WorksheetsGenetics and Evolution EOC Review
Total questions: 109
Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Two different populations of birds live in the same area and eat the same types of food. Which most likely describes the relationship between these two populations of birds?
a)
competition
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predator-prey
2.
What will most likely happen if the human population continues to grow at current rates?
a)
There will be fewer natural resources available for future generations.
b)
There will be an increase in nitrogen levels in the atmosphere.
c)
There will be a decrease in water pollution.
d)
There will be an increase in the number of strong hurricanes.
3.
A sea turtle has washed up on a remote section of a beach. This is known as a “stranding.” Stranding occurs when a dead, sick or injured sea turtle washes up on the shoreline. Which statement best explains why “stranding” should be reported immediately to local authorities?
a)
The information can be very useful to biologists and managers who are trying to protect the species.
b)
The information can be very useful to protect sea turtles from predators.
c)
The information can be very useful to local fishermen who try to catch fish that sea turtles eat.
d)
The information can be very useful to tourists who may want to keep sea turtles as pets.
4.
A strand of DNA has these bases:
AGC CAT GTA TAC What is the complementary DNA strand?
AGC CAT GTA TAC What is the complementary DNA strand?
a)
ACG GAT CTA TAG
b)
TCG GTA CAT ATG
c)
TGC CTA GAT ATC
d)
UCG CUA CAU AUG
5.
Which statement best describes the relationship that exists among proteins, DNA, and cells?
a)
Proteins combine to produce cells, which produce DNA
b)
Proteins are made up of DNA, which determines the cells that are produced.
c)
DNA is made up of proteins, which tell a cell how to function.
d)
Cells contain DNA, which controls the production of proteins.
6.
Which process produces the most variation within a species?
a)
Asexual reproduction
b)
Sexual reproduction
c)
mitosis
d)
cloning
7.
Which is one reason scientists produce transgenic organisms?
a)
to create new species of organisms
b)
to control microorganisms in the soil
c)
to prevent habitats from being destroyed
d)
to treat certain types of diseases
8.
What are the subunits of DNA and their function?
a)
nucleotides that store information
b)
monosaccharides that provide quick energy for the cell
c)
lipids that store energy and provide insulation
d)
proteins that provide the building blocks for the structural components of organisms
9.
The use of pesticides on crops has been a common farming practice for decades. What has been the greatest effect of natural selection through the use of pesticides on certain insect populations?
a)
Natural selection has been altered because the insects and their predators are killed.
b)
The rate of selection is increased because the pesticides do not kill the insects that are naturally resistant to it.
c)
The rate of selection has decreased because the pesticides kill only young insects.
d)
The pesticides have altered natural selection by causing the insect DNA to spontaneously mutate.
10.
What is the difference between the full classification of organisms and their scientific names?
a)
The full classification of organisms and their scientific names vary in different countries.
b)
The scientific names of organisms include the order and family of the organisms, but the full classification includes only the species name
c)
The full classification of organisms will include more categories of organisms than their scientific names.
d)
The scientific names of organisms include a single nomenclature, but the full classification includes various nomenclatures.
11.
The males of a bird species do a “dance” and “sing a song” each spring. What is the main purpose of these behaviors?
a)
to scare off young birds
b)
to imprint young birds
c)
to clean their feathers
d)
to attract female birds
12.
The yucca plant releases a strong scent at night when the yucca moth is active. The yucca moth, attracted by the scent, gathers pollen from the yucca flower. The yucca moth then deposits her eggs and the pollen on another plant. This ensures that the plant will be cross-pollinated and that the yucca moth larvae have a steady food supply. Which relationship does this BEST illustrate?
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
13.
Which of the following are the main components of a DNA nucleotide?
a)
Ribose-sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Deoxyribose-sugar, nitrogen base, phosphorous
c)
Deoxyribose-sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
Glucose, nitrogen base, phosphate
14.
The diagram below shows a pair of DNA nucleotides. The nitrogenous base cytosine (C) is labeled.
Which nitrogenous base pairs with cytosine?
Which nitrogenous base pairs with cytosine?
a)
adenine (A)
b)
guanine (G)
c)
thymine (T)
d)
uracil (U)
15.
Which of the following is found in RNA nucleotides but not in DNA nucleotides?
a)
Nitrogen-containing base
b)
Phosphate group
c)
Ribose sugar
d)
Deoxyribose sugar
16.
