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Final Exam (DNA)

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Griffith’s transformation experiment data supported the idea that the DNA transferred led to what result?

a)

The formation of the double helix structure

b)

A pathogenic strain of bacteria

c)

Dideoxy chain termination

d)

The concept of semiconservative replication.

2.

Prior to the Watson-Crick discoveries, Chargaff developed rules indicating that DNA was comprised of how many different molecules/monomers?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

4

d)

3

3.

Chargaff discovered that two specific DNA monomers were always present in equal amounts, leading to the conclusion that the monomers must be doing what?

a)

Forming enzymatic activity

b)

Carrying negative charges

c)

Forming pairs

d)

Being replaced by Uracil.

4.

Which component of a DNA monomer carries a negative charge and is located in the DNA backbone?

a)

Deoxyribose sugar

b)

The base molecule

c)

Purine

d)

Phosphate group

5.

Which sugar forms part of the backbone of a DNA molecule?

a)

Ribose sugar

b)

Glucose sugar

c)

Deoxyribose sugar

d)

Fructose sugar

6.

Which group of DNA bases contains a single ring structure?

a)

Purines (Guanine and Adenine)

b)

Pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine)

c)

Purines (Cytosine and Thymine)

d)

All four bases

7.

Which type of base contains a double ring structure?

a)

Pyrimidines

b)

Purines

c)

Deoxyriboses

d)

Phosphates

8.

A purine will always pair with a pyrimidine in the double helix. What does this pairing rule maintain?

a)

An equal distance between either strand of DNA

b)

The strength of the hydrogen bonds

c)

The negative charge of the backbone

d)

The directionality of the strands

9.

In RNA, which DNA base is replaced by Uracil (U)?

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Adenine

d)

Thymine

10.

RNA is typically found as what kind of structure?

a)

A single stranded molecule

b)

Triple helix

c)

Double-stranded molecule

d)

Circular molecule

11.

The invention of which technology was essential in finally providing the ability to view DNA and understand its structure?

a)

Electron microscopy

b)

Dideoxy chain termination

c)

X-ray crystallography

d)

Gel electrophoresis

12.

Which scientists were granted the Nobel Peace Prize for their discovery and description of the structure of DNA?

a)

Chargaff and Griffith

b)

James Watson, Francis Crick and Maurice Wilkins

c)

Mendel and Sanger

d)

Kunkel and Rosalind

13.

The Sanger method of DNA sequencing relies on which mechanism?

a)

Harnessing the power of diffusion

b)

Dideoxy chain termination

c)

Separating fragments based on charge

d)

Using UV light to visualize dyes

14.

Gel electrophoresis separates fragments of DNA or RNA based on what primary physical characteristic?

a)

Charge density

b)

Nucleotide sequence

c)

Size

d)

Amount of negative charge

15.

What is frequently included in gel electrophoresis as a reference point?

a)

A sample loaded with dye only

b)

A “ladder” of a sample containing fragments of known sizes

c)

The primer sequence

d)

A sample that is negatively charged

16.

ukaryotic cells house their linear chromosomes within which membrane-bound structure?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleoid

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Telomere

17.

Prokaryotic cells have a singular circular chromosome found within the cytoplasm in an area known as the:

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleoid

c)

Telomere

d)

Euchromatin

18.

How does the circular chromosome in prokaryotic cells achieve greater compaction to form the visible nucleoid?

a)

It associates with histone proteins.

b)

It remains linear

c)

It super-coils around itself

d)

It is cleaved into linear fragments

19.

What allows the large DNA molecule in eukaryotes to remain dynamic, despite exhibiting multiple levels of organization?

a)

The continuous presence of telomerase

b)

DNA organizational structures must be able to change for transcription

c)

The singular origin of replication

d)

The presence of a nucleoid

20.

Which type of chromatin represents areas of genes that are actively transcribed?

a)

Heterochromatin

b)

Histochromatin

c)

Euchromatin

d)

Centromeric chromatin

21.

