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Biochem Final Test part 2

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 6hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary force that holds most tertiary structures together are:

a)

Salt Bridges

b)

Hydrophobic forces

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Covalent bonds

2.

The amino acid substitution of Val for Glu in Hemoglobin S results in aggregation of the protein because of ___________ interactions between molecules.

a)

covalent

b)

disulfide

c)

hydrophobic

d)

ionic

3.

Amino Acid Sequence

a)

PRIMARY STRUCTURE

b)

SECONDARY STRUCTURE

c)

TERTIARY STRUCTURE

4.

Alpha Helix and Beta Sheet

a)

PRIMARY STRUCTURE

b)

SECONDARY STRUCTURE

c)

TERTIATY STRUCTURE

5.

Protein Folding

a)

PRIMARY STRUCTURE

b)

SECONDARY STRUCTURE

c)

TERTIARY STRUCTURE

d)

QUATERNARY STRUCTURE

6.

Protein Assembly

a)

PRIMARY STRUCTURE

b)

SECONDARY STRUCTURE

c)

TERTIARY STRUCTURE

d)

QUATERNARY STRUCTURE

7.

Which amino acids are switched in sickle cell disease?

a)

beta 6 Glu becomes a Val

b)

alpha 6 Asp becomes a His

c)

gamma 6 Lys becomes a Ala

d)

delta 6 Ile becomes a Leu

8.

When an enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction it does what change?

a)

decreases the energy of activation

b)

prevents product from going back to substrate

c)

increases the energy of activation

d)

decreases delta G

9.

In sickle cell anemia, why does the HbS (sickle hemoglobin) cause sickling of the cell?

a)

It has additional positive charges on it that push out the edges of the cell.

b)

It has lost negative charges on it causing it to form rod shaped crystals inside the cell.

c)

It has lost positive charges on it causing it to form rod shaped crystals inside the cell.

d)

It has lost both positive and negative charges on it causing it to form rod shaped crystals inside the cell.

10.

How does hemoglobin F compare to hemoglobin A?

a)

It has a higher affinity for oxygen because it binds BPG stronger

b)

has a lower affinity for oxygen because it binds BPG weaker

c)

It has a higher affinity for oxygen because it binds BPG weaker

d)

It has a lower affinity for oxygen because it binds BPG stronger

11.

What happens to oxygen binding to hemoglobin as BPG concentrations increase?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

no change

12.

As the pH drops from pH 7.4 to pH 7.2, what changes for hemoglobin?

a)

oxygen binding increases

b)

no change

c)

oxygen binding decreases

13.

The MHC complex on the outside of the cell membrane binds and displays:

a)

immunoglobulins

b)

B cell fragments

c)

antigen fragments

d)

T cells

14.

Hemoglobin A increases oxygen binding when:

a)

blood becomes more alkaline

b)

blood becomes more acidic

c)

carbon dioxide concentrations increase

d)

carbon monoxide levels increase

15.

If the partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases, the oxygen binding to hemoglobin:

a)

does not change

b)

increases

c)

decreases

16.

Hemoglobin F

a)

has a higher affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin A

b)

is a mutant form of hemoglobin similar to sickle cell

c)

does not bind oxygen

d)

is only found in fish

17.

What is the activation energy

a)

the energy needed to start a reaction

b)

the change in randomness of the products

c)

the heat absorbed by a reaction

d)

the energy released from a reaction

18.

Which of the following amino acids are positively charged?

a)

D

b)

E

c)

K

d)

L

19.

The transition state is:

a)

the shape of the substrate before reaction begins

b)

the shape the substrate molecule midway in its transformation to product

c)

the shape of the enzyme

d)

the shape of the product

20.

Which level of Protein organization is held together only by hydrogen bonding?

a)

PRIMARY

b)

SECONDARY

c)

TERTIARY

d)

QUEATERNARY

21.

