wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Pesticide

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What two factors are most important in relation to vapor drift?

a)

droplet size and wind direction and speed

b)

air stability and temperature

c)

viscosity or liquid pesticides and air turbulence

d)

temperature and pesticide volatility

2.

Which statement about sensitive areas is true?

a)

Never spray a sensitive area to control a pest for any reason.

b)

Do not spray a larger target site if it contains a sensitive area.

c)

Pesticide labels may contain statements that list special precautions around sensitive areas.

d)

Endangered species habitats are not considered sensitive areas.

3.

Which is a recommended best management practice for preventing contamination of surface and groundwater by pesticides?

a)

Use pesticides that are highly water soluble

b)

Use terrace and conservation tillage practices.

c)

Clean sprayers near sinkholes.

d)

Select persistent pesticides.

4.

Which statement is true about groundwater or surface water contamination by pesticides?

a)

Pesticides cannot reach groundwater by runoff

b)

Runoff and erosion are sources of surface water contamination by pesticides

c)

Pesticide-contaminated surface water will not reach groundwater

d)

Groundwater or surface water contamination risk is low when a heavy rain immediately follows a herbicide application

5.

Which statement is true about protecting bees from pesticide injury?

a)

wettable powders are the safest formulation for preventing bee injury

b)

it is best to spray crops when they are in bloom

c)

aerial applications are less hazardous to bees than ground applications

d)

applying pesticides in the evening or during early morning is recommended

6.

what label statement will be on pesticides that might harm endangered species?

a)

advice to consult a county bulletin to determine what special precautions to take when using the product

b)

advice to consult a local conservation officer for a permit to apply the pesticide

c)

ban on use of the pesticide in all areas where endangered species might be harmed

d)

a list of the endangered species that might be harmed by the pesticide

7.

which of these soil types is most likely to experience leaching?

a)

heavy clay soil, low in organic matter, where groundwater is shallow

b)

heavy clay soil, high in organic matter, where groundwater is deep

c)

sandy soil, high in organic matter, where groundwater is deep

d)

sandy soil, low in organic matter, where groundwater is shallow

8.

Which of these may be a cause of non-point source pollution?

a)

back-siphoning of pesticide spills at a wellhead

b)

leaching from a pesticide mixing area

c)

pesticides that dissolve and leach through the soil after a rainfall

d)

dumping leftover pesticide products down a well

9.

What characteristic of a pesticide makes it likely to move with water in surface runoff?

a)

high solubility

b)

high adsorption

c)

high volatility

d)

a tendency to evaporate quickly

10.

What two factors are most important in reducing spray drift?

a)

droplet size and wind condition

b)

temperature and wind condition

c)

viscosity of liquid pesticides and air turbulence

d)

temperature and pesticide volatility

11.

What two factors are most important in relation to vapor drift?

a)

droplet size and wind direction and speed

b)

air stability and temperature

c)

viscosity or liquid pesticides and air turbulence

d)

temperature and pesticide volatility

12.

Applicators of all pesticides or their supervisors must have state certification.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Pesticide applicators may be classified as private applicators if they apply pesticides-

a)

only on their own property

b)

to produce agricultural commodities primarily on the property of other ppl.

c)

to produce agricultural commodities on their own property.

14.

Pesticides in the restricted use category can be used by the general public without certification if recommended by a state of agency.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

If a commercial applicator wishes to apply for the control pests in agricultural crops and pests in public health, he must obtain certification in each of the appropriate categories.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

The term "Under the direct supervision of" means the supervisor-

a)

must be on the job while the restricted use pesticide is being applied.

b)

Can be in his office when the operator is applying a restricted use pesticide if available when needed.

c)

Can be available at night following the morning the restricted use pesticide is applied.

d)

Can be any distance away provided he can be reached with in 48 hours after the restricted use pesticide was applied.

17.
A chemical that kills bugs and insects is a ...
a)
mutation
b)
resistance
c)
antibiotic
d)
pesticide
18.
A  population of cockroaches was sprayed with an insecticide.  Some cockroaches survived and produced a population of cockroaches that was resistant to this spray.  What can BEST be inferred from this example?
a)
species will adapt no matter what the environment
b)
environment has no effect on the survival of an organism
c)
Individuals with favorable variations survive and reproduce
d)
Insecticides cause mutations that are passed on to the next generation
19.
A change in DNA is a ...
a)
clone
b)
protein
c)
accident
d)
mutation
20.
Chemicals used to kill insects, weeds, and other pests
a)
Salinization
b)
Pesticide
c)
Biological pest control
d)
Genetic engineering
21.

