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Worksheets

ORION 94-110

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the major constituents of the fungal cell wall?

a)

chitin

b)

glucans

c)

glycoproteins

d)

peptidoglycan

2.

Vancomycin trough level?

a)

5–10 mg/L

b)

10–20 mg/L

c)

30–40 mg/L

3.

Target vancomycin trough in severe infection?

a)

5–10 mg/L

b)

15–25 mg/L

c)

15–20 mg/L

4.

Your colleague has had contact with a Clostridioides difficile patient and used disinfectant wipes. What should be done?

a)

Use alcohol

b)

Wash hands

c)

Take tetracycline

5.

Vancomycin optimum trough concentration (mg/L).

a)

5–10

b)

10–15

c)

15–20

6.

Cyclosporine is given. Which medication is safe to give with it?

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Clarithromycin

7.

Pregnant patient with HIV and viral load < 100100 . Which medication is given in delivery?

a)

Tenofovir

b)

Lamivudine

c)

Zidovudine

d)

Efavirenz

8.

Gentamicin peak?

a)

one hour after dose

b)

two hours before dose

c)

one hour before dose

9.

Mechanism of azole antifungals in fungi?

a)

inhibition of ergosterol synthesis

b)

bind to the membrane of fungi

c)

induce in the membrane and destroy it

10.

Ciprofloxacin reaches which tissues first?

a)

liver, adipose tissue, brain

b)

brain, liver, adipose tissue

c)

adipose tissue, liver, brain

11.

Tetracycline accumulation occurs where?

a)

bone

b)

liver

c)

tissue

12.

What is endotoxin?

a)

part of gram-positive bacteria

b)

part of gram-negative bacteria

c)

heat labile

13.

What is exotoxin?

a)

found in both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

b)

part of gram-positive bacteria

c)

part of gram-negative bacteria

d)

heat labile

14.

Best treatment for Staphylococcus aureus–positive mastitis?

a)

cephalexin

b)

nitrofurantoin

c)

clindamycin

d)

ciprofloxacin

15.

Patient taking vancomycin: when should the nurse withdraw a trough vancomycin level?

a)

1 hour before the scheduled vancomycin dose

b)

30 minutes after vancomycin administration

c)

30 minutes before the 4th dose

d)

30 minutes before vancomycin administration

16.

After tooth extraction, antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis is most needed for which condition?

a)

mitral valve disease

b)

kidney transplant

c)

asthma

d)

diabetes

17.

Ebola effect?

a)

common cold

b)

hemorrhagic fever

c)

pulmonary edema

d)

atypical pneumonia

18.

A 2-year skin infection in a patient with penicillin allergy: which treatment should be taken?

a)

doxycycline

b)

amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

c)

sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim

19.

Which bacteria cause milk fermentation?

a)

Lactobacillus

b)

Bacteroidetes

c)

Chlamydia

d)

Cyanobacteria

20.

Which antibiotic causes hyperkalemia?

a)

ciprofloxacin

b)

norfloxacin

c)

trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

d)

amoxicillin

21.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa appearance in Gram stain?

a)

gram-positive cocci

b)

gram-negative cocci

c)

gram-positive bacilli

d)

gram-negative bacilli

22.

Immunoglobulin analysis shows positive IgG and IgM. What is the type of infection?

a)

an old infection

b)

the condition worsened

c)

new condition

d)

the earliest new case does not appear with the new infection A

23.

Which of the following is an appropriate empiric treatment for meningitis?

a)

vancomycin

b)

ceftriaxone 22\, g every 1212\, h IV for 771414 days

c)

ampicillin

d)

azithromycin

24.

Epileptic patient on phenytoin: which antibiotic is suitable?

a)

ciprofloxacin

b)

erythromycin

c)

azithromycin

d)

clarithromycin

25.

Transmission of Brucella species?

a)

ingestion of unpasteurized milk or milk products

b)

aerosolized spores in hospital rooms

c)

person-to-person contact

d)

mosquito bite

26.