As CO concentrations increase, what happens to oxygen binding to hemoglobin?

a)

INCREASES

b)

DECREASES

c)

NO CHANGE

22.

Which of the following amino acids is aromatic?

a)

Q

b)

F

c)

N

d)

K

23.

When hemoglobin is oxygenated, what state does it prefer?

a)

T

b)

R

24.

Which of the following is NOT correct concerning 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG)?

a)

It binds at a distance from the heme groups of hemoglobin.

b)

It binds with lower affinity to fetal hemoglobin than to adult hemoglobin

c)

It increases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen

d)

It is an allosteric modulator

25.

During muscle contraction, hydrolysis of ATP results in a change of the:

a)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

the Z disk

c)

conformation of actin

d)

conformation of myosin

26.

Which of the following types of hemoglobin has the highest affinity for oxygen?

a)

HbS

b)

HbF

c)

HbA1

27.

On the IgG antibody molecule, the binding site that recognizes the antigen is part of which of the following molecular regions. Look at the structure of the antibody to answer this question.

a)

Heavy Chain

b)

Light Chain

c)

Fc

d)

Fab

e)

Variable Domain

28.

What is an apoenzyme?

a)

the metal ion of an enzyme

b)

the polypeptide portion of the enzyme only

c)

the prosthetic group of an enzyme

d)

the active site of an enzyme

29.

Enzymes have what effect on biochemical reactions?

a)

increase the overall delta G of the reaction

b)

increase the rate of product formation

c)

increase the rate equilibrium is achieved

d)

decrease the overall delta G of the reaction

30.

Cellular membranes are self-sealing if they are puctured or disrupted mechanically. They quickly and automatically reseal. What properties of membranes are responsible for this important feature?

a)

the hydrophobic interactions between lipid molecules

b)

the hydrogen bonding between the tails of the lipid molecules

c)

the proteins that are just under the surface of the membrane

31.

Which of the following will form liposomes in water?

a)

sphingolipid

b)

free fatty acid

c)

phosphodiglyceride

32.

D-Tubocurarine

a)

N-type of Acetyl Choline Receptor Inhibitor

b)

Voltage Gated Sodium Channel inhibitor from bacteria

c)

Sodium/Potassium ATPase inhibitor

d)

Voltage Gated Sodium Channel inhibitor from puffer fish

33.

Saxitoxin

a)

Voltage Gated Sodium Channel inhibitor from bacteria

b)

Sodium/Potassium ATPase inhibitor

c)

Voltage Gated Sodium Channel inhibitor from puffer fish

d)

N-type of Acetyl Choline Receptor Agonist

34.

Ouabain

a)

Sodium/Potassium ATPase inhibitor

b)

Voltage Gated Sodium Channel inhibitor from puffer fish

c)

N-type of Acetyl Choline Receptor Agonist

d)

Hydrolysis of membrane lipids

35.

Tetrodotoxin

a)

Voltage Gated Sodium Channel inhibitor from puffer fish

b)

N-type of Acetyl Choline Receptor Agonist

c)

Hydrolysis of membrane lipids

d)

N-type of Acetyl Choline Receptor Inhibitor

36.

Nicotine

a)

N-type of Acetyl Choline Receptor Agonist

b)

Hydrolysis of membrane lipids

c)

N-type of Acetyl Choline Receptor Inhibitor

d)

Voltage Gated Sodium Channel inhibitor from bacteria

37.

phospholipase A2

a)

Hydrolysis of membrane lipids

b)

N-type of Acetyl Choline Receptor Inhibitor

c)

Voltage Gated Sodium Channel inhibitor from bacteria

d)

Sodium/Potassium ATPase inhibitor

38.

As temperature is increased, what happens to the fluidity of a membrane?

a)

decreases

b)

increases

39.

Fatty acids in a basic environment will form which type of structure in water?

a)

bilayer

b)

liposome

c)

micelle

40.

