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Introduction to Management and Early Perspectives

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which function of management involves setting goals and deciding how best to achieve them?

a)

Planning and Decision Making

b)

Controlling

c)

Organizing

d)

Leading

2.

A group of people working together in a structured and coordinated fashion to achieve goals is defined as a(n):

a)

Management team

b)

Organization

c)

Hierarchy

d)

System

3.

Which level of management is responsible for creating the organization's overall strategy and operating policies?

a)

First-line managers

b)

Middle managers

c)

Top managers

d)

Operations managers

4.

Technical skills are most essential for which type of work?

a)

Visualizing situational responses

b)

Motivating groups

c)

Thinking in the abstract

d)

Understanding specific kinds of work done in an organization

5.

True or False: Effective management means making the right decisions and successfully implementing them.

a)

Only decisions matter

b)

Only implementation matters

c)

False

d)

True

6.

Which management perspective consists of two branches: scientific management and administrative management?

a)

Quantitative perspective

b)

Behavioral perspective

c)

Classical perspective

d)

Systems perspective

7.

The perspective that emphasizes individual attitudes, behaviors, and group processes is the:

a)

Contingency perspective

b)

Behavioral perspective

c)

Classical perspective

d)

Quantitative perspective

8.

Which view of management assumes that problems can be approached using rational, logical, objective, and systematic ways?

a)

Management as an Art

b)

Theory X

c)

Management as a Science

d)

Human Relations movement

9.

According to the systems perspective, what is the term for two or more subsystems working together to produce more than the sum of their individual parts?

a)

Transformation

b)

Feedback

c)

Synergy

d)

Entropy

10.

The "Human Relations" movement proposed that workers respond primarily to:

a)

Physical lighting conditions

b)

The social context of work

c)

Mathematical production models

d)

Piecework pay systems

11.

Which management perspective focuses on decision making, mathematical models, and the use of computers?

a)

Administrative

b)

Classical

c)

Quantitative

d)

Behavioral

12.

True or False: Theory Y is a pessimistic view of workers consistent with the views of scientific management.

a)

True

b)

Neither true nor false

c)

False

d)

Partly true

13.

What is the primary focus of "Scientific Management"?

a)

Enhancing social relationships at work

b)

Improving individual worker productivity

c)

Managing the total organization

d)

Designing flexible organizational structures

14.

Improving the performance of individual workers

a)

Improving the performance of individual workers

b)

Understanding group dynamics

c)

Implementing global strategies

15.

Which concept suggests that appropriate managerial behavior depends on unique elements in a given situation?

a)

Contingency perspective

b)

Universal perspective

c)

Classical perspective

d)

Systems perspective

16.

A limitation of the Classical Management Perspective is that it:

a)

Relies too heavily on intuition and instinct

b)

Overemphasizes the importance of the social context

c)

Slightly ignores the role of the individual in organizations

d)

Is too complex for simple organizations

17.

In the systems perspective, "Entropy" refers to:

a)

The ability to think in the abstract

b)

The conversion of resources into products

c)

A normal process leading to system decline

d)

A system that interacts with its environment

18.

Which perspective is particularly useful in the areas of planning and controlling through decision-making tools?

a)

Human Relations

b)

Quantitative

c)

Classical

d)

Behavioral

19.

The "Art of Management" relies heavily on which set of skills?

a)

Technical and Diagnostic

b)

Mathematical and Logical

c)

Conceptual and Communication

d)

Rational and Objective

20.

The "Hawthorne Studies" initially focused on lighting but ultimately confirmed the importance of:

a)

Eliminating "soldiering"

b)

Human behavior in the workplace

c)

Administrative guidelines

d)

Scientific selection of employees

21.

Which organizational behavior topic addresses how individuals view themselves versus how others see them?

a)

Synergy

b)

The Johari Window

c)

Bounded Rationality

d)

Theory X

22.

Contemporary behavior science in management draws from which of the following fields?

a)

Mathematics and Engineering

b)

Physics and Chemistry

c)

Psychology, Sociology, and Anthropology

d)

History and Law

23.

Theory X assumes that managers must:

a)

Encourage innovation and responsibility

b)

View work as a natural part of life

c)

Coerce and threaten employees to get them to work

d)

Rely on internal motivation of workers

24.

