minutes

b)

4 contractions in 20 minutes

c)

Contractions every 6–7 minutes

d)

Resting tone 0 mmHg

46.

A client on oxytocin develops tachysystole with recurrent late decelerations. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Increase oxytocin

b)

Discontinue oxytocin and reposition laterally

c)

Begin pushing

d)

Perform amniotomy immediately

47.

Which finding best indicates the client is in active labor?

a)

Irregular contractions that stop with walking

b)

Cervix 1 cm with no change for 4 hours

c)

Cervix 5 cm with progressive change and stronger regular contractions

d)

Cervix posterior and closed

48.

Which finding best indicates true labor?

a)

Contractions decrease with hydration

b)

Cervical change with regular contractions

c)

Contractions only felt in the abdomen

d)

Pain relieved completely by rest

49.

A nurse documents a vaginal exam as “7/90/+1.” What does this mean?

a)

Dilation 7 cm, effacement 90%, station +1

b)

Effacement 7%, dilation 90 cm, station +1

c)

Station 7, dilation 90 cm, effacement +1

d)

Dilation +1 cm, station 7, effacement 90%

50.

Station "0" means the presenting part is:

a)

Crowning

b)

2 cm below ischial spines

c)

At the level of the ischial spines

d)

3 cm above the ischial spines

51.

Which contraction characteristic best supports adequate uterine relaxation between contractions?

a)

Resting tone that returns to soft baseline between contractions

b)

No gap between contractions

c)

Continuous uterine firmness

d)

Increasing resting tone over time

52.

Which method provides the most accurate numeric measurement of contraction intensity?

a)

External tocodynamometer

b)

Maternal palpation only

c)

Intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC)

d)

Doppler ultrasound handheld only

53.

Before placing an internal monitor (FSE/IUPC), which condition must be present?

a)

Intact membranes

b)

Closed cervix

c)

No fetal movement

d)

Ruptured membranes with sufficient dilation

54.

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for recurrent variable decelerations that persist despite repositioning?

a)

Consider amnioinfusion if ordered

b)

Increase oxytocin rate

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

Apply fundal pressure

55.

A nurse prepares for amniotomy. Which finding is most important to reduce cord prolapse risk?

a)

Presenting part engaged (0 or + station)

b)

Cervix closed

c)

Fetus in transverse lie

d)

Membranes already ruptured for 24 hours

56.

Immediately after amniotomy, which nursing action is priority?

a)

Encourage the client to ambulate right away

b)

Assess fetal heart rate and amniotic fluid characteristics

c)

Start oxytocin at maximum dose

d)

Perform a digital exam every 10 minutes

57.

A client wants a VBAC. Which history finding is most supportive of eligibility?

a)

Prior classical (vertical) uterine incision

b)

Prior uterine rupture

c)

Prior low-transverse cesarean incision with no contraindications

d)

Unknown uterine scar type with no records

58.

A VBAC client develops sudden severe abdominal pain, fetal bradycardia, and loss of station. What is the priority action?

a)

Prepare for emergent cesarean delivery

b)

Start oxytocin to correct labor pattern

c)

Continue to monitor for 30 minutes

d)

Encourage pushing

59.

A client is receiving oxytocin. Which teaching point is highest priority?

a)

“Oxytocin is given until contractions are constant.”

b)

“I won’t need fetal monitoring once oxytocin starts.”

c)

“If contractions become too frequent, the infusion may be reduced or stopped.”

d)

“Oxytocin prevents infection after rupture of membranes.”

60.

Which assessment suggests oxytocin is causing fetal compromise?

a)

4 contractions in 10 minutes

b)

Moderate variability with accelerations

c)

Early decelerations with contractions

d)

Tachysystole with recurrent late decelerations

61.

A fetus has recurrent late decelerations. What is the first nursing intervention?

a)

Maternal repositioning (side-lying)

b)

Immediate amniotomy

c)

Immediate operative delivery without interventions

d)

Encourage Valsalva pushing

62.

A fetus has recurrent late decelerations and oxytocin is infusing. Which action should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Increase oxytocin

b)

Discontinue oxytocin and give IV bolus per protocol

c)

Place client supine to improve perfusion

d)

Start dinoprostone

63.