Where is heterochromatin typically located on eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

In the regions that are actively transcribed

b)

In the nucleus but outside the nucleolus

c)

Near the centromere and telomeres

d)

In the cytoplasm

22.

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur?

a)

G1 phase

b)

G2 phase

c)

M phase

d)

S phase

23.

Which base pairs with Guanine in the DNA double helix?

a)

Thymine

b)

Adenine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Uracil

24.

The complimentary pairing of DNA strands led to the discovery that either strand could serve as what?

a)

A promoter

b)

A centromere

c)

A template for replication

d)

An enzyme

25.

DNA replication is described as semiconservative because of which process?

a)

Both parental strands remain joined after replication

b)

One of each parental strand is used as a template for a new “daughter strand.”

c)

It conserves energy during synthesis

d)

It only happens once in the cell cycle

26.

Using one original parental strand as a template during replication results in what benefit?

a)

Faster replication rate

b)

Additional quality control for higher fidelity

c)

Shorter DNA molecules

d)

Circular chromosome structure

27.

What is the location where the DNA replication process will start?

a)

Nucleoid

b)

Telomere

c)

Origin of replication (ORI)

d)

Centromere

28.

What is the primary function of the enzyme Topoisomerase during DNA replication?

a)

To prevent overwinding of DNA

b)

To synthesize the RNA primer

c)

To add new nucleotides in the 5'—3' direction.

d)

To remove the RNA primer

29.

Which enzyme helps to open up the DNA helix during replication by breaking the hydrogen bonds?

a)

Primase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

Helicase

d)

DNA Ligase

30.

Primase synthesizes the RNA primer, which is necessary for what subsequent event?

a)

For Helicase to unwind the DNA

b)

For DNA Ligase to seal gaps

c)

For Topoisomerase to function

d)

For DNA pol to start synthesis of a new DNA strand

31.

Which enzyme is the main one that synthesizes DNA by adding nucleotides in the 5’—3’ direction?

a)

DNA Pol I

b)

Primase

c)

DNA Pol II

d)

DNA Ligase

32.

Nucleoside triphosphates (NTPs) serve as nucleotide monomers and also contain what essential component for the synthesis reaction?

a)

Template strand

b)

The energy

c)

High fidelity enzymes

d)

The RNA primer

33.

Which enzyme is responsible for removing the RNA primer and replacing it with DNA (exonuclease activity)?

a)

DNA Pol II

b)

Helicase

c)

DNA Pol I

d)

Primase

34.

The lagging strand is replicated in pieces known as:

a)

Telomeres

b)

Okazaki fragments

c)

Primer sequences

d)

Origin of replication

35.

Which enzyme joins the fragments on the lagging strand together to form a continuous strand?

a)

Helicase

b)

. DNA Pol II

c)

DNA Pol I

d)

DNA ligase

36.

Compared to prokaryotes, how many origins of replication (ORIs) do eukaryotic chromosomes typically have?

a)

Single

b)

Two

c)

Multiple

d)

None

37.

What is the approximate rate of replication in prokaryotes?

a)

50-100 nucleotides/second

b)

1000 nucleotides/second

c)

500 nucleotides/second

d)

10 nucleotides/second

38.

What structural difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic chromosomes means prokaryotes require fewer enzymes for DNA replication?

a)

Prokaryotic DNA is linear

b)

Prokaryotes lack telomerase

c)

Prokaryotic chromosomes are circular

d)

Eukaryotes have multiple ORIs

39.

What is the noncoding, repeating region at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes that prevents the loss of vital genes?

a)

Centromeres

b)

Nucleosomes

c)

ORIs

d)

Telomeres

40.

Which enzyme adds repeated regions to the end of chromosomes, extending the template strand?

a)

DNA Pol II

b)

Primase

c)

DNA Pol I

d)

Telomerase

41.