The ability of an organism to remain unaffected by a harmful agent in the environment

a)

chronic toxicity

b)

acute toxicity

c)

resistance

d)

monoculture

22.

Rats and inscets have become:

a)

weaker with decreasing populations

b)

stronger populations with genetic resistance to pestiiceds.

c)

equally effected by pesticides still being used.

d)

None of the above

23.

What is the target pest for Herbicides?

a)

Weeds

b)

Rodents

c)

Insects

d)

Algae

24.

What is the target pest is matched correctly with its pesticide group?

a)

bactericide - birds

b)

Fungicide - bacteria

c)

acaricide (miticide) - mites, ticks

d)

repellent - insects, plants

25.

Which common types of mixture is formed by dissolving a substance in a liquid?

a)

Suspension

b)

Solution

c)

Emulsions

d)

None of the answers.

26.

Which is NOT an example of dry formulation?

a)

Soluble Powder

b)

Granule

c)

Emulsifiable Concentrate

d)

Wettable Powder

27.

What is a pesticide that form gases or vapors. This type of formulant is highly toxic and require additional licensing.

a)

Microencapsulated

b)

Flowable or Liquid

c)

Granules

d)

Fumigants

28.

Which formulant is a safety concern for bees?

a)

Granules

b)

Solution

c)

Microencapsulated

d)

Emulsifiable Concentrate

29.

A chemical that modifies a pesticide's physical properties and/or enhances a pesticides performance is called?

a)

Adjuvant

b)

Aerosols

c)

Fumigants

d)

Surfactants

30.

Which is NOT considered a Physical Incompatibility for a pesticide?

a)

pH, chemical composition and or temperature

b)

not being able to manually mix together the pesticides

c)

mixtures that settle, layer, curdle or gel.

d)

synergism that increased activity or effectiveness applying them together

31.

What kind of test should be performed if physical compatibility may be a concern?

a)

antagonism

b)

pH test

c)

jar test

d)

I have no clue

32.

Which way do pesticides achieve useful pest control by which of the following?

a)

Selectivity

b)

Mobility

c)

Residual Activity

d)

All of the choices

33.

Spot, Band, Broadcast are all major types of ___________ for pesticides.

a)

applications

b)

formulants

c)

overlap

d)

equipment

34.

Part of equipment that monitors pressure in booms, and determines output of nozzles and affects overall spray quality.

a)

Tank

b)

Agitation

c)

Values

d)

Pressure Gauge

35.

What are two types of Pesticide drift?

a)

particle drift

b)

vapor drift

c)

spray

d)

water

36.

Which are problems associated with pesticide drift?

a)

Non-target damage

b)

Poor pest control

c)

Negative outcomes

d)

all of the choices

37.

Particle drift is primarily influenced by which of the following?

a)

droplet size

b)

wind speed

c)

wind direction

d)

relative humidity

38.

Pesticides have Hazards equation, what are the missing factors in the equation.

Hazard= __________ x __________

a)

Pressure

b)

Toxicity

c)

Water Content

d)

Exposure

39.

Which chemical is the most toxic?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

40.
What is the LD50 for Toxin B?
a)
10 mg
b)
13 mg
c)
25 mg
d)
50 mg
41.

Lethal dose (LD50) values are determined by the amount of a substance that:

a)

kills at least 50 individuals of the test population exposed to the substance

b)

kills a test population when given at least 50 ml of the substance

c)

kills at least 50% of the test population exposed to the substance

d)

kills a test population when given at least 50g of the substance

42.

Which material is most likely to be considered chemical resistant?

a)

Leather

b)

Cotton

c)

Nitrile

d)

Wool

43.

What part of the applicator's body is most likely to be exposed to pesticides?

a)

Hands

b)

Feet

c)

Face

d)

Belly

44.

Which scenario does not require extra PPE?

a)

Walking into a previously treated area after the REI

b)

Applying pesticides in enclosed spaces

c)

Adjusting pesticide contaminated equipment

d)

Immersing hands and forearms into pesticides

45.

The minimum items required to wear on most pesticide labels are:

a)

Safety glasses

b)

Long sleeved shirt, long pants, shoes, and socks

c)

Respirator

d)

Chemical resistant gloves

46.

How often should PPE be cleaned?

a)

After every use

b)

After every 3 uses

c)

At least once per month

d)

At least once per growing season

47.

Pesticides should be transported:

a)

In the back of a truck

b)

In a vehicle in a separate place from passengers

c)

Never

48.

What type of toxicity is caused by prolonged exposure to small amounts of pesticide?

a)

Acute

b)

Chronic

c)

Delayed

d)

Allergic

49.

