wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Production Roles and Industry Terminology

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which role schedules the talent and crew and generally assists the producer?

a)

Production Assistant (PA)

b)

Associate Producer

c)

Unit Production Manager

d)

Line Producer

2.

Which crew member writes the script?

a)

Editor

b)

Script Supervisor

c)

Writer

d)

Storyboard Artist

3.

Who appears on camera in nondramatic roles such as interviews?

a)

Hosts

b)

Talent

c)

Actors

d)

Performers

4.

Which role designs the lighting plan and supervises its setup?

a)

Lighting Director (LD)

b)

Key Grip

c)

Best Boy

d)

Gaffer

5.

Who operates the video switcher under the director’s command during a multi‑camera shoot?

a)

Technical Director (TD)

b)

Vision Mixer

c)

Audio Technician

d)

Camera Operator

6.

Which role sets the camera lenses and maintains the technical quality while working with director and grips?

a)

Director of Photography

b)

1st Assistant Camera

c)

Cameraperson

d)

Camera Operator

7.

Setting up the positioning of sets, furniture, cameras, and actors is called what?

a)

Blocking

b)

Staging

c)

Previsualization

d)

Storyboarding

8.

Who is responsible for coordinating activities on the set?

a)

Location Manager

b)

Floor Person or Stage Manager

c)

Production Assistant

d)

Unit Publicist

9.

Which document summarizes the story of a dramatic production and outlines main characters, locations, and angles?

a)

Scene Breakdown

b)

Treatment

c)

Premise

d)

Production Schedule

10.

A written summary of the dramatic production that contains a description of a proposed film or TV program is called what?

a)

Program Proposal

b)

Pitch Deck

c)

Call Sheet

d)

Logline Sheet

11.

Which storyboard element includes drawings of key scenes with corresponding notes on shots and dialogue?

a)

Production Schedule

b)

Storyboard

c)

Shot List

d)

Beat Sheet

12.

What term refers to the audience your production is designed to reach or impact?

a)

Target Audience

b)

User Persona

c)

Focus Group

d)

Demographic Profile

13.

Which phase involves developing ideas and planning before production is set in motion?

a)

Distribution

b)

Postproduction

c)

Production

d)

Preproduction

14.

Which term describes arranging for audio recording equipment, setups, and checks, then striking gear after the production?

a)

Audio Director or Audio Technician

b)

Sound Designer

c)

Boom Operator

d)

Mixer

15.

Which position wears headphones and operates the boom microphone for each scene?

a)

Utility Sound Tech

b)

Wireless Tech

c)

Location Sound Mixer

d)

Boom Microphone Operator

16.

Which device inserts titles over the video during postproduction?

a)

Nonlinear Editor

b)

Compositor

c)

Electronic Character Generator

d)

Digital Video Encoder

17.

Which term refers to shots intercut with primary footage to provide context, support, or visual variety?

a)

B‑roll

b)

Cutaway

c)

A‑roll

d)

Insert

18.

Above‑the‑line personnel primarily manage which aspect of a production?

a)

Postproduction editing tasks

b)

Creative development and key talent

c)

Technical setup and equipment

d)

Location logistics and permits

19.

Below‑the‑line personnel generally handle which responsibilities?

a)

Financial planning and contracts

b)

Technical and crew operations

c)

Story rights and casting offers

d)

Marketing and festival strategy

20.

Which term identifies the specific place where shooting occurs, as selected by the director?

a)

Set Dress

b)

Stage Plot

c)

Blocking Map

d)

Location

21.

Which instruction calls for all to gather and read through the script together before shooting?

a)

Camera Test

b)

Table Reading or Dry Rehearsal

c)

Dress Rehearsal

d)

Tech Run

22.

A brief identifying shot shown for a few seconds during the transition from one to the next scene is called what?

a)

Lap‑dissolves

b)

Time‑code

c)

Fade‑ins and fade‑outs

d)

Cutaway card

23.

Which term refers to video footage that supports the primary footage, often interviews?

a)

A‑roll

b)

B‑roll

c)

Reshoots

d)

Pickups

24.

Which production phase includes editing, color correction, sound mixing, and final delivery?

a)

Distribution

b)

Postproduction

c)

Production

d)

Preproduction

25.

Which role is tasked with disassembling sets, if necessary, after production wraps?

a)

Art Department

b)

Location Manager

c)

Grip Department

d)

Strikes Crew

26.

Which term refers to a simple on‑location segment with minimal crew to quickly check talent, audio, and lighting?

a)

Rehearsals

b)

Camera Tests

c)

Talent Screen Test

d)

Site Survey

27.

Which person may be hired to help purchase and coordinate props, keeping notes on ongoing production needs?

a)

Props Master

b)

Art Director

c)

Unit Production Manager

d)

Production Assistant (PA)

28.

Which role designs the set and supervises its construction, painting, and installation?

a)

Production Designer

b)

Set Designer

c)

Art Director

d)

Scenic Charge

29.