Which of the following features of DNA is the most important in determining the phenotype of an organism?
a)
the direction of the helical twist
b)
the number of deoxyribose sugars
c)
the sequence of nitrogenous bases
d)
the strength of the hydrogen bonds
17.
Which statement about translation is correct?
a)
Amino acids are assembled into a protein on the ribosome
b)
Ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA form base pairs
c)
Messenger RNA is made from DNA
d)
Transfer RNA contains the genetic code copied from DNA
18.
Which statement about translation is correct?
a)
Amino acids are assembled into a protein on the ribosome
b)
Ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA form base pairs
c)
Messenger RNA is made from DNA
d)
Transfer RNA contains the genetic code copied from DNA
19.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
20.
A mutation is least likely to affect a cell when the mutation:
a)
reverses the order of bases in a DNA strand
b)
allows the total number of bases in a DNA sequence to remain the sam
c)
replaces a base with its complementary base
d)
produces a triplet that codes for the same amino acid as the original triple
21.
The original mRNA strand has 3 triplets:
AUG-AUU-CAC
Which of the following mutations causes the LEAST amount of harm to the cell?
AUG-AUU-CAC
Which of the following mutations causes the LEAST amount of harm to the cell?
a)
AUG-AUC-AC
b)
AUU-AUU-CAC
c)
AUG-AUC-CAC
d)
AUG-CAU-UCA-C
22.
The following diagram shows a mutation that occurs in the hemoglobin gene to produce a recessive genetic disorder called sickle cell anemia.
Which of the following statements best describes why the change in only one DNA base of the hemoglobin gene results in a different protein product of the gene?
Which of the following statements best describes why the change in only one DNA base of the hemoglobin gene results in a different protein product of the gene?
a)
the change prevents mRNA from being made
b)
the change alters the amino acid sequence of the protein
c)
the change causes the blood cells to divide in an uncontrolled way
d)
the change creates a second strand of mRNA for each RNA molecule
23.
Name the process in the picture.
a)
transcription
b)
mitosis
c)
translation
d)
replication
24.
What process is occurring in the picture?
a)
DNA replication
b)
mitosis
c)
protein synthesis
d)
meiosis
25.
Name B.
a)
phosphate
b)
glucose
c)
deoxyribose
d)
nitrogen base
26.
What type of punnett square?
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
deoxyribose
d)
sex linked recessive
27.
What is happening in the picture?
a)
recombinant DNA
b)
karyotype
c)
mitosis
d)
binary fission
28.
Widow's peak is dominant to straight hair line. Cross a heterozygous widow's peak female with a heterozygous widow's peak male. What is the genotype ratio?
a)
1:2:1
b)
3:1
c)
1:1
d)
1:0
29.
The field of biology that deals with classifying organisms is
a)
phylogeny
b)
genetics
c)
taxonomy
d)
embryology
30.
The standardized system for naming organism is known as binomial nomenclature. What two pieces of information are used to name and identify organisms using this system?
a)
genus and species
b)
class and genus
c)
class and species
d)
domain and kingdom
31.
The genetic variation that leads to evolution can occur when genes from one population are introduced into the gene pool of a different population. This process is known as
a)
mutation
b)
crossing over
c)
natural selection
d)
gene flow
32.
The papaya mealybug is a pest that poses a threat to many tropical plants. Which fate of the mealybug would result from the inability of the species to reproduce?
a)
The species would mutate
b)
The species would increase
c)
The species would become extinct
d)
The species would continue to thrive
33.
In a certain insect, round wings (R) are dominant to pointed wings (r). Which cross will produce the greates number of genotypic and phenotypic variations?
a)
rr X rr
b)
Rr X Rr
c)
Rr X RR
d)
RR X RR
34.
What is the role of hydrogen bonds in the structure of DNA?
a)
to code for proteins
b)
to synthesize proteins
c)
to separate the strands
d)
to connect the base pairs
35.
Polar bears swim across large expanses of ocean while hunting for seals, their main source of food. The bears use sea ice as a resting spots during their long swims. However, the sea ice is rapidly melting as a result of global warming. Which statement describes what most likely happen if global warming continues at its present rate?
a)
Polar bear and seal populations will both increase
b)
Polar bear populations will decrease, and seal populations will increase.
c)
Polar bear populations will increase, and seal populations will decrease.
d)
Polar bear populations will decrease, and seal populations will remain the same
36.
