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MT Spring Final Review

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Cushing’s syndrome is prolonged exposure to high level of cortisol causes a “moon” face?
a)
true
b)
false
2.
What is type 2 diabetes ?
a)
Insulin resistance disorder
b)
Autoimmune insulin deficiency disorder
c)
A diabetic emergency
d)
The pancreas does not produce enough insulin
3.
What are some complications that are involved with the diabetes?
a)
Diabetic retinopathy, and Heart disease
b)
Kidney disease, and Peripheral neuropathy
c)
Slow wound healing
d)
All of the above
4.
What are some of the symptoms of Type 1 diabetes?
a)
Tingling in the hands and feet
b)
Recurring infections, irritability
c)
Blurred vision, extreme fatigue, slow healing.
d)
all of these
5.
Hashimoto’s disease kills what type of cells?
a)
White blood cells
b)
Thyroid gland cells
c)
Brain cells
d)
Red blood cells
6.
What is Graves' disease?
a)
The immune system attacks the thyroid gland and stimulates excessive amounts of thyroid hormone
b)
Excess secretion of growth hormone
c)
Tumor of the thyroid gland
d)
An overproduction of thyroid hormone, causing nervousness, weight gain and increased metabolism
7.
The decrease of male teststerone, a.k.a. ADAM, is called:
a)
menopause
b)
andropause
c)
periandropause
d)
none of these
8.
Which of the following is the beginning of the menstrual function that occurs during puberty?
a)
menses
b)
menarche
c)
perimenopause
d)
periods
9.
The transition phase between regular periods and no periods at all is called:
a)
menses
b)
perimenopause
c)
menopause
d)
andropause
10.
Cryptorchidism is a developmental defect in which the _____ fails to descend.
a)
ovary
b)
testicle
c)
uterus
d)
glans penis
11.

When the placenta separates from the uterine wall before birth, is is called:

a)

placenta previa

b)

uterine involution

c)

"water breaks"

d)

abruptio placentae

12.

Oligospermia is:

a)

a low sperm count, less than 20 million/mL

b)

absence of sperm in the semen

c)

failure to produce sperm

d)

a high sperm count, above 100 million/mL

13.
_____ is an upper respiratory bacterial infection commonly known as the whooping cough.
a)
bradypnea
b)
atelectasis
c)
pertussis
d)
emphysema
14.
A condition that causes progressive loss of lung function commonly attributed to long-term smoking is known as:
a)
byssinosis
b)
emphysema
c)
pertussis
d)
pneumothorax
15.
Accumulation of air in the pleural space is called:
a)
atelectasis
b)
pneumothorax
c)
hemothorax
d)
bradypnea
16.
When do ischemic strokes occur?
a)
It occurs when a blood vessel in a brain leaks
b)
It occurs when the flow of blood to the brain is blocked
c)
It occurs when the brain is violently shaken or jarred
d)
None of the above
17.
What term is inflammation of the conjunctiva, also known as “pink eye” ?
a)
Esotropia
b)
Tinnitis
c)
Conjunctivitis
d)
Diplopia
18.
What is true about conjunctivitis?
a)
Can be caused by an allergy
b)
Makes you lose hearing
c)
Inflammation of eardrum
d)
Blindness of eyes
19.
What is alopecia also known as?
a)
Ingrown hair
b)
Grey hair
c)
Bald-ness
d)
Loose hair
20.
An example of a pustule is:
a)
Psoriasis
b)
Chicken pox
c)
Pimples
d)
Hirsutism
21.
What is crust also known as?
a)
Scabs
b)
Freckles
c)
Acne
d)
Baldness
22.
What is Nocturnal Enuresis?
a)
bed wetting/urinary incontinence when sleeping
b)
Overactive bladder
c)
Urinary incontinence when sneezing/straining
d)
Waking up to urinate during the night
23.
The root word halit/o means:
a)
indigestion
b)
breath
c)
swallowing
d)
swelling
24.
What is the definition of Halitosis?
a)
Tooth decay
b)
Stomach ulcer
c)
Bad Breath
d)
Heartburn
25.
What causes Bruxism?
a)
Teeth grinding/clenching associated with stress and tension
b)
dry mouth from lack of saliva
c)
Dental caries
d)
Herpes labialis
26.
The leading cause of cancer death in the U.S. is:
a)
COPD
b)
emphysema
c)
lung cancer
d)
cystic fibrosis
27.
The type of pneumonia caused by mycoplasma pneumoniae is:
a)
pneumocystis
b)
hospital-acquired
c)
viral
d)
walking
28.