How does DNA Pol I contribute to high fidelity during replication?

a)

It seals the gaps between fragments

b)

It has proof-reading capabilities

c)

It adds the RNA primer

d)

It prevents overwinding

42.

When mismatches occur during DNA replication, what immediate physical effect is seen on the newly formed double helix?

a)

It distorts the newly formed double helix

b)

It is cleaved by Helicase

c)

It automatically causes a frameshift

d)

It triggers the action of Telomerase

43.

What repair mechanism is particularly important for fixing UV-induced Thymine dimers?

a)

Mismatch repair

b)

Semiconservative replication

c)

Nucleotide excision repair

d)

Proof-reading activity of DNA Pol I

44.

Nucleotide excision repair is necessary to fix damage to DNA occurring at what time?

a)

Only during S phase

b)

At times other than replication

c)

Only in prokaryotes

d)

Only in the leading strand

45.

A genetic mutation defined by a single nucleotide change is known as a:

a)

Frameshift mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Deletion mutation

d)

Point mutation

46.

What is the result of a missense mutation?

a)

The subsequent amino acid remains the same

b)

Change in nucleotide results in changing the subsequent amino acid

c)

Termination of translation prematurely

d)

Altering all subsequent codons

47.

A nonsense mutation is defined by what outcome?

a)

Change in nucleotide results in changing the subsequent amino acid

b)

Termination of translation prematurely

c)

Change in nucleotide does not result in changing the subsequent amino acid

d)

Altering all subsequent codons

48.

Which category of mutation results in altering all subsequent codons in the sequence?

a)

Missense mutation

b)

Nonsense mutation

c)

Point mutation

d)

Frameshift mutations

49.

What type of frameshift mutation involves adding one or more nucleotides, altering all following codons?

a)

Deletion

b)

Insertion

c)

Missense

d)

Point

50.

In gel electrophoresis, what is used along with UV light to visualize the separated DNA or RNA samples?

a)

Electricity

b)

Buffer solutions

c)

Dyes

d)

Dideoxy chain terminators

51.

Human nature discusses gene drives as potential application of CRISPR. What is a gene drive used for?

a)

Increasing DNA replication efficiency

b)

Spreading a genetic trait rapidly through a population

c)

Preventing gene expression

d)

Reversing cellular aging

52.

One major ethical concern raised in the film involves the creation of what?

a)

Artificial Organs

b)

Human cloning centers

c)

Designer babies

d)

Automated laboratories

53.

The documentary suggests that CRISPR could potentially eliminate which type of disease?

a)

Infectious disease only

b)

Genetically inherited disorders

c)

Age-related diseases exclusively

d)

Psychological Illnesses

54.

What is CRISPR, and how does the documentary explain its discovery and development for a general audience?

a)

A type of cancer therapy discovered by accident during surgery

b)

A gene-editing tool based on a bacterial immune system that scientists adapted for precise DNA editing

c)

A method of cloning mammals using embryonic stem cells

d)

A form of artificial intelligence used for predicting genetic diseases

55.

How does Human Nature portray the potential medical benefits of CRISPR, such as treating genetic diseases like sickle-cell anemia?

a)

It shows CRISPR could potentially cure inherited disorders by correcting mutations

b)

It argues CRISPR is too risky for all medical use

c)

It claims CRISPR will replace all medications within ten years

d)

It states CRISPR can only be used on plants, not humans

56.

What ethical dilemmas arise from the possibility of editing the human germline?

a)

Whether CRISPR should be used on animals

b)

Whether CRISPR should replace vaccines

c)

If CRISPR will make humans stronger athletes

d)

Concerns about permanent changes passed to future generations and who gets to decide these changes

57.

How do the film’s interviewees differ in their viewpoints on germline editing?

a)

All scientists agree it should be used immediately

b)

Some support cautious exploration while others warn against irreversible societal consequences

c)

Everyone interviewed strongly opposes germline editing

d)

Only non-scientists support germline editing

58.