A strand of DNA is exposed to intense heat. Which of these best describes what will happen to the strand of DNA?
a)
The chemical bonds of the DNA molecule will be broken
b)
More nitrogen base pairs will add on the the DNA molecule
c)
The chemical bonds of the DNA molecule will be strengthened
d)
The nitrogen base pairs in the DNA molecule will switch places.
37.
The loss of habitat in a forest region has caused some plant species to become extinct, while others survive. The process by which some plant species survive and others do not in a changing environment is best explained by
a)
natural selection
b)
law of segregation
c)
biological magnification
d)
alternation of generations
38.
A forest fire destroys the majority of the trees in a state park. Which effect will this most likely have a secondary consumers in that ecosystem?
a)
The amount of available energy will increase because there will be fewer predators in the forest
b)
The amount of available energy will increase because there will be less competition from producers
c)
The amount of available energy will decrease because fewer primary consumers are not reliant on primary consumers
d)
The amount of available energy will remain constant because secondary consumers are not reliant on primary consumers
39.
The loulu tree in Hawaii reproduces by a seed encased in a fruit Nonnative species, such as pigs and rats, eat the fruit as regular part of their diet, drastically reducing the regeneration rate of the loulu. What most likely would be the outocme for loulu trees in the next century without intervention?
a)
They would become extinct
b)
They would rebound and thrive
c)
They would remain at their current levels
d)
They would evolve a new way to reproduce
40.
Which of these best describes the initial change caused by a DNA mutation?
a)
a change in the swquence of base pairs
b)
a change in the production of enzymes
c)
a change in the number of nucleosomes within a cell
d)
a change in the number of hydrogen bonds between the bases
41.
A species of snake was introduced to a tropical region. Scientists then noticed a steady decline in the presence of a field mice and an increase in the number of snakes. Which of these is the most likely explanation about why the population size of each animal changed?
a)
The snakes introduced to the region dominated the habitat, forcing the mice to find another place to live
b)
The mice became prey to the introduced snakes, allowing the snake population to increase but decreasing the mice population
c)
The snakes introduced to the region competed with the mice for food, allowing the snake population to increase but decreasing the mice population
d)
The people in the surrounding are set traps that killed the mice, allowing the snakes to live without any predators and therefore to increase in number
42.
Which of these best describes mutualism?
a)
a relationship between two species where both species benefit
b)
a relationship between two species where neither species benefits
c)
a relationship between two species where one species benefits and one is not affected
d)
a relationship between two species where on species benefits and the other is harmed
43.
Which abiotic factor limits the altitude at which plants can grow?
a)
the presence of a parasite
b)
the temperature of the area
c)
the presence of herbivorous animals
d)
the concentration of bacteria in the soil
44.
One species of Galapagos finches, the cactus finch, eats insects off cactus plants, A disease kills off most of the cacti. Which of these will most likely happen to the carrying capacity of the island?
a)
It would increase a small amount since the insect population would decrease.
b)
It would remain about the same since the finches would change to a different diet.
c)
It would increase exponentially since the insects would have limited places to hide.
d)
It would decrease considerably since finches and insects are specifically adapted to their niche.
45.
The chromosome structure in a cell accounts for fenetic variation based on the order of its
a)
sugars
b)
phosphates
c)
nitrogenous bases
d)
hydrogen bonds
46.
This picture shows that:
a)
The DNA code and the RNA code are identical.
b)
DNA from two different organisms can be combined.
c)
Only part of DNA actually codes for proteins.
d)
We need genetic engineering to survive.
47.
Which one shows the correct pairing of bases in DNA??
a)
A and C, T and G
b)
A and G, C and T
c)
A and T, C and G
d)
A and C, T and G
48.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
T
49.
Which of the following is homozygous dominant?
a)
Yy
b)
Y
c)
yy
d)
YY
50.
Which of the following is homozygous recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
T
51.
What amino acid is represented by the codon CAG?
a)
phosphate
b)
Histidine
c)
Glutamine
d)
Methionine
52.
