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WJEC A-level Business definitions Quiz #GCS

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the maximum number of employees a medium-sized enterprise can have according to the European Union?

a)

250

b)

50

c)

10

d)

500

2.

Which of the following is a component of a business plan?

a)

Employee benefits

b)

Financial forecasts

c)

Office location

d)

Company logo

3.

What happens to the demand for normal goods when consumer income rises?

a)

Demand decreases

b)

Demand remains constant

c)

Demand increases

d)

Demand fluctuates

4.

Which type of goods decreases in demand when consumer income rises?

a)

Normal goods

b)

Inferior goods

c)

Luxury goods

d)

Capital goods

5.

What is qualitative data?

a)

Data that can be counted

b)

Data that is descriptive and not numerical

c)

Data that is always numerical

d)

Data that is always quantitative

6.

What is market research bias?

a)

A systematic error in research where findings deviate from the true result

b)

A method to increase sales through promotions

c)

A strategy to reduce production costs

d)

A tool used for financial analysis

7.

What are semi-variable costs also known as?

a)

Fixed costs

b)

Variable costs

c)

Semi-fixed costs

d)

Overhead costs

8.

What is an example of 'what-if' analysis?

a)

Market research bias

b)

Break-even analysis

c)

Asset-led marketing

d)

Product portfolio

9.

What does asset-led marketing focus on?

a)

Reducing production costs

b)

Using product attributes to market

c)

Increasing advertising budget

d)

Expanding global reach

10.

What is a product portfolio?

a)

A collection of marketing strategies

b)

A range of items sold by a business

c)

A list of promotional methods

d)

A set of financial statements

11.

What does above-the-line promotion include?

a)

Direct mailing

b)

Online media and television

c)

Personal selling

d)

Trade shows

12.

What is below-the-line promotion?

a)

Mass media advertising

b)

Direct consumer targeting

c)

Global marketing strategy

d)

Online sales

13.

What is multi-channel distribution?

a)

A single method of selling products

b)

A strategy offering multiple ways to buy a product

c)

A focus on reducing costs

d)

A method to increase production

14.

What does global marketing involve?

a)

Local advertising

b)

Worldwide selling and promoting

c)

Reducing international trade

d)

Focusing on domestic markets

15.

What does the term "Digital media" include?

a)

Only text and graphics

b)

Only video and audio

c)

Text, graphics, video, and audio

d)

Only podcasts and electronic billboards

16.

What is the primary focus of Social media marketing?

a)

Selling products directly

b)

Gaining traffic or attention through social media sites

c)

Creating physical advertisements

d)

Reducing marketing costs

17.

What does "E-tailing" refer to?

a)

Selling goods in physical stores

b)

Selling goods on the internet

c)

Selling services over the phone

d)

Selling goods through catalogs

18.

What is "M-commerce" short for?

a)

Mobile commerce

b)

Marketing commerce

c)

Media commerce

d)

Modern commerce

19.

What does an Income statement show?

a)

The number of employees in a company

b)

The amount of money a business has made or lost over a specific period

c)

The total number of products sold

d)

The company's marketing strategies

20.

What do Profitability ratios refer to in AS Business?

a)

Gross and net profit margins

b)

Employee satisfaction

c)

Market share

d)

Advertising costs

21.

How is Gross profit margin calculated?

a)

Net profit / Sales revenue x 100

b)

Gross profit / Sales revenue x 100

c)

Sales revenue / Gross profit x 100

d)

Gross profit / Net profit x 100

22.

What does a Flexible workforce allow businesses to do?

a)

Increase product prices

b)

Reduce employee numbers

c)

Meet both individual and business needs

d)

Focus solely on profit margins

23.

What is a zero-hours contract?

a)

A contract with fixed working hours

b)

A contract with no minimum working hours required

c)

A contract with mandatory overtime

d)

A contract with annual leave benefits

24.

What is hot-desking?

a)

A permanent workstation for each employee

b)

A workstation used by multiple workers at different times

c)

A workstation with personal storage space

d)

A workstation with a dedicated phone line

25.

What is an apprenticeship?

a)

A temporary job with no training

b)

A real job with training and a qualification

c)

A volunteer position with no pay

d)

A part-time job with flexible hours

26.