How does the documentary address “designer babies,” and what questions does it raise about human enhancement versus therapy?

a)

It questions whether CRISPR should be used only to treat disease or also to enhance traits like intelligence or appearance

b)

It claims designer babies are already common

c)

It shows designer babies being safely created in a U.S. lab

d)

It states enhancements are safer than therapies

59.

In what ways does the film highlight the social implications of unequal access to CRISPR-based technologies?

a)

It argues all genetic technologies will be free in the future

b)

It claims CRISPR will eliminate all inequality

c)

It shows only wealthy nations rejecting CRISPR

d)

It warns that unequal access could widen socioeconomic gaps and create genetic inequality

60.

How do scientists in the documentary balance enthusiasm for CRISPR’s potential with caution about unintended consequences?

a)

By acknowledging its promise while stressing unknown risks, especially off-target effects and long-term impacts

b)

By recommending CRISPR be used without further testing

c)

By claiming unintended consequences are impossible

d)

By replacing all existing gene therapies with CRISPR immediately

61.

What real-world case studies (such as He Jiankui’s edited embryos) are discussed, and how are they used to illustrate the need for regulation?

a)

They show successful unregulated CRISPR use that should be expanded

b)

They show governments encouraging CRISPR baby research

c)

They demonstrate why all genetic research should stop

d)

They highlight the dangers of unsupervised human germline editing and the global disagreement about ethical guidelines

62.

What predictions do the documentary’s experts make about the future of CRISPR?

a)

CRISPR will have no medical applications

b)

CRISPR will instantly solve global hunger

c)

CRISPR has enormous potential but its future depends on ethical, social, and regulatory decisions

d)

CRISPR will be banned worldwide

63.

After watching the documentary, what responsibilities do scientists, governments, and society have in deciding how CRISPR should be used?

a)

All groups must participate in creating transparent, ethical guidelines for safe and fair use

b)

No oversight is needed

c)

Only private companies should control CRISPR

d)

Only scientists should make decisions

64.

According to Human Nature, what inspired the scientific breakthrough that led to CRISPR gene editing?

a)

A discovery made while studying volcanic rocks

b)

Research on how bacteria defend themselves from viral infection

c)

An attempt to clone extinct animals

d)

A failed experiment with gene therapy in mice

65.

In the documentary, what does the young sickle-cell patient’s story illustrate?

a)

The human motivation behind developing gene-editing therapies

b)

The limitations of CRISPR in treating blood diseases

c)

That CRISPR is not useful for inherited diseases

d)

That gene editing is mainly cosmetic

66.

What concern is raised about altering traits like intelligence or behavior using CRISPR?

a)

These traits are simple and controlled by a single gene

b)

Editing intelligence has no ethical implications

c)

CRISPR has already perfected enhancement methods

d)

Complex traits involve many genes and environmental factors, making editing unpredictable

67.

How does the film describe the difference between somatic and germline editing?

a)

Somatic editing affects only the treated person; germline editing affects future generations

b)

Germline editing is temporary while somatic editing is permanent

c)

Somatic editing is illegal everywhere

d)

Germline editing treats only cancer

68.

What global challenge does the film suggest must be addressed before CRISPR is widely used?

a)

Reducing lab costs

b)

Teaching CRISPR to non-scientists

c)

Developing universal international regulations and ethical standards

d)

Building more DNA sequencing machines

69.

What does the Central Dogma describe?

a)

How DNA is translated directly into protein

b)

How RNA makes DNA

c)

The flow of information from DNA → RNA → protein

d)

How proteins replicate themselves

70.

The genetic code is described as “universal and degenerate.” What does “degenerate” refer to?

a)

Codons decay over time

b)

Several codons can code for the same amino acid

c)

Codons are unstable during transcription

d)

Some codons produce no amino acids

71.

What is the start codon in most mRNA sequences?

a)

UAA

b)

UGA

c)

AUG

d)

CAG

72.

Which of the following is a nonsense (stop) codon?

a)

UUC

b)

AUG

c)

GUG

d)

UAA

73.