Most effective infection control in hospital?

a)

wearing gloves

b)

wearing mask

c)

do not contact infected patients

d)

everyone entering hospital must wear PPE

27.

Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit at site A inhibit which process?

a)

initiation of protein synthesis

b)

elongation of protein synthesis

c)

termination of protein synthesis

28.

Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit at site A inhibit which process?

a)

initiation of protein synthesis

b)

elongation of protein synthesis

c)

termination of protein synthesis

29.

Patient with E. coli UTI received TMP/SMX, but the organism is resistant. What is the most appropriate alternative?

a)

ciprofloxacin

b)

meropenem

c)

TMP/SMX double strength

30.

Clostridioides difficile causes which condition?

a)

salmonellosis

b)

typhoid fever

c)

pseudomembranous colitis

d)

cholera

31.

Which type of cephalosporin has the least effect on Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

a)

cefazolin

b)

cefoxitin

c)

ceftazidime

d)

cefiderocol

32.

A 65-year-old diabetic man is admitted to the emergency department with a 3-day history of productive cough, shortness of breath, and chest pain. Chest X-ray shows bilateral lower infiltration. An H1N1 virus was detected in a nasal swab. Which of the following antivirals is the drug of choice in this case?

a)

ribavirin

b)

acyclovir

c)

oseltamivir

d)

ganciclovir

33.

Which of the following drugs exhibits dose-dependent pharmacokinetics at normal therapeutic doses?

a)

lithium

b)

quinidine

c)

phenytoin

d)

sodium valproate

34.

The ionization of the drug is very important to understand the pharmacodynamic of the drug. Which of the following forms are absorbed from the stomach?

a)

polar-ionized

b)

polar-ununionized

c)

non polar ionized

d)

non-polar-unionized

35.

How long does it take for the body to remove 99% of the drug by first-order elimination after a single dose?

a)

2 half-lives

b)

4 half-lives

c)

7 half-lives

d)

10 half-lives

36.

The graphs represent quantal dose–response curves for the effect and lethality of a drug. What is the drug’s therapeutic index?

a)

0.9

b)

1.1

c)

4

d)

10

37.

Which of the following is a common enzyme polymorphism that could potentially alter clopidogrel efficacy?

a)

Cyp2c7

b)

Cyp2c9

c)

Cyp2c10

d)

Cyp2c19

38.

A 55-year-old man comes to the pharmacy complaining that acetaminophen with codeine started 2 days ago to manage post-operative pain does not seem any better than acetaminophen alone. Pharmacogenomics testing performed 3 years ago showed he is a CYP2D6 poor metabolizer. Which is the best explanation why this patient does not seem to benefit from codeine?

a)

Codeine excretion is rapid

b)

Codeine absorption is slower

c)

Codeine is metabolized faster

39.

Which of the following drugs will have decreased absorption when given with dietary calcium?

a)

enalapril

b)

propranolol

c)

doxycycline

d)

acetylsalicylic acid

40.

Which of the following drugs is known to have significant variable bioavailability due to its extensive hepatic metabolism upon oral administration?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Propranolol

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Acetaminophen

41.

Which of the following drugs complexes with dairy products or with antacids when administered orally?

a)

Enalapril

b)

Warfarin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Acetylsalicylic acid

42.

Carbamazepine (pKa = 13.213.2 ) is an antiepileptic drug used in the treatment of status epilepticus. This condition requires fast intervention with carbamazepine injection. Which of the following is most likely to describe what will happen if carbamazepine was given orally?

a)

Fast intervention because the drug will be ionized in the stomach

b)

Slow intervention because the drug will be ionized in the stomach

c)

Fast intervention because the drug will be unionized in the stomach

d)

Slow intervention because the drug will be unionized in the stomach

43.

A dose of 500500 mg of a drug is administered to a patient, and the plasma concentration results at the indicated times are shown. Which of the following is the half-life of the drug?

a)

2 hours

b)

3 hours

c)

4 hours

d)

6 hours

44.