Nausea, diarrhea, headache, difficulty breathing, body aches, and chest pains are symptoms of:

a)

Pesticide poisoning

b)

Pesticide allergies

c)

Heat Stroke

d)

Pop quizzes in this class

50.

Which type of exposure is most common for pesticide handlers?

a)

Oral

b)

Inhalation

c)

Ocular

d)

Dermal

51.

Empty pesticide containers must be rinsed:

a)

Once

b)

Twice

c)

Three times

52.

When mixing and pouring a pesticide, it is best to do it:

a)

Above your head, to avoid ocular exposure

b)

At eye level, to maintain accuracy

c)

Below face level, to prevent splashing on your face

53.

What are your legal responsibilities as a pesticide applicator?

a)

Follow labeling instructions to the letter

b)

Provide pesticide handlers with specific instructions

c)

Make sure no workers are overexposed to pesticides

d)

All of the above

54.

Which of the following is not a common way that pesticides might accidentally be transferred to others?

a)

Sitting in a car or chair while wearing soiled PPE

b)

Using the bathroom right after a pesticide application

c)

Giving high fives in the parking lot after work

d)

Taking pesticide contaminated clothing home.

55.

Which of the following should be taken into consideration when choosing a pesticide formulation?

a)

Application site and equipment

b)

Pesticide movement

c)

Personal Safety

d)

Target Pest

e)

All of the above

56.

Cleaning pesticide contaminated equipment presents a much smaller risk to the handler than actually applying the pesticides.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which type of application method involves application of a pesticide to the leafy parts of a plant?

a)

Band

b)

Broadcast

c)

Foliar

d)

Tree Injection

58.

Why is it important to apply the right amount of pesticide to the target site?

a)

Too little pesticide may not control the pest

b)

Too much pesticide may cause damage or injury

c)

Too much pesticide may lead to fines or legal action

d)

All of the above

59.

Which type of sprayer would be best to make a broadcast application to a 25 acre field?

a)

Hand sprayer

b)

Boom sprayer

c)

Drop spreader

d)

Backpack sprayer

60.

During a test, 1/2 gallon is applied to 250 square feet. The label calls for 1 gallon per 1000 square feet. Is it right?

a)

You are applying the correct amount.

b)

You are applying too little.

c)

You are applying too much.

d)

There is not enough information.

61.

A product label recommends 2 pints per acre. The boom sprayer uses 10 gallons of water per acre. What do you need to treat a 10 acre field?

a)

2 pints of spray, 10 gallons of water

b)

20 pints of spray, 10 gallons of water

c)

2 pints of spray, 100 gallons of water

d)

5 gallons of spray, 100 gallons of water

62.

A rectangular shaped field with dimensions that measure 50' x 10' has an area of:

a)

5 square feet

b)

50 square feet

c)

500 square feet

d)

5,010 square feet

63.

When calibrating equipment, you should take into consideration:

a)

The uniformity of pesticide output

b)

The application rate

c)

Both the uniformity and application rate

64.

How many square feet are in one acre?

a)

1,000 ft2

b)

660 ft2

c)

3,301 ft2

d)

43,560 ft2

65.

Which of the following causes drift?

a)

Equipment features and setttings

b)

Spray characteristics

c)

Environmental conditions

d)

Application site features

e)

All of these can cause drift

66.

What can an applicator do to reduce the potential for drift?

a)

Increase the droplet size

b)

Lower the operating pressure of the sprayer

c)

Lower the boom height of the sprayer

d)

All of the above

67.

You are applying a pesticide to a lawn. The total lot size is one acre, however, a house covers an area 60 feet long by 25 feet wide and the driveway covers another area which is 280 square feet. What is the total square feet you will spray.

a)

41,780

b)

43,560

c)

21,780

d)

45,000

68.

What is the purpose of a pesticide formulation?

a)

To enhance the color and odor of the pesticide

b)

To determine the application method

c)

To improve the stability and effectiveness of the pesticide

d)

To determine the concentration of active ingredients

69.

Which type of formulation requires dilution before application?

a)

Baits

b)

Granules

c)

Gels

d)

Dusts

70.

What is a disadvantage of emulsifiable concentrates (EC or E)?

a)

Little visible residue on treated surfaces

b)

Not abrasive to equipment

c)

Easy to handle, transport, and store

d)

High concentration of active ingredient

71.

What is an advantage of ultra-low volume (ULV) formulations?

a)

Specialized equipment requred

b)

Difficult to keep pesticide on target-high drift hazard

c)

Not abrasive to equipment

d)

Easily absorbed through skin

72.

Which type of formulation is most commonly used for ant and cockroach control?

a)

Liquids

b)

Gels

c)

Granules

d)

Dusts

73.