Which movement shifts the entire camera laterally left or right on a wheeled platform?

a)

Pan rotate camera on tripod

b)

Dolly move along forward-back rails

c)

Truck move sliding left or right

d)

Zoom change focal length only

30.

Which action changes magnification without moving the camera body?

a)

Truck sideways on a track

b)

Zoom by altering focal length

c)

Dolly toward the subject

d)

Crane lift the camera upward

31.

Choose the shot framing that tightly focuses on a subject’s face and emotion.

a)

Long shot showing full body space

b)

Extreme long shot of environment

c)

Medium shot from waist up

d)

Close-up highlighting facial detail

32.

Which framing typically includes the subject from roughly the waist to the head?

a)

Extreme close-up of lips

b)

Long shot full figure

c)

Close-up emphasizing eyes

d)

Medium shot standard composition

33.

Select the aspect ratio used by most modern HDTV displays.

a)

16:9 widescreen HDTV format

b)

21:9 cinema ultrawide

c)

4:3 standard definition era

d)

1:1 square social media

34.

Which aspect ratio is associated with legacy SDTV formats?

a)

1.85:1 academy widescreen

b)

16:9 contemporary widescreen

c)

2.39:1 scope cinema

d)

4:3 traditional television

35.

A longer focal length generally produces which depth-of-field result?

a)

Greater depth with more sharpness

b)

Shallower depth isolating subject

c)

No change regardless of aperture

d)

Infinite depth across all planes

36.

Which setting primarily controls the amount of light reaching the sensor through the lens?

a)

Shutter speed exposure time

b)

White balance color temperature

c)

ISO sensitivity of the camera

d)

Aperture f-stop opening size

37.

Which lens behavior causes objects to appear larger without physically moving the camera?

a)

Tilt pitching up or down

b)

Zoom varying focal length

c)

Dolly moving closer

d)

Truck shifting sideways

38.

Which filter reduces overall light evenly without changing color?

a)

Polarizer boosting saturation hues

b)

Neutral density attenuating light

c)

Graduated ND warming highlights

d)

UV filter sharpening focus detail

39.

Which filter is commonly used to cut glare and reflections from non-metal surfaces?

a)

Diffusion filter softening edges

b)

UV protective filter daylight

c)

Polarizing filter orientation control

d)

Neutral density filter gray glass

40.

In practical shooting, which combination increases depth of field?

a)

Stopping down to a higher f-number

b)

Using a shorter focal length lens

c)

Moving closer to the subject

d)

Using a larger sensor size

41.

Which movement is best for maintaining a consistent subject size while changing perspective along the axis of action?

a)

Truck sliding camera sideways

b)

Zoom altering focal length only

c)

Dolly moving camera forward-back

d)

Pan rotating camera horizontally

42.

Which shot framing best establishes the environment and spatial relationships?

a)

Extreme close-up of detail

b)

Close-up facial framing

c)

Long shot full body context

d)

Medium shot conversational

43.

Which statement about aspect ratios is accurate?

a)

4:3 is narrower than 16:9

b)

Aspect ratio equals focal length

c)

16:9 is taller than 4:3

d)

Both show equal field of view

44.

Which practice helps achieve a rack focus effect?

a)

Pan to follow action

b)

Zoom during the take

c)

Shift focus from one plane

d)

Stop down aperture greatly

45.

Which lens term refers to the maximum amount of light a lens can transmit at its widest aperture?

a)

Shutter speed time interval

b)

ISO sensor sensitivity rating

c)

F-stop numerical ratio value

d)

T-stop calibrated transmission

46.

Which setting change most directly brightens exposure without affecting motion blur or depth of field?

a)

Zoom to a longer focal length

b)

Increase ISO sensor gain

c)

Lower f-number opening wider

d)

Slower shutter speed duration

47.

Which scenario best uses a zoom instead of a dolly?

a)

Need physical movement through space

b)

Need smoother lateral perspective

c)

Need parallax change in background

d)

Need framing change from one position

48.

Which pair correctly matches shot abbreviation to description?

a)

CU shows tight facial detail

b)

MS includes head and shoulders

c)

LS captures entire figure in scene

d)

ECU typical establishing context

49.

Which component in three-point lighting primarily separates the subject from the background by creating rim highlights?

a)

Soft light diffused through scrims

b)

Key light positioned front and high

c)

Fill light placed near camera axis

d)

Back light aimed from behind

50.

What is the typical purpose of the fill light in a three-point configuration?

a)

Match camera white balance settings

b)

Create separation with rim glow

c)

Reduce contrast by softening shadows

d)

Increase shadow density and texture

51.

Which color temperature is commonly associated with tungsten incandescent lighting?

a)

Around 2000 Kelvin warm

b)

Approximately 3200 Kelvin warm

c)

Above 6500 Kelvin cool

d)

Near 5600 Kelvin daylight

52.