A 500500 -mg dose of aspirin was given intravenously to a patient and produced an initial plasma concentration of 100100 mg/L. If the half-life of the drug is 6.936.93 hours, what would be the total body clearance?

a)

50 Liters/hour

b)

10 Liters/hour

c)

5 Liters/hour

d)

0.5 Liters/hour

45.

Which one of the following medications is known to be a powerful enzyme inducer?

a)

warfarin

b)

rifampicin

c)

itraconazole

d)

metronidazole

46.

Which of the following is the mechanism by which phenobarbital can decrease the therapeutic efficacy of tricyclic antidepressants when administered at the same time?

a)

increasing the excretion of tricyclic antidepressants

b)

decreasing the excretion of tricyclic antidepressants

c)

decreasing the metabolism of the drug by induction of microsomal enzymes

d)

increasing the metabolism of the drug by induction of microsomal enzymes

47.

A 50-year-old man on warfarin therapy started drinking an herbal tea (one gallon daily). A week later his INR dropped to 1.351.35 ; prior to that time, his INR had been in the range of 2.52.533 . Once the herbal tea was discontinued, the patient’s INR came back up to 2.502.50 . Which of the following is the content of the herbal tea extract?

a)

Anise

b)

Ginger

c)

Green tea

d)

Chamomile

48.

Which of the following ranges of volume of distribution is deduced for warfarin (anticoagulant) that is 98%98\% bound to proteins?

a)

3–5 L

b)

40–50 L

c)

50–500 L

d)

5000–10000 L

49.

Elderly patient: what happens with absorption?

a)

Increase both lipophilic and hydrophilic drugs absorption

b)

Decrease both

c)

Increase lipophilic absorption and decrease hydrophilic absorption

d)

Decrease lipophilic absorption and increase hydrophilic absorption

50.

Which of the following has high protein binding?

a)

Lithium

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Phenytoin

51.

Drug should not be used with ciprofloxacin. Which one?

a)

ACEI

b)

atorvastatin

c)

ferrous sulfate

d)

metformin

52.

Drug acid: where will there be high excretion?

a)

pKa 3.33.3 , weak base

b)

pKa 3.33.3 , weak acid

c)

pKa 6.86.8 , weak base

d)

pKa 6.86.8 , weak acid

53.

Which antifungal binds more to CYP450?

a)

amphotericin

b)

Voriconazole

c)

Note: non-linear kinetics

54.

Drug enhanced its absorption with ranitidine. Which one?

a)

lorazepam

b)

Warfarin

c)

Aspirin

d)

Naproxen

55.

Rifampicin effect on CYP3A4?

a)

Inducer

b)

Inhibition

56.

Which of the following decreases the effect of warfarin?

a)

antibiotics

b)

multivitamins

57.

Which of the following increases the effect of warfarin?

a)

antibiotics

b)

multivitamins

58.

Sodium bicarbonate (antacid) makes an elimination of which ionizable drug?

a)

pKa = 1.21.2 , weak acid

b)

pKa = 5.15.1 , weak acid

c)

pKa = 7.87.8 , weak base

d)

pKa = 99 , weak base

59.

Drug enhanced its absorption with ranitidine. Which one?

a)

lorazepam

b)

Warfarin

c)

Aspirin

d)

Naproxen

60.

What does linear pharmacokinetics mean?

a)

The clearance of the drug is not changing when dose increases

b)

The plasma concentration versus time curve is a straight line

c)

The half-life of the drug is equal to its volume of distribution

d)

The drug levels in the body are in steady state

61.

Which of the following is a characteristic cholesterol?

a)

Cholesterol has hydroxyl group at carbons

b)

Cholesterol is a very hydrophilic compound

c)

Cholesterol has four fused hydrocarbon rings

d)

Cholesterol has three double bonds in its structure

62.

Which of the following best describes the main pharmacological property of cholestyramine?

a)

Decreases excretion of cholesterol

b)

Lowers high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level

c)

Increases low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level

d)

Increase the efficiency of lipoprotein removal

63.

Drugs for dyslipidemia: which causes interaction with multiple chronic disease?

a)

Niacin

b)

Rosuvastatin

c)

Others

64.