What is the name of the protein that permits water to cross a biological membrane?

a)

aquaporin

b)

ionophore

c)

ATPase

d)

symporter

41.

What type of membrane transport takes place at the Glut4 transporter?

a)

passive

b)

active transport

c)

facilitated

d)

sodium dependent secondary active transport

42.

What type of diffusion is water crossing a membrane

a)

active transport

b)

antiport

c)

symport

d)

facilitated

43.

Ouabain inhibits which protein?

a)

voltage gated calcium channels

b)

voltage gated sodium channels

c)

sodium-potassium ATPase

d)

Acetylcholinesterase

44.

For a transmembrane protein, Where would you expect the highest concentration of non-polar amino acids in the sequence of that protein?

a)

on the portion crossing through the membrane

b)

on the portion exposed to the outside of the cell

c)

on the portion exposed to the inside of the cell

45.

Membrane lipids in tissue samples obtained from different parts of the leg of a reindeer have different fatty aicd compositions. Which of part of the leg would you expect to have the highest amount of unsaturated fatty acids?

a)

near the hoove

b)

knee

c)

upper leg

46.

As temperature is increased, what happens to the fluidity of a membrane?

a)

decreases

b)

increases

47.

A solution contains 0.1M sucrose and 0.1M NaCl. If you were to add intact red blood cells to this solution, what would you expect to happen to the cells?

a)

the cells would swell and burst

b)

the cells would significantly decrease in volume

c)

very little effect

48.

The predominant movement of lipids in a membrane at physiological temperatures are:

a)

moving laterally

b)

flip-flop from one side to the other

c)

they are not moving because they covalently attached to proteins and not able to move

49.

For a transmembrane protein, Where would you expect the highest concentration of non-polar amino acids in the sequence of that protein?

a)

on the portion crossing through the membrane

b)

on the portion exposed to the outside of the cell

c)

on the portion exposed to the inside of the cell

50.

Cellular membranes are self-sealing if they are puctured or disrupted mechanically. They quickly and automatically reseal. What properties of membranes are responsible for this important feature?

a)

the proteins that are just under the surface of the membrane

b)

the hydrophobic interactions between lipid molecules

c)

the hydrogen bonding between the tails of the lipid molecules

51.

Long QT syndrome 3

a)

cardiac voltage gated sodium channels

b)

muscle acetylcholine receptors

c)

chloride channels

52.

myastina gravis

a)

muscle acetylcholine receptors

b)

chloride channels

c)

cardiac voltage gated sodium channels

53.

cystic fibrosis

a)

chloride channels

b)

cardiac voltage gated sodium channels

c)

muscle acetylcholine receptors

54.

Insulin Sensitive

a)

Glut4

b)

Glucose/sodium symporter

c)

Sodium/potassium ATPase

d)

Hydrogen/potassium ATPase

55.

For a transmembrane protein, Where would you expect the highest concentration of non-polar amino acids in the sequence of that protein?

a)

on the portion exposed to the outside of the cell

b)

on the portion crossing through the membrane

c)

on the portion exposed to the inside of the cell

56.

N1 receptors are stimulated by which neurotransmitter?

a)

glutamate

b)

epinephrine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Acetil choline

57.

What event leads to the vesicles in an axon terminal to fuse and release neurotransmitter.

a)

opening of ligand gated sodium channels

b)

opening of voltage gated calcium channels

c)

opening of voltage gated potassium channels

d)

opening of voltage gated sodium channels

58.

Which protein is needed to polarize a cell?

a)

Voltage Gated Sodium Channels

b)

Calcium ATPaase

c)

Voltage Gated Calcium Channels

d)

Sodium/Potassium ATPase

59.

Which protein is needed to polarize a cell?

a)

Voltage Gated Sodium Channels

b)

Calcium ATPase

c)

Voltage Gated Calcium Channels

d)

Sodium/Potassium ATPase

60.