Black lung disease is called:

a)

cotton dust pneumoconiosis

b)

anthracosis

c)

cystic fibrosis

d)

respiratory failure

29.
During auscultation of an artery, a _____ is an abnormal sound caused by a narrowed or diseased artery.
a)
stridor
b)
murmur
c)
bruit
d)
rale
30.
What sound does rale make?
a)
A rattling sound
b)
High pitched sound
c)
A cracking sound
d)
A weezing sound
31.
A high-pitched musical sound caused by blockage in the throat or larynx is called ___________.
a)
Rale
b)
Rhonchi
c)
Stridor
d)
Bruit
32.
An abnormal sound that signifies defective heart valves is ?
a)
Bruit
b)
Heart Murmur
c)
Rhonchi
d)
Rale
33.
What is a function of epinephrine?
a)
Stimulates development of male secondary sex characteristics
b)
Regulates menstrual cycle
c)
Stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
d)
Completes uterus preperation for possible pregnancy
34.
Which of these is a hormone and neurohormone and plays an important role in the “fight or flight” response?
a)
Epinephrine
b)
Norepinephrine
c)
Progesterone
d)
Corticosteroids
35.
What is the function of glucagon?
a)
Allows glucose to enter the cells
b)
Stimulates liver to convert glycogen into glucose
c)
Converts glucose into glycogen
d)
Stores glucose
36.

Which is true about the pineal gland?

a)

Located on either side of the larynx

b)

Located just posterior to the sternum and slightly superior to the heart

c)

Located on top of each kidney

d)

Located in the central portion of the brain and secretes melatonin

37.
Pineal/o means what?
a)
Pinealoma
b)
Pineal hormone
c)
Pineal gland
d)
none of these
38.
What is thym/o?
a)
body.
b)
thymus gland.
c)
thyroid gland.
d)
thirst.
39.
What is the primary function of the endocrine system?
a)
Produce hormones that work together to maintain homeostasis.
b)
Send hormones throughout the body to regulate growth
c)
Act in response to the hypothalamus and regulate metabolism
d)
None of these
40.
What are Chemical messengers that travel throughout the body coordinating complex processes like growth, metabolism, and fertility?
a)
Cells
b)
Electrolytes
c)
Hormones
d)
Nerves
41.
The exchange of gases within the cells of the body organs, cells and tissues is called:
a)
internal respiration
b)
hyperpnea
c)
hypoxemia
d)
croup
42.
What are the three structures of the meninges?
a)
Pia mater, synapse, dendrite
b)
Pia mater, arachnoid membrane, dura mater
c)
Pia mater, receptor, myelin sheath
d)
Pia mater, myelin sheath, sciatic
43.
How does the sympathetic nervous system prepare the body for emergencies and stress?
a)
By receiving impulses and conducting them to the cell body.
b)
By increasing breathing rate, heart rate and blood flow to the muscles.
c)
By maintaining normal body functions during ordinary circumstances.
d)
By carrying instructions to and from the autonomic nervous system.
44.
What returns the body to normal after a response to stress,and maintains normal bodily functions during normal activities?
a)
Autonomic nervous system
b)
Central nervous system
c)
Parasympathetic nervous system
d)
Peripheral nervous system
45.
The sympathetic nervous system does which of the following?
a)
Prepares body for stress.
b)
Returns body to normal after stress.
c)
Increases faulty judgement
d)
Causes lower heart rate
46.

