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Worksheets2nd Sem Review Protein Synthesis, Mitosis/Meiosis, Genetics and Evolution
Total questions: 113
Worksheet time: 2hrs 20mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the function of mRNA?
a)
provide energy for the duplication of cells
b)
stores food material for keeping cells alive
c)
preventing mutations
d)
carrying the gentic message
2.
What part of protein synthesis does this diagram represent?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
RNA
3.
A linear code of three sequential bases on one side of a DNA molecule is a --
a)
codon
b)
gene
c)
amino acid
d)
base pair
4.
Which best describes how the traits of an organism are determined by the DNA in their cells?
a)
DNA provides the energy need for cellular processes
b)
DNA is copied to mRNA, which controls cellular functions
c)
DNA codes for proteins which allow an organism to grow and function
d)
DNA unzips and each strand codes for a different amino acid
5.
Any change in the sequence of DNA nucleotides or chromosomes is called a
a)
mutation
b)
single genotype
c)
monohybrid trait
d)
transgenic shift
6.
What is the structure labeled with an X?
a)
amino acid
b)
anticodon
c)
codon
d)
polypeptide
7.
Cell mutations within a DNA sequence are
a)
unnatural events that are harmful to genetic diversity
b)
unnatural events that always affect the phenotype
c)
natural events that produce genetic diversity
d)
natural events that always affect the phenotype
8.
Which describes a role that ribosomes assume in the production of proteins?
a)
transports nutrients into and out of the cell
b)
produces ATP for the cell to use
c)
translates mRNA into specific amino acid chain
d)
rids the cell of leftover amino acids once proteins have been synthesized
9.
What is the purpose of this process?
a)
to create polypeptides and, eventually proteins for gene expression
b)
to copy original DNA strands into complimentary strands
c)
to generate and release ATP
d)
to regulate the internal environment of the cell
10.
The human karyotype shown above experienced a nondisjunction during meiosis. The person with the karyotype above is a --
a)
klinefelter's syndrome male with an extra X chromosome
b)
turner's syndrome female with a single X chromosome
c)
down syndrome female with a missing chromosome
d)
down syndrome male with an extra chromosome
11.
Transcribe the following DNA strand into mRNA - 3' CGT 5'
a)
GCA
b)
GCU
c)
CGA
d)
CGU
12.
In eukaryotes, DNA never leaves the nucleus of the cell. Therefore, the genetic information is carried from the nucleus to the protein producing mechanisms by --
a)
amino acids
b)
RNA
c)
glucose
d)
phospahtes
13.
Which amino acid would be synthesized given the DNA sequence GTA?
a)
Histidine
b)
Valine
c)
Threonine
d)
Methionine
14.
Which amino acid would be synthesized given the DNA sequence CAC?
a)
Valine
b)
Histidine
c)
Lysine
d)
Aspartate
15.
Which process?
a)
mutation
b)
transcription
c)
respiration
d)
translation
16.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
17.
DNA sequence is ACAGTGC. How would this be coded on mRNA?
a)
TGTCACG
b)
UGUCACG
c)
GUGACAU
d)
CACUGUA
18.
The genetic material of an organism is composed of
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
deoxyribonucleic acids
d)
complex carbohydrates
19.
which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
20.
type of reproduction of meiosis
a)
sexual
b)
asexual
21.
type of reproduction of mitosis
a)
sexual
b)
asexual
22.
products of meiosis are genetically
a)
different
b)
identical
23.
crossing over in mitosis
a)
yes
b)
no
24.
crossing over in meiosis
a)
yes
b)
no
25.
function of mitosis
a)
genetic diversity though sexual reproduction
b)
cell reproduction and general growth and repair
26.
function of meiosis
a)
genetic diversity though sexual reproduction
b)
cell reproduction and general growth and repair
27.
number of divisions in mitosis
a)
1
b)
2
28.
number of divisions in meiosis
a)
1
b)
2
29.
number of daughter cells produced in mitosis
a)
2 diploid cells
b)
4 diploid cells
c)
2 haploid cells
d)
4 haploid cells
30.
number of daughter cells produced in meiosis
a)
2 diploid cells
b)
4 diploid cells
c)
2 haploid cells
d)
4 haploid cells
31.
number of chromosomes in daughter cells from mitosis
a)
reduced by half
b)
increased by half
c)
remains the same
d)
twice as many
32.
number of chromosomes in daughter cells from meiosis
a)
reduced by half
b)
increased by half
c)
remains the same
d)
twice as many
33.
when do centromeres split in mitosis
a)
anaphase
b)
telophase
c)
anaphase 1
d)
anaphase 2
34.
when do centromeres split in meiosis
a)
anaphase
b)
telophase
c)
anaphase 1
d)
anaphase 2
35.
what cells do meiosis produce
a)
sex cells (sperm and egg)
b)
everything over than sex cells
36.
what cells do mitosis produce
a)
sex cells (sperm and egg)
b)
everything over than sex cells
37.
why is mitosis important for life
a)
reproduction
b)
growth and repair
38.
why is mitosis important for life
a)
reproduction
b)
growth and repair
39.