BOTOX does which of the following?

a)

stimulates N2 receptors

b)

prevents release of Acetyl Choline

c)

blocks voltage gated sodium channels

d)

blocks N1 receptors

61.

Second Messenger

a)

molecule created following the binding of the first messenger to its receptor. Ex. cAMP, cGMP, IP3, Ca++

b)

molecule that binds reversibly to a receptor

c)

the fact that only a specific type and shape of molecule is able to fit into a binding site on the receptor

d)

molecule that binds to the active site of an enzyme

62.

Specificity

a)

the fact that only a specific type and shape of molecule

is able to fit into a binding site on the receptor

b)

molecule that binds to the active site of an enzyme

c)

molecule that binds reversibly to a receptor

d)

hormone or neurotransmitter

63.

Substrate

a)

molecule that binds to the active site of an enzyme

b)

molecule that binds reversibly to a receptor

c)

hormone or neurotransmitter

d)

specific cellular effects that result from receptor binding.

64.

Ligand

a)

molecule that binds reversibly to a receptor

b)

hormone or neurotransmitter

c)

specific cellular effects that result from receptor

binding.

d)

usually a protein that a substrate/ligand binds

65.

First Messenger

a)

hormone or neurotransmitter

b)

specific cellular effects that result from receptor

binding.

c)

usually a protein that a substrate/ligand binds to

d)

molecule created following the binding of the first messenger to its receptor. Ex. cAMP, cGMP, IP3, Ca++

66.

Signal Transduction

a)

specific cellular effects that result from receptor binding

b)

usually a protein that a substrate/ligand binds to

c)

molecule created following the binding of the first messenger to its receptor. Ex. cAMP, cGMP, IP3, Ca++

d)

the fact that only a specific type and shape of molecule is able to fit into a binding site on the receptor

67.

Receptor

a)

usually a protein that a substrate/ligand binds to

b)

molecule that binds reversibly to a receptor

c)

specific cellular effects that result from receptor binding.

d)

molecule that binds to the active site of an enzyme

68.

Albuterol, used for asthma can cause an increase in heart rate. Why would this happen?

a)

it increases activity at a muscarinic-1 (m1) receptor

b)

it increases activity at a beta receptor

c)

it increases activity at a nicotinic N1 receptor

d)

it increases activity at a dopamine D1 recptor

69.

In liver, the phosphorylation of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase causes the breakdown of glycogen followed by an increase of blood glucose. In the fasting state, the pancreas releases glucagon which binds to a heptahelical serpentine receptors that activates trimeric G-proteins that have a G-alpha-s subunit. If a patient had a defective PKA, what symptoms would you expect?

a)

type I diabetes

b)

hyperglycemia after a meal

c)

elevated C-peptide

d)

fasting hypoglycemia

70.

If a genetic mutation prevented cAMP from binding to the R-subunit of PKA, but the other functions of this protein were normal, what effect would this have on the phosphorylation of PKA's targets?

a)

increase of phosphorylation

b)

decrease of phosphorylation

c)

no change

71.

The drug Albuterol is what type of drug?

a)

alpha-1 antagonist (alpha-1 - blocker)

b)

alpha-2 agonist

c)

beta-agonist

d)

beta-antagonist (beta-blocker)

72.

Nuclear receptors

a)

usually bind membrane soluble hormones

b)

usually bind water soluble hormones

73.

Cytoplasmic receptors

a)

usually bind membrane soluble hormones

b)

usually bind water soluble hormones

74.

Membrane receptors

a)

usually bind water soluble hormones

b)

usually bind membrane soluble hormones

75.

Paracrine Signaling

a)

neurotransmitter binding adjacent cell

b)

hormone binding at a distance site

c)

usually feedback inhibition

76.

Endocrine Signaling

a)

hormone binding at a distance site

b)

usually feedback inhibition

c)

neurotransmitter binding adjacent cell

77.