Which side effect can be caused by statin therapy?

a)

Fatty liver

b)

New onset diabetes

c)

Gout

d)

Flushing

e)

None of the Above

65.

A 57-year-old man with liver cirrhosis and ascites and a Child-Pugh class score of 88 is having severe pain due to injury. What would be the recommended medication?

a)

Codeine

b)

Morphine

c)

Diclofenac

d)

Acetaminophen

66.

Patient on TPN for 1717 days: all liver enzymes are high except albumin is normal; amylase and lipase are normal. What’s the complication of TPN in this patient?

a)

liver stenosis

b)

liver cirrhosis

c)

pancreatitis

d)

cholestasis

67.

Patient with lab results high GGT, high ALT, and high AST; what disease?

a)

Cirrhosis

b)

Hepatic steatosis

c)

Cholestasis

68.

Simvastatin — best time to take it?

a)

In the morning

b)

At bedtime

c)

With lunch

d)

Before exercise

69.

Which of the following drugs is used for premature ejaculation?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Dapoxetine

c)

Olanzapine

d)

Aripiprazole

70.

Which of the following medication is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia?

a)

Donepezil

b)

Etanercept

c)

Tamsulosin

d)

Carbidopa

71.

Which of the following medications is an anti-androgen?

a)

Danazol

b)

Tamoxifen

c)

Finasteride

d)

Mifepristone

72.

Which of the following marketing mix contains market cover assortments?

a)

Price

b)

Place

c)

Product

d)

Promotion

73.

What is the main purpose of pharmacy marketing jobs?

a)

Create new jobs

b)

Sell cosmetic products

74.

What is the principle of marketing — options are to:

a)

Gain customers

b)

Satisfaction

c)

Increase sales

75.

A pharmacist wants to increase advertisement for his pharmacy; what is the best questionnaire he can do?

a)

Ask the customers

b)

Online questionnaire

76.

Which of the following marketing mix contains market cover assortments?

a)

Product

b)

Place

c)

Price

d)

Promotion

77.

You have a pharmacy and want to sell it; the buyer asks for sales and profits — what do you give?

a)

Sales records

b)

Net profit

c)

Uniforms

78.

Before marketing Phase 4:

a)

III

b)

IV

c)

V

79.

Price of a product was increased from 100 SA Riyals to 105 SA Riyals, resulting in a decline in demand from 120 to 80. Which type of demand does this product follow?

a)

Elastic

b)

Latent

c)

Inelastic

d)

Unaffected

80.

Which enzyme inhibits bacterial cell wall?

a)

Beta-lactamase

b)

Lysozyme

c)

DNA gyrase

d)

RNA polymerase

81.

Which of the following drugs is found under the narcotic classification?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Midazolam

c)

Loprazolam

d)

Pentobarbital

82.

Which of the following statements best describes drug dependence?

a)

Discontinuation of the drug will produce withdrawal symptoms

b)

Action of one drug is dependent on the presence of another drug

c)

Discontinuation of the drug will not produce withdrawal symptoms

d)

Patients progressively require larger doses of a drug to achieve the same effect

83.

How long should the control drug be administered by IV route?

a)

12 h

b)

24 h

c)

48 h

84.

What is required in a narcotic prescription option?

a)

More than one narcotic agent can be included in the same prescription

b)

Single narcotic agent written at the top with red pen

c)

The original copy is given to the patient

85.

Drug causes A constipation or B depression or C withdrawal symptoms — select the combination that matches A/B/C.

a)

Morphine/naloxone/pentazocine

b)

Morphine/naltrexone/methadone

c)

Morphine/naloxone/pentazocine

86.

Drug causes A constipation or B depression or C dependence symptoms — select the combination that matches A/B/C.

a)

Morphine/naltrexone/pentazocine

b)

Morphine/naloxone/methadone

c)

Morphine/naloxone/pentazocine

87.

Which decreases the minimum alveolar concentration for anesthetic drugs?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Ketamine

d)

Nitrous oxide

88.