What is the role of a promoter in transcription?

a)

It is the DNA sequence where RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription

b)

It binds ribosomes to start translation

c)

It cuts introns out of the mRNA

d)

It attaches amino acids to tRNAs

74.

Prokaryotic promoters are characterized by what feature?

a)

A G-C rich region at +50bp

b)

A-T rich regions at −10 and −35 bp upstream

c)

A TATA box at −80bp

d)

A poly-A tail at the beginning of the gene

75.

What is the transcription bubble?

a)

The region of ribosome assembly

b)

A pocket of RNA polymerase active sites

c)

Locally unwound DNA where transcription occurs

d)

A protective cap placed on mRNA

76.

Which termination mechanism in prokaryotes depends on a hairpin loop?

a)

Rho-dependent termination

b)

Rho-independent termination

c)

Sigma factor termination

d)

Ribosomal termination

77.

Why can prokaryotes produce proteins rapidly?

a)

They translate mRNA before transcription is finished

b)

They have multiple nuclei

c)

Their ribosomes do not require tRNAs

d)

Their mRNA has no codons

78.

What is the function of RNA polymerase II in eukaryotes?

a)

It transcribes tRNA only

b)

It adds amino acids to tRNAs

c)

It assembles ribosomal proteins

d)

It transcribes mRNA

79.

What does the TATA box do in eukaryotic promoters?

a)

Signals where ribosomes attach

b)

Provides a binding site for tRNAs

c)

Terminates transcription

d)

Helps establish the transcription initiation site

80.

Which promoter element is essential for binding transcription factors in eukaryotes?

a)

Octamer box

b)

CAAT box

c)

Poly-A tail

d)

Shine-Dalgarno sequence

81.

What is the role of the FACT complex?

a)

Splices introns out of mRNA

b)

Helps ribosomes locate the start codon

c)

Disassembles and reassembles nucleosomes during transcription

d)

Exports RNA through nuclear pores

82.

What modification is added to the 5’ end of eukaryotic mRNA?

a)

Poly-A tail

b)

Introns

c)

7-methylguanosine cap

d)

TATA signal

83.

What are introns?

a)

Intervening sequences removed before export

b)

Coding regions of mRNA

c)

Untranslated regions at the 5' end

d)

RNA that forms ribosomes

84.

What are tRNAs used for?

a)

Translating mRNA codons into amino acids

b)

Editing DNA sequences

c)

Stabilizing the nuclear membrane

d)

Transporting ribosomes

85.

What is the function of aminoacyl tRNA synthetases?

a)

Remove introns from mRNA

b)

Charge tRNAs with the correct amino acids

c)

Synthesize rRNA

d)

Form peptide bonds in the ribosome

86.

Which ribosomal site holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain?

a)

A-site

b)

C-site

c)

E-site

d)

P-site

87.

What provides the energy for shifting the mRNA through the ribosome?

a)

ATP

b)

GTP

c)

NADH

d)

FADH₂

88.

What happens during translation termination?

a)

RNA polymerase stops copying DNA

b)

Exons are removed

c)

The ribosome begins reading a new mRNA

d)

A release factor detaches the polypeptide from the ribosome

89.

What do chaperone proteins do?

a)

Build ribosomes

b)

Fold newly formed polypeptides

c)

Transport mRNA out of the nucleus

d)

Insert introns into RNA

90.

What is the purpose of a signal sequence in a protein?

a)

Directs the protein to the correct cellular location

b)

Begins transcription

c)

Prevents tRNA binding

d)

Removes introns

91.

What do ribosomes read during protein synthesis?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

92.

Why must DNA be transcribed into mRNA?

a)

mRNA is more stable than DNA

b)

DNA cannot enter the nucleus

c)

Transcription replaces translation

d)

Ribosomes can only read RNA

93.

Which enzyme performs transcription in prokaryotes?

a)

RNA polymerase III

b)

Helicase

c)

RNA polymerase with 5 subunits

d)

DNA polymerase

94.