Which fetal heart rate change meets criteria for a prolonged deceleration?

a)

Drop lasting 10 seconds

b)

Drop lasting 30 seconds

c)

Drop lasting 8 minutes

d)

Drop lasting 12 minutes

64.

A baseline fetal heart rate of 170 bpm for more than 10 minutes is:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Normal baseline

c)

Sinusoidal

d)

Tachycardia

65.

Which maternal finding is a common contributor to fetal tachycardia?

a)

Maternal fever/infection

b)

Maternal mild nausea

c)

Maternal heartburn

d)

Maternal cool extremities

66.

Which cause of fetal bradycardia should the nurse assess immediately after rupture of membranes?

a)

Fetal sleep

b)

Maternal anxiety

c)

Cord prolapse/compression

d)

Mild maternal dehydration

67.

Which complication of labor is most associated with sudden constant abdominal pain and abnormal fetal heart pattern in a VBAC client?

a)

Uterine rupture

b)

Normal transition

c)

Braxton Hicks contractions

d)

Engagement

68.

A client has a firm fundus but persistent heavy vaginal bleeding postpartum. What is the priority concern?

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Normal lochia

c)

Bladder distention only

d)

Genital tract laceration

69.

Which finding most strongly suggests the onset of labor is approaching?

a)

Bloody show

b)

Increased fetal movement only

c)

Decreased appetite only

d)

Sudden vision changes

70.

A client reports regular contractions but no cervical change. The nurse should suspect:

a)

True labor

b)

Active phase arrest immediately

c)

False labor

d)

Second stage labor

71.

A client requests epidural anesthesia. Which complication is the nurse most prepared to prevent?

a)

Maternal hypotension

b)

Maternal hyperthermia

c)

Maternal hypertension crisis

d)

Shoulder dystocia

72.

After an epidural, the client cannot void. Best nursing action?

a)

Encourage unassisted ambulation to bathroom

b)

Restrict all fluids

c)

Document “normal” and do nothing

d)

Assess bladder and anticipate catheterization per policy

73.

A nurse identifies a Category III tracing. What is the priority nursing response?

a)

Initiate intrauterine resuscitation and prepare to escalate/expedite delivery if unresolved

b)

Turn off the monitor to reduce anxiety

c)

Encourage the client to push regardless of dilation

d)

Delay action until the next scheduled assessment

74.

Which finding is most reassuring during intrapartum monitoring?

a)

Absent variability

b)

Sinusoidal pattern

c)

Moderate variability

d)

Recurrent late decelerations

75.

A client is in active labor and is hyperventilating with anxiety. Best nursing action?

a)

Coach slow breathing and grounding techniques

b)

Place client supine

c)

Increase oxytocin rate

d)

Delay assessment to promote privacy

76.

A laboring client has contractions every 1–2 minutes with minimal relaxation between. Which is the priority nursing action?

a)

Encourage pushing to speed delivery

b)

Continue oxytocin unchanged

c)

Notify provider after 1 hour

d)

Stop uterine stimulant and reposition/IV bolus per protocol

77.

A client at 7 cm asks what to expect next. Which response best reflects typical progress?

a)

Contractions usually become stronger and more frequent as transition approaches.

b)

The placenta will deliver next.

c)

Your cervix will close and reopen.

d)

Pushing usually starts now.

78.

Which finding most supports that the client is entering transition?

a)

Cervix 2–3 cm, mild contractions

b)

Cervix 4–6 cm, moderate contractions

c)

Cervix 8–10 cm with intense pressure/urge to push

d)

Placenta delivered

79.

A client has recurrent variable decelerations. What is the first nursing intervention?

a)

Reposition the client

b)

Start dinoprostone

c)

Encourage breath-holding pushes

d)

Prepare immediate cesarean without interventions

80.

Which is an appropriate nursing action when a prolapsed cord is identified?

a)

Attempt to push the cord back into the uterus

b)

Maintain manual elevation of presenting part and prepare for rapid delivery

c)

Clamp the cord immediately

d)

Apply fundal pressure to expedite delivery

81.

Which fetal presentation is most compatible with an uncomplicated vaginal delivery?

a)

Vertex/cephalic

b)

Shoulder presentation

c)

Face mentum posterior

d)

Persistent transverse lie

82.