The sequence of stages of growth and division that a cell undergoes is called
a)
cell
b)
cytoplasm
c)
cell cycle
d)
mitosis
40.
Two identical copies of a chromosome is
a)
centromere
b)
centrosome
c)
chromatid
d)
chromosome
41.
Phase of mitosis following prophase during which the double-stranded chromosomes line up along the center of the cell and the spindle fibers attach to each centromere
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
42.
the difference between plant and animal telophase
a)
low plants use cleavage but high plants use plates for cytokinesis
b)
animals use a cleavage furrow, while plants use plates for cytokinesis
c)
animals use a cleavage furrow for cytokinesis
43.
what happens during G2
a)
cell growth
b)
DNA synthesis
44.
what happens during the S phase
a)
cell growth
b)
DNA synthesis
45.
what enzymes are needed for DNA synthesis
a)
helicase and DNA polymerase
b)
lactase
c)
amylase and helicase
46.
what phase lasts the longest in mitosis and meiosis
a)
interphase
b)
metaphase
c)
telophase
47.
uncoiled DNA is eukaryotic cells are called
a)
chromatin
b)
chromatid
c)
histone
d)
nonhistone
48.
what does cytokinesis mean
a)
splitting of cytoplasm
b)
pinching
c)
getting shorter
49.
what is a zygote
a)
fertilized egg
b)
egg
c)
sperm
50.
what are the sex cells for a male
a)
XX
b)
XY
51.
what are the sex cells for a female
a)
XX
b)
XY
52.
how many of each chromosome is is a diploid cell
a)
1
b)
2
53.
when does crossing over occur in meiosis
a)
prophase 1
b)
prophase 2
54.
what does meiosis start with
a)
2N=46
b)
1N=46
c)
2N=23
d)
1N=23
55.
what does meiosis end with
a)
2N=46
b)
1N=46
c)
2N=23
d)
1N=23
56.
What is cancer?
a)
Colon Cancer
b)
Uncontrolled Cell growth
c)
Gentic Links
d)
Hair Loss
57.
the uncontrolled division of cells that results in malignant growth
a)
tissues
b)
cancer
c)
mitosis
d)
anaphase
58.
The correct sequence of mitosis:
a)
C,D, B, A, F, E
b)
D,A,F,C,E,B
c)
B,E,C,F,A,D
d)
C,B,D,A E,F
59.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
60.
The causes of cancer may include which of the following?
a)
poor diet & activity levels
b)
UV radiation
c)
inheritance
d)
all of these
61.
How many alleles (letters) do each person carry for a trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
62.
How many alleles (letters) does a child get from each parent for each trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
63.
Dominant alleles are represented by a:
a)
Male gene
b)
lowercase letter
c)
recessive trait
d)
capital letter
64.
Aa, DD, bB, yy are all examples of
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
65.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both
66.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
67.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
68.
Aa is
a)
homozygous
b)
heterozygous
69.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous
d)
DNA
70.
In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?
a)
circle
b)
square
c)
triangle
d)
diamond
71.
What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?
(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")
(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")
a)
Sex-Linked Dominant
b)
Sex-Linked Recessive
c)
Autosomal Dominant
d)
Autosomal Recessive
72.
What gender has an X and a Y chromosome?
a)
male
b)
female
c)
transgender
d)
all of the above
73.
This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
co-dominance
d)
dominant pattern
74.
In humans, skin tone is caused by 3 genes, each with 2 alleles. This is an example of
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
polygenic inheritance
d)
multiple alleles
75.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
recessive pattern
76.
Who is considered the "father of genetics"?
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Reginald Punnett
c)
James Watson
d)
Justin Bieber
77.
Chromosomes that carry genes that code for the same products, such as hemoglobin or eye pigment, are said to be:
a)
homologous
b)
heterozygous
c)
heterogeneous
d)
homozygous
78.
ABO blood groups are an example of a trait that is controlled by multiple alleles. A man with type AB blood marries a woman with type O blood. What is the probability that they will have a child with type O blood?
a)
0
b)
1/2
c)
1/4
d)
1
79.
one of the alternative forms of a gene that governs a characteristic
a)
allele
b)
phenotype
c)
gene
d)
genetic variation
80.
Which law states that factors are seperated?
a)
Law of Independent Assortment
b)
Law of Segregation
c)
Law of Mendel
d)
Law of Seperation
81.
What percentage of the female offspring will be a carrier for this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
50%
c)
100%
d)
25%
82.
If a gene is found only on the X chromosome and not the Y chromosome, it is said to be what?
a)
sex-linked trait
b)
polygenic trait
c)
codominant trait
d)
incomplete dominance trait
83.
Looking at this pedigree, how many family members have the disease?
a)
4
b)
7
c)
All
d)
None
84.
Who observed variations in the characteristics of plants and animals on different islands of the Galapagos?
a)
James Hutton
b)
Charles Lyell
c)
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
d)
Charles Darwin
85.