How many pairs of cranial nerves are a part of the PNS?

a)

31

b)

12

c)

3

d)

22

47.
What is the Myelin Sheath?
a)
One of the cerebral lobes
b)
The White protective covering made up of Glial cells
c)
A system of membranes that enclose the brain and spinal cord
d)
Part of the peripheral spinal nerves
48.
Which temporary organ structure allows the exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste between mother and fetus?
a)
umbilical cord
b)
chorion
c)
placenta
d)
amniotic sac
49.

Which structure is a cluster of capillaries surrounded by the Bowman's capsule and functions to filter blood through the kidneys?

a)

Medulla

b)

Cortex

c)

Renal pelvis

d)

Glomerulus

50.
The uppermost layer of the epidermis is formed from _____.
a)
skin
b)
squamous epithelial tissue
c)
subcutaneous tissues
d)
melanocytes
51.
Which is NOT a structure of the epidermis ?
a)
Epithelial Tissue
b)
Collagen
c)
Keratin
d)
Melanin
52.
Which of the following is a function of the eustacian tube?
a)
Aids in maintaining equilibrium
b)
Equilizes pressure in the middle ear with that of the surrounding atmosphere
c)
Transmit sound waves by vibrating
d)
Produces, stores and removes tears
53.

What is the pit in the middle of the macula where color vision is best?

a)

choroid

b)

fovea centralis

c)

pupil

d)

iris

54.
The Retina is the _____ layer that lines the posterior segment of the eye and receives nerve impulses that are transmitted to the brain via the _____.
a)
Innermost; fovea centralis
b)
Outermost; optic nerve
c)
Outermost; fovea centralis
d)
Innermost; optic nerve
55.
What is the function of the retina?
a)
Receives nerve impulses and transmits them to the brain via the optic nerves
b)
Maintains the shape of the eye protects the inner layer of tissue
c)
Contains many blood vessels and provides blood supply for the entire eye
d)
Transmits nerve impulses from the retina to the brain
56.
A physician who provides care to women during pregnancy and childbirth is a/an:
a)
urologist
b)
gynecologist
c)
neonatologist
d)
obstetrician
57.
An _____ is used to correct an undescended testicle.
a)
orchiopexy
b)
orchidectomy
c)
salpingectomy
d)
oophoropexy
58.
A procedure to remove one or both ovaries is called a/an:
a)
salpingectomy
b)
oophorectomy
c)
orchidectomy
d)
tubal ligation
59.
During which period of gestation is the developing child called an embryo?
a)
1st 8 weeks
b)
Week 9 and on
60.
How is the knee-chest exam position described?
a)
Lying on back, knees bent to chest
b)
Lying on stomach, knees pointed outwards
c)
Lying face down, hips bent so that kneed & chest rest in table
d)
Lying on side on child’s pose
61.
What exam position is lying on the back, face up, feet and legs raised and supported in stirrups?
a)
sims
b)
recumbent
c)
dorsal
d)
lithotomy
62.
What position involves lying on the left side, right knee and thigh drawn up, and left arm placed along the back?
a)
Prone
b)
Supine
c)
Knee-chest
d)
Sims'
63.
What is a prone position?
a)
Lying on the left side, right knee and thigh drawn up, left arm placed along the back
b)
Lying face down
c)
Lying on the back, face up
d)
Lying face down, hips bent so that knees and chest rest on the table
64.
What is the position where one lays on their back, face up with bent knees?
a)
Dorsal Recumbent
b)
Prone
c)
Lithotomy
d)
Supine
65.
What is an otoscope?
a)
Tool to remove ear wax
b)
A visual examination of the ear
c)
Surgical removal of the ear drums through radioactive sound waves
d)
The tool used for a visual examination of the ear
66.
What is an opthalmoscope used for?
a)
To inspect the retina and other parts of the eye
b)
To listen to your heart
c)
To strengthen your lungs
d)
To visually examine the tympanic membrane
67.
What is a stethoscope used for?
a)
Examine the ear
b)
Inspect the retina
c)
Listen to sounds within the body
d)
Check the density of an organ or body part
68.
What is a speculum used for?
a)
used to examine the interior of the eye
b)
used to listen to sounds within the body
c)
used to enlarge the opening of any canal or cavity
d)
used for visual exam of the external ear canal and tympanic membrane
69.
What is auscultation?
a)
Crackle like sound during inspiration
b)
Listening for sounds within the body using a stethoscope
c)
Procedure to determine the density of a body part by the sound produced when tapping the surface with the fingers
d)
Abnormal sound that most commonly signifies defective heart valves
70.