Which fetal assessment finding is most consistent with a breech presentation on Leopold maneuvers?

a)

Hard round head felt in fundus

b)

Soft irregular parts in fundus

c)

Hard round head felt in the lower uterus/pelvis

d)

No fetal parts palpable

83.

A client has a nonreassuring tracing and is receiving oxytocin. Which action should the nurse anticipate first?

a)

Discontinue oxytocin and initiate resuscitation measures

b)

Increase oxytocin to shorten labor

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

Encourage pushing

84.

A nurse is caring for a client with tachysystole. Which fetal change is most concerning?

a)

Moderate variability with accelerations

b)

Occasional early decelerations

c)

Recurrent late decelerations

d)

Baseline 130 bpm

85.

Which is a common cause of decreased fetal heart rate variability?

a)

Fetal sleep cycle

b)

Maternal mild heartburn

c)

Normal fetal hiccups

d)

Maternal seasonal allergies

86.

A client’s fetus has minimal variability and recurrent late decelerations. What is the priority next step?

a)

Continue routine monitoring only

b)

Initiate intrauterine resuscitation and notify provider promptly

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Start oxytocin to shorten labor

87.

Which labor complication is most associated with cord compression?

a)

Late decelerations

b)

Early decelerations

c)

Variable decelerations

d)

Sinusoidal pattern

88.

Which tracing feature most strongly suggests the fetus is NOT currently acidemic?

a)

Moderate variability

b)

Absent variability

c)

Sinusoidal pattern

d)

Persistent bradycardia

89.

Which finding is most consistent with an adverse reaction/complication to opioid pain management in labor?

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Increased urine output

c)

Hyperreflexia

d)

Severe hypertension

90.

A client receives naloxone for opioid-induced respiratory depression. What is the nurse’s priority reassessment?

a)

Fundal height

b)

Pain score only

c)

Airway/respiratory status and fetal response

d)

GBS status

91.

During preparation for labor and birth, which teaching is most important for when to come to the hospital?

a)

Regular painful contractions with a pattern and/or rupture of membranes as instructed by provider

b)

Any mild backache at night

c)

One contraction per hour

d)

Increased appetite

92.

A client reports a gush of fluid. Which assessment best supports rupture of membranes while minimizing infection risk?

a)

Immediate digital exam

b)

Sterile speculum exam for pooling with testing as ordered

c)

Frequent repeat vaginal exams

d)

Rectal exam first

93.

The nurse suspects fetal bradycardia is due to maternal supine positioning. Which intervention best addresses the cause?

a)

Left lateral positioning

b)

Increase dinoprostone dose

c)

Encourage the client to push

d)

Apply fundal pressure

94.

A client is in active labor and asks what “station” means. Which explanation is correct?

a)

“How thin your cervix is.”

b)

“How strong the contractions are.”

c)

“How far the baby’s head has rotated.”

d)

“How low the presenting part is relative to the ischial spines.”

95.

Which finding suggests the client is most likely in false labor?

a)

Contractions that become regular and closer together with cervical change

b)

Contractions that lessen with hydration and position change

c)

Progressive effacement and dilation over time

d)

Spontaneous rupture of membranes with continued cervical change

96.

Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with suspected cord prolapse while awaiting emergency delivery?

a)

Apply continuous pressure to the fetal head to speed descent

b)

Keep the client walking to reduce anxiety

c)

Maintain manual elevation of presenting part and position to reduce compression

d)

Perform repeated cervical checks every 5 minutes

97.

A newborn after forceps delivery develops jaundice risk. The most likely reason is:

a)

Increased bruising/hematoma leading to higher bilirubin load

b)

Low vitamin K

c)

Congenital liver disease from forceps

d)

Exposure to dinoprostone

98.

A client has a Category III tracing and is fully dilated with fetal head crowning. Best plan?

a)

Expectant management for 1 hour

b)

Expedite delivery with neonatal team readiness

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

Stop monitoring to reduce stress

99.

Which nursing documentation best reflects contraction assessment in suspected tachysystole?

a)

Frequency counted over 10 minutes and averaged over 30 minutes

b)

Only client’s pain score

c)

Only fetal heart rate baseline

d)

Only dilation every hour

100.

Which client is most appropriate for intermittent auscultation rather than continuous EFM?

a)

VBAC trial of labor

b)

Oxytocin infusion induction

c)

Low-risk labor with reassuring status and no complications

d)

Recurrent decelerations present