What is 360 degree feedback?

a)

Feedback from only supervisors

b)

Feedback from subordinates, peers, and supervisors

c)

Feedback from customers only

d)

Feedback from external consultants

27.

Who first proposed the Expectancy theory?

a)

Peter Drucker

b)

Victor Vroom

c)

Fiedler

d)

Wright and Taylor

28.

What does Management by Objectives (MBO) involve?

a)

Individual goal setting

b)

Participative goal setting

c)

Random goal setting

d)

No goal setting

29.

What does Fiedler's Contingency Model focus on?

a)

Changing leadership style frequently

b)

Identifying the best potential leaders for a situation

c)

Avoiding leadership roles

d)

Promoting only experienced leaders

30.

What traits are associated with the trait theory of leadership?

a)

Dishonesty and charisma

b)

Honesty, creativity, intelligence, and charisma

c)

Laziness and intelligence

d)

Creativity and dishonesty

31.

What do Wright and Taylor believe about managerial leadership?

a)

It cannot be taught

b)

It is solely based on experience

c)

Managers can be taught leadership skills

d)

It is only about technical skills

32.

What is the definition of "Equal opportunities" in the workplace?

a)

Ensuring all individuals have the same opportunity without discrimination

b)

Providing equal pay for all employees

c)

Offering the same job roles to everyone

d)

Guaranteeing promotions for all staff

33.

How is "Added value" calculated?

a)

Selling price + cost of inputs

b)

Selling price - cost of inputs

c)

Cost of inputs - selling price

d)

Selling price x cost of inputs

34.

What is the most common measure of productivity?

a)

Total output

b)

Labour productivity

c)

Cost efficiency

d)

Time management

35.

What does "Innovation" involve in a business context?

a)

Maintaining current products

b)

Translating an idea into a product that creates value

c)

Reducing production costs

d)

Increasing employee numbers

36.

What is the focus of "Research and development (R&D)" in businesses?

a)

Reducing employee turnover

b)

Identifying and turning new ideas into products

c)

Increasing marketing budgets

d)

Expanding office spaces

37.

What are "Internal economies of scale"?

a)

Reductions in average cost per unit due to increased internal efficiencies

b)

Increases in average cost per unit due to inefficiencies

c)

Benefits that affect the whole industry

d)

Costs associated with expanding business locations

38.

What are "Diseconomies of scale"?

a)

Reductions in average cost per unit

b)

Increases in average cost per unit due to inefficiencies

c)

Benefits of scale for the whole industry

d)

Decreases in production output

39.

What is the formula for calculating Return on Capital Employed (ROCE)?

a)

Operating (net) profit / Capital employed x 100

b)

Long term liabilities / Capital employed x 100

c)

Operating (net) profit / Total assets x 100

d)

Net income / Shareholders' equity x 100

40.

What is the purpose of a vision statement in an organization?

a)

To describe the current operations of the organization

b)

To present a vision of where the business could be in an ideal world

c)

To outline the short-term objectives of the organization

d)

To detail the financial performance of the organization

41.

Which of the following best describes a mission statement?

a)

A long-term aspirational description of the organization

b)

A statement that defines the present purpose and objectives of an organization

c)

A detailed plan for achieving specific objectives

d)

A financial report of the organization's performance

42.

What is the main focus of a corporate strategy?

a)

The overall purpose of the whole business

b)

The specific tactics for each department

c)

The financial goals of the organization

d)

The marketing plan for the next quarter

43.

What are tactics in the context of business strategy?

a)

Long-term plans to achieve the organization's vision

b)

Short-term actions to support the strategy and achieve specific objectives

c)

Financial strategies to maximize profit

d)

Marketing strategies to increase brand awareness

44.

What is the term for the expansion of a business through increasing trade or sales, often into new markets?

a)

External growth

b)

Rationalisation

c)

Organic growth

d)

Outsourcing production

45.

Which term describes the expansion of a business by acquisition, takeover, or mergers?

a)

Organic growth

b)

External growth

c)

Intuitive decision making

d)

Planned change

46.

What involves the reorganisation of a business to increase its efficiency, possibly leading to expansion or reduction in size?

a)

Outsourcing production

b)

Rationalisation

c)

Unplanned change

d)

Internal cause of change

47.

Which term refers to the contracting or subcontracting of the production process to focus on core activities?

a)

Intuitive decision making

b)

External growth

c)

Outsourcing production

d)

Planned change

48.