What is a disadvantage of granular formulations?

a)

break down more slowly than WP's or EX's bc of slow-release coating

b)

needs moisture to activate

c)

Little hazard to applicator because there is no spray and little dust

d)

Ready to use with no mixing

74.

What is the main disadvantage of wettable powders (WP or W)?

a)

Abrasive and may cause pumps and nozzles to wear out quickly

b)

Easily measured and mixed

c)

easy to store, transport, and handle

d)

Less skin and eye absorption than ECs and other liquid formulations

75.

Which type of formulation requires constant agitation to keep the particles suspended in water?

a)

Soluble powders (SP or WSP)

b)

Water-dispersible granules (WDG or DG)

c)

Thickeners

d)

Microencapsulated materials

76.

What is the purpose of adjuvants in pesticide formulations?

a)

To reduce foaming of spray mixtures

b)

To increase the effectiveness of the pesticide

c)

To decrease drift

d)

all of the above

77.

Some abbreviations used for common types of formulations include: 

a)

EC for emulsifiable concentrate

b)

ER for emulsifiable restriction

c)

GL for granulated low volatility

d)

WS for wettable solute 

78.

Which types of adjuvant function as wetting agents and spreaders (by physically altering the surface tension of spray droplets)?

a)

Compatibility Agent

b)

Surfactants

c)

Buffers & pH modifiers

d)

Thickeners

79.

Adjuvants

a)

Are chemicals that affect how the pesticide works

b)

Lack pesticidal properties 

c)

Change the characteristics of a pesticide formulation or a spray

d)

All of the above 

80.

Which is not an advantage of the listed formulation? 

a)

Ready to use low concentrate solution—convenient, no measuring or mixing is required

b)

Liquid baits—ant will carry the material to the colony

c)

Aerosols—easy to get uniform application

d)

Microencapsulated pesticides—reduced odor and volatility

81.

The name “Sevin 4D” on a pesticide label indicates:

a)

Granular pesticide with 4 % inert ingredients

b)

A gel pesticide with 4% active ingredients

c)

A dust pesticide with 4% active ingredients

d)

A dust pesticide with 4% inert ingredients

82.

What is a disadvantage of both EC and concentrate formualtions?

a)

solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, and pump parts and surfaces to deteriorate

b)

contribute to abrasive wear of nozzles and pumps

c)

require constant agitation to keep in suspension

d)

difficult to handle, transport, and store

83.

Which dry/solid formulation is mixed in water and reduces the risk of inhalation exposure during mixing and loading?

a)

dusts (D)

b)

Wettable Powders (WP)

c)

Soluble Powders (SP)

d)

Water-dispensable granules (WDG) or dry flowables (DF)

84.

Which type of dry/solid pesticide formulation consists of particles that are the same weight and shape?

a)

Dusts

b)

Granules

c)

Pellets

d)

Baits

85.

Which is an advantage of microencapsulated materials?

a)

they pose few hazards to bees

b)

delayed or slow release prolongs effectiveness

c)

pesticidal activity is dependent on weather

d)

require only a short REI

86.

Which liquid pesticide formulation may approach 100 percent active ingredient? 

a)

Emulsifiable concentrate (EC). 

b)

Ultra-low volume (ULV).

c)

Ready-to-use low-concentrate solutions (RTU).

d)

Aerosols (A). 

87.

The name “Sevin 5G” on a pesticide label indicates: 

a)

A granular pesticide with 5 percent inert ingredients.

b)

A gel pesticide with 5 percent inert ingredients.

c)

A granular pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients.

d)

A gel pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients. 

88.

Where should you look to see if a pesticide is classified as "Restricted Use"?

a)

In a box on the front of the label

b)

Near the barcode on the bottom of the packaging

c)

On the shelf at the retail store

d)

Google search engine?

89.

Which signal word is indicated by this picture?

a)

Danger-Poison

b)

Warning

c)

Caution

d)

Hazardous

90.

Which signal word means that the product is slightly toxic and is less likely to cause acute illness?

a)

Danger-Poison

b)

Warning

c)

Caution

d)

Hazard

91.

What must appear on ALL pesticide labels?

a)

Harmful if Swallowed

b)

Caution

c)

Keep Out of Reach of Children

d)

Re-Entry Intervals

92.

Which product will provide detailed information about a product's physical and chemical properties, toxicity, and accident procedures?

a)

The product label

b)

The product SDS

c)

The product advertising literature

d)

The product receipt of purchase

93.

Glyphosate exposure over time may cause in humans:

a)

Colds

b)

Rashes and burns

c)

Immune disorders

d)

Cancers

94.