A patient takes oral morphine 90 mg daily and wants to replace it with a transdermal fentanyl patch. What patch strength should be used?

a)

30 mcg/h

b)

15 mcg/h

c)

25 mcg/h

d)

10 mcg/h

89.

A patient uses morphine 50 mg twice daily and wants to change to a transdermal fentanyl patch. What patch strength should be used?

a)

25 mcg/h

b)

50 mcg/h

c)

100 mcg/h

90.

A 23-year-old drug addict man presents with severe agitation and excitement. He was administered intravenous diazepam with no improvement. Which of the following is the most likely drug he was addicted to?

a)

Opioids

b)

Cocaine

c)

Pregabalin

d)

Cannabinoids

91.

A 10-year-old boy has fever, sore throat, and non-productive cough for 1 day. Which regimen is best for non-productive cough?

a)

Codeine 10 mg four times daily

b)

Guaifenesin 50 mg four times daily

c)

Dextromethorphan 15 mg twice daily

d)

Dextromethorphan 30 mg twice daily

92.

Patient with runny nose needs fast relief of congestion; which option is best?

a)

Pheniramine

b)

Pseudoephedrine

c)

Intranasal cromolyn

d)

Corticosteroid

93.

Which of the following drugs has a high abuse potential?

a)

Nifedipine

b)

Allopurinol

c)

Varenicline

d)

Methylphenidate

94.

How to measure pain in a child?

a)

Numerical Rating Scales (NRS)

b)

Verbal Rating Scales (VRS)

c)

Visual Analog Scales (VAS)

d)

Faces Pain Scale–Revised

95.

Which of the following drugs has both anti-inflammatory and analgesic activity?

a)

Codeine

b)

Pethidine

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Paracetamol

96.

A 4-week infant is diagnosed with patent ductus arteriosus. The doctor wants to avoid performing surgery. Which drug will be administered to avoid surgical closure?

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Indomethacin

c)

Pseudoephedrine

d)

Brompheniramine

97.

Which instruction should be provided to a patient receiving fentanyl transdermal patches?

a)

Apply on an area with a fresh wound

b)

Avoid increase in body core temperature

c)

Store patches in the refrigerator to decrease stinging sensation

d)

Apply heating pads on the transdermal patch to improve absorption

98.

A 60-year-old man with history of myocardial infarction and gout presents with acute flare-associated pain and cannot take colchicine. What is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy recommendation?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Allopurinol

c)

Indomethacin

d)

Acetaminophen

99.

An 88-year-old frail woman with osteoarthritis has difficulty walking and pain and has failed numerous aids. She has no other medical history. Which drug is the best recommendation?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Glucosamine

c)

Celecoxib

d)

Ibuprofen

100.

A 65-year-old woman with osteoarthritis is prescribed naproxen 500 mg twice daily. Which adverse effect is seen with long-term use of naproxen?

a)

Cirrhosis

b)

Renal failure

c)

Hypotension

d)

Irritable bowel syndrome

101.

Which NSAID has the longest duration of action?

a)

Piroxicam

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Naproxen

d)

Diclofenac

102.

A 28-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant has been taking naproxen 500 mg twice daily for 4 weeks to treat severe backache. Which health issue at the time of birth puts the neonate at higher risk?

a)

Asthma

b)

Cardiac arrhythmias

c)

Uncontrolled bleeding

d)

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

103.

Which of the following drugs has both anti-inflammatory and analgesic activity?

a)

Codeine

b)

Pethidine

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Paracetamol

104.

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of anti-inflammatory action of aspirin?

a)

Inhibition of nitric oxide synthesis

b)

Reduction in leukotrienes formation

c)

Increased synthesis of prostaglandins

d)

Decreased synthesis of prostaglandins

105.

Aspirin is dispensed to an infant as antipyretic, which of the following we should ask before dispensing the medication?

a)

weight

b)

Age

c)

Hight

d)

Head circumference

106.

Patient has osteoarthritis in knee?

a)

paracetamol

b)

gabtin

c)

glucosamine

107.