One major challenge faced by managers today is:

a)

Ignoring the external environment

b)

Returning to "rule-of-thumb" methods

c)

An increasingly diverse workforce

d)

Implementing piecework pay systems

25.

Everything outside an organization's boundaries that might affect it is the:

a)

General environment

b)

External environment

c)

Task environment

d)

Internal environment

26.

Which dimension of the general environment refers to the methods available for converting resources into products?

a)

Technological

b)

Economic

c)

Political-legal

d)

Internal

27.

Whoever pays money to acquire an organization's products or services is a:

a)

Supplier

b)

Competitor

c)

Customer

d)

Regulator

28.

True or False: Ethics are an individual's personal beliefs about whether a behavior is right or wrong.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

The governing body elected by stockholders to oversee a firm's management is the:

a)

Interest group

b)

Board of directors

c)

Regulators

d)

Strategic partners

30.

True or False: A tariff is a limit placed on the number of goods that can be traded.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Organizational culture is the set of:

a)

Laws and regulations governing a firm

b)

Financial disclosures required by law

c)

Physical conditions within a workplace

d)

Values, beliefs, and behaviors that help members understand what the firm stands for

32.

Which of the following is part of the Task Environment?

a)

Technological dimension

b)

Owners and Employees

c)

Competitors and Suppliers

d)

Economic dimension

33.

An organization working with another in a joint venture is known as a:

a)

Board of directors

b)

Regulator

c)

Strategic partner

d)

Competitor

34.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 requires CEOs to personally vouch for:

a)

Their employees' happiness

b)

The truthfulness of their firm's financial disclosures

c)

The quality of their marketing

d)

Their competitors' practices

35.

What is Social Responsibility?

a)

The goal to maximize profit only

b)

Obligations to protect and enhance the social context in which a firm functions

c)

Compliance with international tax laws

d)

The internal culture of a management team

36.

Which international business level involves making a product domestically and selling it abroad?

a)

Importing

b)

Licensing

c)

Direct investment

d)

Exporting

37.

True or False: Whistle-blowing is the disclosure by an employee of illegal or unethical conduct within the organization.

a)

False

b)

True

38.

Which trade agreement was intended to reduce barriers and make it easier for all nations to compete?

a)

MFN

b)

EU

c)

GATT

d)

NAFTA

39.

A firm that builds or purchases operating facilities in a foreign country is engaging in:

a)

Exporting

b)

Direct investment

c)

Strategic alliance

d)

Licensing

40.

What is the Most Favored Nation principle?

a)

Giving preference to domestic producers

b)

Extending preferential trade treatment to all signatories of an agreement

c)

Targeting specific nations for high tariffs

d)

Limiting the value of goods exported

41.

Which of the following is a formal dimension for managing social responsibility?

a)

Leadership style

b)

Whistle-blowing

c)

Ethical compliance

d)

Organizational culture

42.

"Maquiladoras" are assembly plants in Mexico that are often:

a)

Owned by the government

b)

Located far from the U.S. border

c)

Given special tax breaks by the Mexican government

d)

Only used for high-tech research

43.

Which dimension of culture determines the organization's "feel"?

a)

Economic dimension

b)

Legal compliance

c)

Strategic goals

d)

Organizational culture

44.

A common argument against social responsibility is that:

a)

It reduces ethical dilemmas

b)

It distracts from profit maximization

c)

It increases long-term competitiveness

d)

It strengthens stakeholder trust

45.

What is the primary starting point for an organization's culture?

a)

The technological dimension

b)

Current market trends

c)

The organization's founder

d)

Government regulation

46.

Difficulties in international business can arise when there is little overlap between:

a)

Strategic goals and tactical plans

b)

Tariffs and quotas

c)

A manager's home culture and the culture where business is conducted

d)

Suppliers and customers

47.

Which organization includes 164 member nations and establishes procedures for trade disputes?

a)

The World Trade Organization (WTO)

b)

The United Nations

c)

The Global Trade Council

d)

The European Union

48.

An informal dimension of managing social responsibility is:

a)

Legal compliance

b)

Philanthropic giving

c)

Organizational leadership and culture

d)

Ethical training programs

49.

Managers can maintain organizational culture by:

a)

Changing the board of directors yearly

b)

Focusing solely on technical skills

c)

Ignoring symbols and stories

d)

Rewarding people whose behaviors are consistent with the existing culture

50.