The process by which all organisms change slowly over time because of slight gene variations is called
a)
natural selection
b)
artificial selection
c)
evolution
d)
gene pool
86.
In addition to observing living organisms, Darwin studied the preserved remains of ancient organisms called
a)
fossils
b)
adaptations
c)
homologies
d)
vestigial structures
87.
An inherited characteristic that increases an organism's ability to survive and reproduce in its specific environment is called (n)
a)
vestigial structure
b)
adaptation
c)
speciation
d)
analagous structure
88.
How well an organism survives and reproduces in its environment can be described as its
a)
fitness
b)
homologies
c)
common descent
d)
analogies
89.
Which of the following conditions are necessary for natural selection to occur?
a)
overproduction of offspring
b)
variation within a population
c)
struggle for existence
d)
all of the above
90.
Structures that have different mature forms but develop from the same embryonic tissue are called
a)
analagous
b)
adaptations
c)
homologous
d)
fossils
91.
Intermediate fossil forms are important evidence of evolution because they show
a)
how organisms change over time
b)
how animals behaved in their environments
c)
how the embryos of organisms develop
d)
molecular homologies
92.
Which of the following are examples of common descent involving molecular biology?
a)
homologous structures
b)
fossils
c)
analogous proteins
d)
universal genetic code in DNA
93.
Based on the adaptations Darwin observed in finches and tortoises in the Galapagos, he wondered
a)
if species living on different islands had once been members of the same species
b)
if finches and tortoises had originated from the same ancestral species
c)
if all birds on the different islands were finches
d)
why all tortoises on the different islands were identical
94.
Darwin's observation that finches of different species on the Galapagos have many similar physical traits supports the hypothesis that these finches
a)
have the ability to interbreed
b)
acquired traits through use and disuse
c)
all eat the same type of food
d)
descended from a common ancestor
95.
Which of the following phrases best describes the results of natural selection?
a)
natural variation found in all populations
b)
unrelated species living in different locations
c)
changes in the inherited characteristics of a population over time
d)
struggle for existence undergone by all iving things
96.
Which process produced the two different types of beaks in the ground finch and the tree finch?
a)
artificial selection
b)
geographical distribution
c)
natural selection
d)
disuse of the beak
97.
Mutations that improve am individual's ability to survive and reproduce are
a)
harmful
b)
neutral
c)
beneficial
d)
chromosomal
98.
How does genetic recombination through sexual reproduction (randomness of sperm fertilizing egg) affect variation?
a)
increases it
b)
decreases it
c)
maintains it
99.
If coat color in a rabbit population is a polygenic trait, which process might have produced the graph below?
a)
disruptive selection
b)
stabilizing selection
c)
directional selection
d)
genetic equilibrium
100.
A random change in a small population's allele frequency is known as
a)
a gene pool
b)
genetic drift
c)
variation
d)
fitness
101.
When two populations no longer interbreed, what is the result?
a)
genetic equilibrium
b)
reproductive isolation
c)
stabilizing selection
d)
recombinant DNA
102.
Natural selection acts directly on ______, not ______. However phenotypes depend on genotypes, so natural selection may affect allele frequencies in gene pool
a)
genotypes, phenotypes
b)
chromosomes, phenotypes
c)
phenotypes, genotypes
d)
alleles, organisms
103.
The geographic isolation of two populations of a species tends to increase differences between their gene pools because it
a)
prevents interbreeding between the populations
b)
causes the formation of hybrids
c)
causes tmeporal isolation of the two populations
d)
increases differences in courtship behavior
104.
Favors the middle of the population.
a)
Disruptive selection
b)
Stabilizing selection
c)
Directional selection
105.
The entire curve moves in one direction or the other.
a)
Stabilizing selection
b)
Disruptive selection
c)
Directional selection
106.
Physical separation of a population, leading to speciation.
a)
reproductive isolation
b)
geographic isolation
c)
speciation
d)
gene pool
107.
Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?
a)
individual
b)
population
c)
species
d)
fossil
108.
which of the following describes natural selection
a)
it acts on genetic material directly
b)
it acts on existing physical traits
c)
it forms new traits
d)
it forms new genetic material
109.
Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions, but similar structures. These are known as
a)
vestigial structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil structures
110.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
111.
What is speciation?
a)
combining of tow species to form one with different traits
b)
isolation that affects mating behaviors
c)
timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection
d)
divergence of two or more species from an existing one
112.
Other insects can not, but, a bumble bee has just enough weight to open up the snapdragon flower and pollinate. This adaption is ....
a)
convergent evolution
b)
co-evolution
c)
divergent evolution
d)
speciation
113.
Why would a population with a large amount of genetic variation be more likely to survive a severe climate change in its environment?
a)
Individuals will only create offspring well-suited to the climate change
b)
The individuals would produce more offspring
c)
Individuals better suited to the new climate will help less-suited individuals survive
d)
Some individuals will posses traits better suited to the new climate and be more likely to pass them on
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