Daylight-balanced light sources are typically around which color temperature value?

a)

2400 K tungsten warm

b)

5600 K daylight neutral

c)

3200 K studio warm

d)

7000 K overcast cool

53.

Which term best describes the measured loudness of sound using a logarithmic unit?

a)

Hertz frequency cycles

b)

Decibels sound pressure

c)

Watts electrical power

d)

Kelvin color scale

54.

Hertz (Hz) quantifies what property in audio?

a)

Frequency cycles per second

b)

Phase time alignment

c)

Dynamic range headroom

d)

Amplitude magnitude level

55.

Which microphone type typically requires external power and offers high sensitivity with a charged capsule?

a)

Contact piezo transducer

b)

Dynamic moving-coil element

c)

Ribbon aluminum diaphragm

d)

Condenser capacitor element

56.

Which microphone type is generally rugged, does not require phantom power, and is common for stage vocals?

a)

Ribbon velocity element

b)

Dynamic moving-coil

c)

Condenser phantom powered

d)

Shotgun interference tube

57.

Supercardioid and hypercardioid patterns differ from cardioid primarily by what characteristic?

a)

Equal sensitivity all around

b)

Wider front lobe sensitivity

c)

Complete rear rejection always

d)

Narrower front with rear lobe

58.

Which device is commonly worn on the head to free the hands while maintaining consistent mic position?

a)

Contact piezo sensor

b)

Boundary pressure zone

c)

Headset microphone boom

d)

Shotgun interference tube

59.

Which tool or approach primarily reduces specular highlights and softens light without changing its color temperature?

a)

Scrims for exposure trim

b)

Gels for color shift

c)

Diffusers for scatter

d)

Barn doors for cut

60.

Which term refers to adjusting exposure by placing a neutral mesh in front of a light?

a)

Gobo hard block

b)

Cookie patterning

c)

Scrim attenuation

d)

Gel color shift

61.

Which unit or value best represents a camera’s white balance target for average daylight?

a)

85 dB sound loudness

b)

44.1 kHz sample rate

c)

5600 K daylight target

d)

3200 K tungsten warm

62.

Which choices correctly pair microphone categories with typical uses?

a)

Ribbon—harsh close cymbals

b)

Lavalier—discreet talent miking

c)

Shotgun—on-camera ambience

d)

Boundary mic—conference tables

63.

Which actions best manage contrast in a portrait three-point setup without altering color temperature?

a)

Switch key to daylight LED

b)

Add diffusion to key light

c)

Increase fill light intensity

d)

Move back light closer

64.

Which audio term refers to low frequencies in a mix?

a)

Program

b)

Treble

c)

Input

d)

Bass

65.

Which term refers to sending a video signal to the recorder?

a)

Preview

b)

Bus

c)

Program

d)

Input

66.

What does a 'Fader' control on an audio mixer?

a)

Volume level

b)

Compression ratio

c)

Equalization

d)

Panning position

67.

Which editing style intercuts an associated story happening at the same time?

a)

Parallel editing

b)

Montage editing

c)

Jump cut

d)

Continuity editing

68.

Which technique arranges shots to create meaning beyond individual shots?

a)

Coverage

b)

Live switching

c)

Parallel editing

d)

Montage editing

69.

What is 'Relational editing' used to create?

a)

Camera exposure

b)

Color temperature

c)

Cause-effect significance

d)

Audio loudness

70.

What does a 'Slate' primarily provide at the start of a take?

a)

Production info

b)

Color calibration

c)

Audio mix

d)

Legal release

71.

Which method helps direct talent non-verbally on set?

a)

IFB prompts

b)

Teleprompter

c)

Cue cards

d)

Hand signals

72.

In editing, which shot quickly establishes setting before the action?

a)

Close-up shot

b)

Insert shot

c)

Cutaway shot

d)

Cover shot

73.

In single-camera filming, what does 'Coverage' ensure?

a)

Lighting balance

b)

Enough usable angles

c)

Color consistency

d)

Audio isolation

74.

Which law allows limited use of copyrighted material for criticism or news?

a)

Clearance

b)

Mechanical rights

c)

Public domain

d)

Fair use act

75.

What does 'Clearance' mean in production?

a)

Talent scheduling approval

b)

Payment of union fees

c)

Camera location permit

d)

Permission from copyright holder

76.

Which rights allow recording and playback of a musical work?

a)

Mechanical rights

b)

Performance rights

c)

Moral rights

d)

Synchronization rights

77.

Which rights are needed to use a song with a video?

a)

Broadcast rights

b)

Royalty rights

c)

Mechanical rights

d)

Synchronization rights

78.

What is a 'Talent release' for?

a)

Permission to use likeness

b)

Payment for actors

c)

Union membership

d)

Scheduling availability

79.

Which term means a work is not owned and can be used freely?

a)

Copyright

b)

Creative commons

c)

Fair use

d)

Public domain

80.

Which production term refers to adjusting multiple audio inputs for level?

a)

IFB routing

b)

Fader control

c)

Audio monitor

d)

Audio mixing