Autocrine Signaling

a)

usually feedback inhibition

b)

neurotransmitter binding adjacent cell

c)

hormone binding at a distance site

78.

When Acetyl Choline binds to its ionotropic receptor, which of the following happens.

a)

creation of cAMP

b)

creation of PIP3

c)

influx of sodium ions

d)

outflow of potassium ions

79.

The disease Myasthenia Gravis is caused by:

a)

autoimmune attack on N1 receptors

b)

failure to synthesize glycine

c)

autoimmune attack on acetylcholine

d)

failure to open potassium channels

80.

When the sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine on beta receptors, which of the following is a down stream event?

a)

increase in PKB activity

b)

increase in IP3 concentrations

c)

decrease in cAMP concentrations

d)

increase in PKA activity

81.

PKA is able to:

a)

hydrolyse sucrose

b)

phosphorylate target proteins in the nucleus

c)

hydrolyse GTP

d)

phosphorylate target proteins in the cytoplasm

82.

PKA adds phosphates to which of the following?

a)

valine

b)

serine

c)

threonine

d)

glycine

83.

What are the 2 most common features of steroid hormones?

a)

Bind cytoplasmic receptors

b)

Bind membrane receptor

c)

Induce gene expression

d)

Induce the creation of cAMP

84.

The effect of caffeine on the PKA system is that it:

a)

hydrolyses GTP

b)

blocks the activation of the trimeric G-protein

c)

block the degradation of cAMP

d)

blocks the synthesis of cAMP

85.

If a genetic mutation prevented cAMP from binding to the R-subunit of PKA, but the other functions of this protein were normal, what effect would this have on the phosphorylation of PKA's targets?

a)

no change

b)

increase of phosphorylation

c)

decrease of phosphorylation

86.

What is the effect of cholera toxin on cAMP production in intestinal cells?

a)

no change

b)

decrease

c)

increase

87.

Which of the following hormones binds to an insulin-like receptor?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Glutamate

c)

GABA

d)

Nerve Growth Factor

88.

What enzyme limits the life of cAMP?

a)

GDP

b)

GTP

c)

PKA

d)

cAMP phosphodiesterase

89.

Which is true of JAK-STAT receptors when compared to insulin receptors?

a)

both do autophosphorylation

b)

both activate cAMP

c)

Both dimerize on activation

d)

both phosphorylate tyrosines

90.

Nicotine has which of the following effects?

a)

Stimulates N1 receptors

b)

Stimulates M1 receptors

c)

Stimulates N2 receptors

d)

Stimulates D2 receptors

91.

What is the effect of cholera toxin on the GTP bound to the G-alpha-s protein?

a)

Causes the release of GTP

b)

Prevents the hydrolysis of GTP to GDP

c)

Causes the hydrolysis to GTP to GDP

d)

Causes the GTP to become cGMP

92.

The insulin receptor is what class of receptor?

a)

tyrosine kinase

b)

heptahelical serpentine

c)

cytoplasmic

d)

nuclear

93.

Which of the following are associated with increased PKB concentrations?

a)

release of glucose from the liver

b)

increased glycogen synthesis in liver and muscle

c)

increased phosphorylation of many proteins

d)

upregulation of Glut4 transporters in fat and muscle cells

94.

Which second messenger is associated with insulin?

a)

DAG

b)

cGMP

c)

IP3

d)

PIP3

95.

Which of the following receptors signal for increased PKC activity?

a)

5HT2

b)

m1

c)

mGluR1

d)

m2

96.

Which of the following is toxic because it is known to activate PKC

a)

BOTOX

b)

phorbol ester

c)

nicotine

d)

tetrodotoxin

97.

guanylate cyclase is activated by:

a)

NO

b)

GABA

c)

HIstamine

d)

Serotonin

98.

The hormone leptin binds to which type of receptor?

a)

Jak-Stat

b)

Heptahelical

c)

Cytoplasmic

d)

Nuclear

99.