Which of the following antigout medications acts by decreasing serum levels but increasing urine levels of uric acid, thus increasing the risk of kidney stone development?

a)

colchicine

b)

allopurinol

c)

probenecid

d)

rasburicase

e)

pegloticase

108.

What is the ibuprofen and aspirin drug–drug interaction?

a)

Increase Bleeding

b)

Increase Blood Pressure

c)

Decrease Blood Pressure

d)

Increase Risk Of Myopathy

109.

Plant Alkaloid uses in acute gout attack?

a)

Naproxen

b)

Colchicine

c)

Allopurinol

d)

Indomethacin

110.

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors uses in gout?

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Sulindac

c)

Naproxen

d)

Indomethacin

111.

Elderly renal pt?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Sulindac (May Cause kidney Dysfunction In Elderly)

c)

indomethacin

d)

codiane+paracetamol

112.

NSAIDs low git risk?

a)

DICLOPHENAC

b)

Celecoxib

113.

Drug not use in gout patient?

a)

Enalapril

b)

diuretic

114.

Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to asthmatic patients as non-pharmacological management?

a)

Air purifiers will help ease the patients’ symptoms

b)

OB Weight-loss is unlikely to affect their symptoms now

c)

Patients should be trained on breathing exercise programs

d)

OD.increase physical activity

115.

Which of the following counselling points is best to discuss with a patient who is taking levothyroxine?

a)

It can be taken with calcium supplements or dietary foods with no problems

b)

Take it in the morning on an empty stomach, at least 60 mins (before breakfast)

c)

If you miss a dose, make sure to double the next scheduled levothyroxine dose

d)

Take it immediately after the breakfast with a large glass of water to avoid stomach upset

116.

Which of the following is considered intentional non-adherence?

a)

Patient unable to swallow

b)

Confusion

c)

Forgets

d)

Afraid of side effects

117.

Drug used after trial in hospital?

a)

internal validity

b)

external validity

c)

reliability

118.

Which of the following have means that individuals have the capacity to understand basic health information to make appropriate health decisions?

a)

Health literacy

b)

Cultural competency

c)

Communication skills

d)

Professional communication

119.

Which of the following communication techniques is the most appropriate that the message you want to deliver to a patient (or healthcare provider) is received correctly?

a)

Feedback

b)

Direct contact

c)

High voice tone

d)

Non-verbal communication

120.

Which of the following strategies are used with low literacy patients to encourage them to change their behavior?

a)

Keep information focused and organized

b)

Use a normal speaking tone and volume

c)

Use briefer educational sessions

d)

Use more visual aids

121.

Which of the following strategies are used with older adult patients to encourage them to change their behavior?

a)

Use teach-back more often throughout the session

b)

Introduce new concepts more slowly

c)

Use briefer educational sessions

d)

Use more visual aids

122.

Which one of the following question's types is used to identify a certain piece of information?

a)

Leading questions

b)

Open ended questions

c)

Closed ended questions

d)

Process and outcome questions

123.

Which one of the following questioning techniques uses hints and aid patients in answering questions?

a)

Changing questions

b)

Empathic responding

c)

Prompting while asking

d)

Redirection the questions

124.

A 62-year-old man who just had a needle biopsy of pancreas adenocarcinoma. A pharmacist saw his brother in the hall, and him not to tell the patient because the knowledge would be very on his health. A family conference to discuss the prognosis is scheduled for later that afternoon. What is the way for the healthcare practitioner to handle the situation?

a)

The healthcare practitioner should ask the patient how he information in front of the rest of the family, and for some family discussion time for this matter

b)

The healthcare practitioner should honor the request of the member who is protecting his beloved brother from the patient

c)

The healthcare practitioner should tell the patient withholding information is not permitted under any circum

d)

The patient should withhold informing the patient about the 2 pancreatic cancer because of the grave diagnosis

125.

Which of the following communication skills can help patient complete their train of thought?

a)

Closed-ended questions

b)

Facial expression

c)

Use of reminders

d)

Body posture