Computed tomography uses a fan-shaped X-ray beam that _______ around the patient, produces multiple ______________ views of the body.

a)

Revolves..........Vertical

b)

Rotates..........Cross-Sectional

c)

Orbits..........Internal

d)

Moves..........X-ray

71.
A Positron Emission Tomography (PET) Scan combines tomography with radionuclide tracers to produce enhanced images of________________.
a)
body parts in motion
b)
selected organs or body areas
c)
blood flow through tissue and organs
d)
show multiple cross-sections of the body
72.

Blood flow through tissues and organs is known as:

a)

contusion

b)

MRI

c)

perfusion

d)

None of these

73.

Which is a factor in the patient’s condition that makes use of a medication dangerous?

a)

placebo

b)

paradoxical reaction

c)

addiction

d)

contraindication

74.
The number of erythrocytes in the blood is also known as the?
a)
Red blood cell count
b)
Platlet count
c)
Hematocrit
d)
Complete Blood Count
75.
What is eructation?
a)
Belching (raising gas orally from the stomach)
b)
Reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus
c)
Pain in the esophagus
d)
Vomiting
76.
The suffix for vomiting is:
a)
-pepsia
b)
-phagia
c)
-emesis
d)
-ectasis
77.
What is specific gravity ?
a)
Concentrate of urine nalysis
b)
High blood pressure
c)
Low pulse
d)
Waste, minerals & solids present in urine
78.

The genetic disorder that causes the lungs and pancreas to become clogged with abnormally thick mucus is called:

a)

cystic fibrosis

b)

pneumoconiosis

c)

pertussis

d)

whooping cough

79.

The growth of abnormal cells on the cervix that can be detected by a PAP smear is called:

a)

andropause

b)

Addison's disease

c)

cervical dysplasia

d)

melanoma

80.

_____ is inflammation of the fallopian tube(s).

a)

Salpingitis

b)

Oophoritis

c)

Mastitis

d)

Orchiditis

81.

A condition in which breathing repeatedly stops during sleep long enough to lower blood oxygen levels is:

a)

sleep deprivation

b)

sleep apnea

c)

eupnea

d)

hypopnea

82.

Which of the following is also known as black lung disease?

a)

coal miner's pneumoconiosis

b)

anthracosis

c)

silicosis

d)

byssinosis

83.

_____ is a chronic autoimmune disease most often found in the ilium and colon.

a)

Addison's

b)

Cushing's

c)

Crohn's

d)

Alzheimer's

84.

Which of the following diseases is a group of disorders leading to dementia and affects memory and reasoning capabilities?

a)

Parkinson's

b)

Crohn's

c)

Alzheimer's

d)

Addison's

85.

_____ disease is a degenerative central nervous system disorder with progressive loss of control over movement.

a)

Alzheimer's

b)

Addison's

c)

Cushing's

d)

Parkinson's

86.

Which of these diseases causes progressive weakness until they are completely paralyzed?

a)

Multiple sclerosis

b)

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

c)

Diplopia

d)

Cystic fibrosis

87.

Which of these is a progressive autoimmune disorder that is characterized by scattered patches of demyelination of nerve fibers of the brain and spinal cord?

a)

ALS

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Conjunctivitis

d)

Parkinson's

88.

Also called "nearsightedness", a defect causes light rays to focus in front of the retina.

a)

myopia

b)

diplopia

c)

nystagmus

d)

astigmatism

89.

Difficulty starting a urinary stream is known as urinary _____.

a)

incontinence

b)

hesitancy

c)

retention

d)

prostatism

90.