What concentration of active ingredients would you expect to find in this product?

a)

8%

b)

80%

c)

92%

d)

Not enough information

95.

Formula to determine necessary nozzle flow rate.

a)

GPM= (GPA x MPH x W)/5940

b)

GPM= (GPA x MPH x 5940)/W

c)

GPM= (GPA + MPH + W)-5940

d)

GPM= (GPA - MPH x W)/5940

96.

Formula for spray application rates. Is GPA= (GPMx5940)/(MPH x W)

What does GPA, GPM, MPH and W represent?

a)

GPA = spray application in gallons per acre

GPM= nozzle flow in gallons per minute

MPH = ground speed in miles per hour

W = sprayed width in inches

b)

GPA = nozzle flow in gallons per minute

GPM= spray application in gallons per acre

MPH = ground speed in miles per hour

W = sprayed width in inches

c)

GPA = nozzle flow in gallons per minute

GPM= spray application in gallons per acre

MPH = sprayed width in inches

W = ground speed in miles per hour

d)

I have no cliue

97.

Your Sprayer is set up with nozzles spaced at 10 inches and you have measured the nozzle flow rate to be .30 gallons per minute at a pressure of 40 psi. You intend to broadcast spray at a ground speed of 5 mph. What is the spray application rate in gallons per acre?

a)

35.64 gallons per acre

b)

3,564 gallons per acre

c)

.3564 gallons per acre

d)

3.564 gallons per acre

98.

You need to apply a pesticide at a spray application rate of 30 gallons per acre. You spray at 7 mph and your boom is setup with a 25 inch nozzle spacing. What nozzle flow rate do you need for this application?

a)

.884 gallons per minute

b)

8.84 gallons per minute

c)

88.4 gallons per minute

d)

884 gallons per minute

99.

To determine the formulation rate you need to know what two things.

a)

area

b)

rate

c)

pressure

d)

MPH

100.

You need to treat 7 acres of football fields with a herbicide labeled at 64 fluid ounces of product per acre. How many gallons of product are needed to treat the entire football fields?

*hint 128 fluid ounces in a gallon*

a)

448 gallons

b)

3.5 gallons

c)

44.8 gallons

d)

35 gallons

101.

The following are ways to calculate area, Which is the correct formula to apply herbicide to this area.

a)

length x width

b)

(base x height) / 2

c)

3.14 x radius x radius

102.

The following are ways to calculate area, Which is the correct formula to apply pesticide to this area.

a)

length x width

b)

(base x height) / 2

c)

3.14 x radius x radius

103.

You have a pesticide that needs to be applied to a triangular area with base of base line of 10 feet and height of 20 feet. The labeled product rate is 40 fluid ounces per 1,000 feet squared. How many fluid ounces of the pesticide formulation will you need to spray this aera?

a)

4 fl ounces

b)

40 fl ounces

c)

10.0 fl ounces

d)

100 fl ounces

104.

How many ponds of a.i. are in 5 pounds of an 60WP insecticide?

a)

3 pounds a.i.

b)

300 pounds a.i.

c)

.00083 pounds a.i.

d)

30,000 pounds a.i.

105.

A pesticide recommendation calls for applying 3 pounds of a.i. per acre. Using a 9EC formulation, what should the product rate be in gallons per acre?

a)

33 gallons of product per acre

b)

.33 gallons of product per acre

c)

27 gallons of product per acre

d)

2.7 gallons of product per acre

106.

The 3 basic rules of an integrated pest management program are: work with a PCO; deny pests access; and

a)

deny pests food, water, and a nesting or hiding place

b)

document all infestations with the local regulatory authority

c)

prepare a chemical application schedule and post it publicly

d)

notify the EPA that pesticides are being used in the operation

107.

What is a basic rule of an Integrated Pest Management program?

a)

Work with a pest control operator.

b)

Destroy pests on sight.

c)

Use pesticides.

d)

Set traps.

108.

What information should be recorded and shared with the pest control operator if pests are spotted at the operation?

a)

Color, weight, gender

b)

Date, time, location

c)

Size, type, number

d)

Species, frequency, temperature

109.

What is the third step in the IPM process?

a)

Identification

b)

Prevention of pests

c)

Monitoring new infestations

d)

Using traps

110.

What additional requirement is there for applying restricted pesticides?

a)

It may be applied by or under the direct supervision of a licensed certified applicator

b)

It must be applied only during daylight hours

c)

It requires a special permit from the local government

d)

It can only be applied in rural areas

111.

If a product is labeled with "Caution," what is its hazard level?

a)

Mild/moderate hazard

b)

Moderate hazard

c)

Extremely flammable

d)

Highly toxic