The act of choosing one alternative from among a set of alternatives is:

a)

Leading

b)

Planning

c)

Decision making

d)

Organizing

51.

A decision that is relatively structured or recurs with some frequency is a:

a)

Nonprogrammed decision

b)

Strategy

c)

Programmed decision

d)

Contingency

52.

Under a state of certainty, the decision maker knows the alternatives and conditions with reasonable certainty.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which situation occurs when a group's desire for cohesiveness overwhelms its desire for a good decision?

a)

Bounded rationality

b)

Groupthink

c)

Satisficing

d)

Synergy

54.

A Delphi group is a form of decision making where a group arrives at a consensus of expert opinion.

a)

False

b)

True

55.

Choosing a vacation destination is an example of a:

a)

Standing plan

b)

Nonprogrammed decision

c)

Policy

d)

Programmed decision

56.

The tendency to search for alternatives only until one is found that meets a minimum standard is:

a)

Optimizing

b)

Satisficing

c)

Planning

d)

Risk-taking

57.

In the rational decision-making process, what is the first step?

a)

Implementing the alternative

b)

Recognizing and defining the decision situation

c)

Selecting the best alternative

d)

Identifying alternatives

58.

Which decision model argues that decision makers use incomplete information and are limited by bounded rationality?

a)

Administrative model

b)

Classical model

59.

An informal alliance of individuals formed to achieve a common goal is a:

a)

Task force

b)

Subsystem

c)

Coalition

d)

Nominal group

60.

When a decision maker stays with a decision even when it appears to be wrong, it is called:

a)

Intuition

b)

Risk propensity

c)

Satisficing

d)

Escalation of commitment

61.

True or False: Nonprogrammed decisions are relatively unstructured and occur much less often than programmed decisions.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

The Classical Decision Model assumes that managers are:

a)

Logical and rational

b)

Limited by values and reflexes

c)

Likely to satisfice

d)

Unaware of alternatives

63.

Which group decision-making form involves members openly discussing and agreeing on the best alternative?

a)

Coalition

b)

Interacting group

c)

Delphi group

d)

Nominal group

64.

Evidence-Based Management involves a commitment to:

a)

Uncritical benchmarking

b)

Finding and using the best theory and data available

c)

Ignoring hard facts

d)

Using strongly held untested beliefs

65.

Bounded rationality suggests that decision makers are limited by:

a)

The board of directors

b)

Their values, unconscious reflexes, skills, and habits

c)

Market growth rates

d)

Perfect information

66.

One advantage of group decision making is that:

a)

It always results in compromise

b)

One person can dominate the group

c)

More alternatives are likely to be generated

d)

It is faster than individual decision making

67.

To promote effectiveness in group decision making, a manager should:

a)

Avoid setting deadlines

b)

Assign the role of devil’s advocate to a member

c)

Make their position known as early as possible

d)

Encourage groupthink

68.

A condition of risk is one where:

a)

No alternatives are known

b)

The decision maker knows all consequences with certainty

c)

Ambiguity is at its lowest level

d)

Alternatives and payoffs are associated with probability estimates

69.

Which step of rational decision making involves evaluating an alternative’s feasibility and satisfactoriness?

a)

Step 3

b)

Step 2

c)

Step 1

d)

Step 4

70.

A structured technique used specifically to generate creative and innovative ideas is the:

a)

Interacting group

b)

Nominal group

c)

Administrative model

d)

Evidence-based model

71.

An innate belief about something without conscious consideration is:

a)

Intuition

b)

Satisficing

c)

Bounded rationality

d)

A programmed decision

72.

Which principle of Evidence-Based Management suggests treating your organization as an unfinished prototype?

a)

Avoiding uncritical benchmarking

b)

Looking for risks

c)

Encouraging experimentation and learning by doing

d)

Facing hard facts

73.

A major disadvantage of group decision making is that:

a)

It takes more time to reach decisions

b)

Less information is available

c)

Decisions are always superior to individual ones

d)

Differences never emerge

74.

Which statement best describes a disadvantage of group decision making in organizations?

a)

It always reduces implementation time and costs

b)

Compromise decisions resulting from indecisiveness may emerge

c)

It consistently outperforms expert individual judgment

d)

Communication problems are eliminated by group meetings