When Acetyl Choline binds to its ionotropic receptor, which of the following happens.

a)

creation of cAMP

b)

outflow of potassium ions

c)

influx of sodium ions

d)

creation of PIP3

100.

What type of G-protein is found within the Insulin cascade?

a)

ras

b)

G-alpha-i

c)

G-alpha-q

d)

G-alpha-s

101.

Which of the following are associated with increased PKB concentrations?

a)

increased glycogen synthesis in liver and muscle

b)

increased phosphorylation of many proteins

c)

upregulation of Glut4 transporters in fat and muscle cells

d)

All of the above

102.

IP3 does which of the following?

a)

Activates PLC

b)

Activates PKB

c)

opens calcium channels on ER

d)

Activates PKa

103.

Which second messengers directly activate PKC?

a)

cAMP

b)

CA++

c)

IP3

d)

DAG

104.

DNA with this type of sequence is called?

ATCGGCTA

TAGCCGAT

a)

palindrome

b)

mirror repeat

105.

Which of the following toxins are known to cause deaminations of nucleic acid bases?

a)

nitrosamine

b)

nitrites

c)

nitrates

d)

UV-ligths

106.

The direction of synthesis in RNA is in which direction?

a)

3'-->5'

b)

5'-->3'

107.

How does DNA differ from RNA?

a)

the ribose on DNA is missing an oxygen at position 2'

b)

DNA has T's, RNA has U's

108.

A hairpin loop in an RNA molecule can form where there is what type of structure?

a)

mirror repeat

b)

palindrome

109.

The direction of synthesis in DNA is in which direction?

a)

5'-->3'

b)

3'-->5'

110.

The fundamental repeating unit of organization in a eukaryotic chromosome is:

a)

the lysosome

b)

the nucleosome

c)

the centrosome

d)

the microsome

111.

A patient goes to exposes herself to UV radiation every week at a tanning salon. What type of mutations are most prominent after this exposure?

a)

thymine dimers

b)

alkylations

c)

deaminations

d)

depurinations

112.

The chromosomal region that is the point of attachment of the mitotic spindle is the:

a)

intron

b)

centromere

c)

telomere

d)

exon

113.

UV light is known to create which of the following?

a)

apurinic residues

b)

deamination of adenosine

c)

methylation of uricil

d)

thymine dimers

114.

Nitrosamines are known to cause the deamination of C into which base?

a)

T

b)

A

c)

G

d)

U

115.

Chargaff's rules state that in typical DNA

a)

A = G

b)

A + G = T + C

c)

A + T = G + C

d)

A = U

116.

Palindromic sequences in double stranded DNA can form what type of structures?

a)

cruciform

b)

an A-helix

117.

DNA supercoiling

a)

is induced by strand separation

b)

by changing U's to T's

c)

results in compaction of the DNA structure

d)

is induced by underwinding of the double helix

118.

The sequence (5')GCGCAATATTTCTCAAAATATTGCGC(3') is what type of sequence?

a)

mirror repeat

b)

a mutation

c)

An RNA strand

d)

palindrome

119.

DNA consists of nucleic acids and basic proteins. Which of these two classes of molecules carries the genetic code? (Don't you dare miss this one!!!!)

a)

basic proteins

b)

nucleic acids

120.

In the typical base pairing pattern. "A" usually pairs with which other base in DNA.

a)

C

b)

U

c)

G

d)

T

121.

DNA with this type of sequence is called?

ATCGGCTA

TAGCCGAT

a)

palindrome

b)

mirror repeat

122.

A major component of RNA but not of DNA is:

a)

thymine

b)

uracil

c)

adenine

d)

guanine

123.

The DNA in a bacterial (prokaryotic) chromosome is best described as

a)

a single linear double-helical molecule

b)

a single circular double-helical molecule

c)

multiple linear single-stranded molecules

d)

multiple linear double-helical molecules

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