What type of decision making is based on intuition rather than facts or scientific models?

a)

Rationalisation

b)

Intuitive decision making

c)

External causes of change

d)

John Storey's four different approaches

49.

What is an internal cause of change in a business?

a)

Legislation changes

b)

Management system changes

c)

Advances in technology

d)

Market changes

50.

Which of the following is an external cause of change for a business?

a)

New management

b)

Changing employees' attitudes

c)

Legislation

d)

Chain of command

51.

What occurs when leaders in a business proactively organise a plan to accomplish change?

a)

Unplanned change

b)

Intuitive decision making

c)

Planned change

d)

Rationalisation

52.

What type of change is due to an unexpected event leading to reactive management?

a)

Planned change

b)

Unplanned change

c)

External growth

d)

Organic growth

53.

Which of the following is NOT one of John Storey's four different approaches to managing change?

a)

A total imposed package

b)

Imposed piecemeal initiatives

c)

Negotiated total packages

d)

Intuitive decision making

54.

What is Lewin's three-step process commonly referred to as?

a)

Unfreeze, Change, Freeze

b)

Start, Transition, End

c)

Plan, Do, Check

d)

Initiate, Execute, Close

55.

What type of risks arise from activities within a business such as machine failure and strikes?

a)

Internal risks

b)

External risks

c)

Insurable risks

d)

Uninsurable risks

56.

Which type of risk occurs from the external environment of a business, such as competitor activity or natural disasters?

a)

External risks

b)

Internal risks

c)

Contingency risks

d)

Fiscal risks

57.

What are plans made to combat anticipated risks called?

a)

Contingency plans

b)

Fiscal policies

c)

Monetary policies

d)

Corporate social responsibilities

58.

What is an insurable risk?

a)

Expected and unwanted events that result in payment from a second party

b)

A situation that fails to meet insurance requirements

c)

Risks that arise from business activities

d)

Risks from the external environment

59.

What is a situation called that fails to meet the requirements of an insurable risk?

a)

Uninsurable risk

b)

Insurable risk

c)

Internal risk

d)

External risk

60.

How does the government use fiscal policies?

a)

To influence the economy through taxation and spending

b)

To control the money supply

c)

To regulate international trade

d)

To manage corporate social responsibilities

61.

What do monetary policies control?

a)

Money supply, inflation rates, and interest rates

b)

Taxation and government spending

c)

Corporate social responsibilities

d)

International trade agreements

62.

What is corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

a)

A form of self-regulation where a business takes responsibility for its impact on the environment

b)

A policy to restrict international trade

c)

An agreement between countries to reduce trade barriers

d)

A method to control inflation rates

63.

What is international trade?

a)

The exchange of goods and services between countries

b)

A policy to restrict imports and exports

c)

A form of self-regulation for businesses

d)

A method to control inflation rates

64.

What is free trade?

a)

A policy where governments do not restrict imports or exports

b)

A policy to protect local businesses from foreign competition

c)

An agreement to reduce trade barriers between countries

d)

A method to control the money supply

65.

What is protectionism?

a)

A policy to restrict international trade to protect local businesses

b)

An agreement to reduce trade barriers between countries

c)

A form of self-regulation for businesses

d)

A method to control inflation rates

66.

What is a trading bloc?

a)

An agreement between countries to reduce or eliminate trade barriers

b)

A policy to restrict international trade

c)

A form of self-regulation for businesses

d)

A method to control inflation rates

67.

What is a single market?

a)

A type of trade bloc with common policies and free movement of goods and labor

b)

A market where only one type of product is sold

c)

A local market with no international trade

d)

A market with no regulations

68.

What does globalisation involve?

a)

Isolation of countries from international trade

b)

Worldwide movement towards economic, financial, trade, and communications integration

c)

Limiting trade to local markets only

d)

Reducing international investment

69.

What is glocalisation?

a)

The adaptation of international products to local cultures

b)

The process of global isolation

c)

The removal of all local products from the market

d)

The standardization of products worldwide

70.

Which of the following is true about the Eurozone?

a)

It includes every country in the European Union

b)

It is a group of countries using the euro as their sole currency

c)

The UK is part of the Eurozone

d)

It includes countries not using the euro