What is Rho in transcription?

a)

A protein that initiates translation

b)

A protein that attaches amino acids to tRNA

c)

A protein that terminates transcription by interacting with RNA polymerase

d)

A ribosomal subunit

95.

What structure forms during Rho-independent termination?

a)

A tRNA-amino acid bond

b)

A stem-loop (hairpin) in mRNA

c)

A peptide bond

d)

A ribosomal cap

96.

What is a polyribosome?

a)

Multiple RNA polymerases working on one gene

b)

A ribosome inside the nucleus

c)

Many ribosomes translating the same mRNA at once

d)

A mutated ribosome

97.

How many RNA polymerases do eukaryotes use?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

98.

Which eukaryotic RNA polymerase makes rRNA?

a)

RNA pol I

b)

RNA pol II

c)

RNA pol III

d)

RNA pol IV

99.

Which promoter element may appear multiple times to increase transcription efficiency?

a)

TATA box

b)

CAAT box

c)

Sigma factor

d)

Octamer box

100.

Basal transcription factors in eukaryotes begin with which letters?

a)

RNA

b)

TATA

c)

TFII

d)

Rho-I

101.

What does RNA pol II produce?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

DNA

102.

What is the purpose of the 5′ cap?

a)

To splice introns

b)

To help ribosomes recognize mRNA

c)

To add amino acids

d)

To initiate DNA replication

103.

What does the poly-A tail do?

a)

Initiates transcription

b)

Regulates translation initiation

c)

Protects mRNA and serves as an export tag

d)

Forms peptide bonds

104.

Where are tRNAs and rRNAs processed?

a)

Nucleolus

b)

Cytosol

c)


Rough ER

d)

Golgi apparatus

105.

What is an anticodon?

a)

Three nucleotides in mRNA

b)

A DNA binding site

c)

Three amino acids in a protein

d)

A three-nucleotide sequence on tRNA

106.

What is required for tRNA to be “charged”?

a)

Introns

b)

Poly-A binding proteins

c)

Ribosomal subunits

d)

Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

107.

Which ribosomal site receives the incoming aminoacyl tRNA?

a)

P-site

b)

A-site

c)

E-site

d)

Z-site

108.

Which direction is mRNA shifted through the ribosome?

a)

3′ → 5′

b)

5′ → 3′

c)

Randomly

d)

Depends on the codon

109.

Which molecule provides energy for translation elongation?

a)

GTP

b)

ATP

c)

NAD+

d)

FAD

110.

What event marks translation initiation?

a)

The first intron is removed

b)

mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit

c)

RNA polymerase binds the promoter

d)

A release factor enters the ribosome

111.

Which factor ends translation?

a)

Sigma factor

b)

Rho protein

c)

A release factor

d)

RNA polymerase

112.

What are exons?

a)

Noncoding sequences that are removed

b)

Coding sequences that remain in mRNA

c)

Regions added during transcription

d)

rRNA components

113.

What is the biological role of tRNA?

a)

Copy DNA into RNA

b)

Connect amino acids to ribosomes

c)

Cap the mRNA

d)

Translate codons into amino acids

114.

What is the purpose of mRNA splicing?

a)

Remove introns and join exons

b)

Assemble ribosomes

c)

Add codons to the sequence

d)

Charge tRNAs

115.

Which sequence helps direct a protein to its correct location?

a)

CAAT box

b)

Signal sequence

c)

Anticodon

d)

Hairpin loop

116.

What do chaperone proteins assist with?

a)

Protein folding

b)

DNA replication

c)

rRNA synthesis

d)

Introns removal

117.

What part of the translation complex initially binds mRNA?

a)

Large ribosomal subunit

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Small ribosomal subunit

d)

Release factor

118.

What is the genetic code organized into?

a)

Groups of three nucleotides called codons

b)

Regions called promoters

c)

Pairs of introns

d)

Segments called operons