A stone located in the ureter is called a:

a)

nephrolith

b)

ureterolith

c)

urolith

d)

renal lithiasis

91.

An involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball is called:

a)

myopia

b)

diplopia

c)

nystagmus

d)

pertussis

92.

Which of the following describes abnormally rapid respiration, usually more than 20 breaths per minute?

a)

tachypnea

b)

eupnea

c)

dyspnea

d)

bradypnea

93.

_____ ulcers are also called canker sores and are found in the soft tissues lining the mouth.

a)

Ischemic

b)

Graves'

c)

Aphthous

d)

Verrucae

94.

A discolored, flat spot on the skin, such as a freckle, is called a:

a)

papule

b)

macule

c)

wheal

d)

hematoma

95.

An itchy bump that often appears as symptoms of an allergic reaction is called a:

a)

wheal

b)

macule

c)

verrucae

d)

eructation

96.

Which of the following are small, hard skin lesions caused by the human papilloma virus?

a)

verrucae

b)

hematoma

c)

macule

d)

wheal

97.

Swelling of clotted blood trapped in tissues is known as a:

a)

hematoma

b)

ecchymosis

c)

effusion

d)

bruise

98.

Chemical substances that make it possible for messages to cross the synapse of a neuron are:

a)

hormones

b)

dendrites

c)

neurotransmitters

d)

myelin sheaths

99.

Which gland is located near the midline, in the anterior portion of the thoracic cavity, posterior to the sternum?

a)

thyroid

b)

thymus

c)

pineal

d)

adrenal

100.

_____ respiration occurs in the lungs when oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange takes place.

a)

internal

b)

external

101.

The windpipe is known as the:

a)

trachea

b)

larynx

c)

pharynx

d)

esophagus

102.

The tough, outermost layer of the meninges is the:

a)

pia mater

b)

arachnoid membrane

c)

dura mater

103.

Which structure secretes bile?

a)

liver

b)

gallbladder

c)

pancreas

d)

spleen

104.

The ringlike muscle at the base of the stomach that controls the flow of chyme from the stomach to small intestine is the:

a)

duodenum

b)

pyloric sphincter

c)

esophageal sphincter

d)

pylorus

105.

The 4th part of the colon that joins the rectum is the:

a)

sigmoid colon

b)

descending colon

c)

ascending colon

d)

transverse colon

106.

The outer region of the kidney is the:

a)

renal medulla

b)

renal cortex

c)

nephron

d)

adrenal gland

107.

The urethral _____ is the external opening of the urethra.

a)

bladder

b)

meatus

c)

canal

d)

sphincter

108.

A physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders using x-rays and other types of radiant energy is a:

a)

radiograph

b)

radiologist

c)

pharmacist

d)

phlebotomist

109.

_____ echocardiography is an ultrasonic imaging technique performed from inside the esophagus to evaluate heart structures.

a)

Transesophageal

b)

Endoscopic

c)

Computed tomography

d)

Positron emission

110.

Which of the following eases pain or severity of a disease but does not cure it?

a)

acetaminophen

b)

ibuprofen

c)

palliative

d)

perfusive

111.

Which is a type of health care that supplements conventional treatments?

a)

homeopathic medicine

b)

alternative medicine

c)

complementary medicine

d)

allopathic medicine

112.

The use of plant or mineral substances diluted in water or alcohol is known as:

a)

homeopathy

b)

ayurvedic

c)

naturopathy

d)

integrative

113.

When the result of a treatment is the exact opposite of what is expected, it is called a _____ reaction.

a)

idiosyncratic

b)

contraindicated

c)

paradoxical

d)

placebo

114.

Wavelike contractions of the smooth muscles in a single direction is called:

a)

peristalsis

b)

pertussis

c)

perfusion

d)

none of these

115.

What chemical is released in response to an allergen and causes the signs of an allergic reaction?

a)

heparin

b)

histamine

c)

hormones

d)

neurotransmitters

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