What are the three parts of a DNA nucleotide?
a)
phosphate
b)
fatty acid, glycerol, & alcohol group
c)
phosphate group, deoxyribose sugar, & nitrogen base
d)
sterol ring, six carbon sugar, & alcohol group
53.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAAGTACGT
TGGCAAGTACGT
a)
ACCGTTCATGCA
b)
UGGCAAGUACGU
c)
UCCGUUCUUGCU
d)
ACCGUUCAUGCA
54.
What type of mutation is represented in the second strand of DNA?
TACGGCACT
TACGGCCACT
TACGGCACT
TACGGCCACT
a)
Deletion
b)
Insertion
c)
Substitution
d)
No mutation
55.
The molecule that transports the amino acid to the ribosome is called the
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
56.
The codon read using the genetic code to determine the amino acid is found in
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
57.
Codes for a single protein
a)
DNA
b)
Gene
c)
Chromosome
d)
Chromatin
58.
Contains a phosphate group
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both
59.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
60.
Brings the amino acids to the ribosome
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
61.
The process of using an mRNA to make a protein is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Cell Division
62.
Transcription takes place in the ___________, while translation takes place in the __________.
a)
cytoplasm; nucleus
b)
mitochondria; chloroplast
c)
nucleus; cytoplasm
d)
cell membrane; cellular matrix
63.
Which type of RNA carries amino acids to the growing peptide chain?
a)
mRNA
b)
rRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
dRNA
64.
The synthesis of an RNA strand from a DNA template is called __________.
a)
transcription
b)
replication
c)
translation
d)
synthesis
65.
The synthesis of a protein from an mRNA template is called ____________.
a)
transcription
b)
replication
c)
translation
d)
synthesis
66.
If you were to compare the DNA of a human, an elephant, a tree, and an E. coli bacteria, you would find ____________.
a)
Each organism's DNA is made of identical genes.
b)
Each organism's DNA is made of the same bases.
c)
Each organism's DNA is the same length.
d)
Each organism's DNA is contained in a nucleus.
67.
How is do RNA and DNA differ?
a)
DNA contains adenine, RNA contains thymine
b)
DNA contains a sugar and RNA does not
c)
DNA is double stranded, RNA is single stranded
d)
DNA is found in the cytoplasm, RNA is only in the nucleus
68.
What are the bases that can be found in DNA?
a)
adenine, thymine, uracil, cytosine
b)
thymine, cytosine, phosphate, guanine
c)
cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)
guanine, thymine, uracil, cytosine
69.
What makes up the genetic code in DNA?
a)
the phosphate group
b)
the nitrogen bases
c)
the deoxyribose sugar
d)
the ribose sugar
70.
One of the parents of a child has phenylketonuria (PKU), which is caused by recessive alleles. The other parent does not have the PKU alleles. What is the chance that the couple will have a child with phenylketonuria?
a)
0%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
71.
Hitchhiker's thumb (H) is dominant to no hitchhiker's thumb (h). A woman who does not have hitchhiker's thumb marries a man who is heterozygous for hitchhiker's thumb. What is the probable genotypic ratio of their children?
a)
0% Hh: 100% hh
b)
50% Hh: 50% hh
c)
75% Hh: 25% hh
d)
100% Hh: 0% hh
72.
Mendel hypothesized that reproductive cells have only one factor for each inherited trait. This hypothesis is supported by which observation?
a)
Haploid cells are produced by mitosis.
b)
Diploid cells are produced by mitosis.
c)
Haploid cells are produced by meiosis.
d)
Diploid cells are produced by meiosis
73.
A human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
74.
A method of separating DNA fragments according to their size and charge using an electric current passed through a gel containing the samples a
a)
Chromosome
b)
DNA Probe
c)
Electrophoresis
d)
Restriction Enzyme
75.
An organized structure of DNA and protein found in cells that contains the genetic code of an individual
a)
Chromosome
b)
Exon
c)
Gene
d)
Intron
76.
DNA is what shape?
a)
Helix
b)
Triple Helix
c)
Double Helix
d)
Circular
77.
The sides of the helix, referred to as the backbone of DNA, are made up of:
a)
alternating sugar and phosphate molecules
b)
alternating base and phosphate molecules
c)
paired nitrogenous bases
d)
d. paired sugar molecules
78.
During complementary base pairing, Adenine pairs with what other nitrogenous base?
a)
Adenine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Guanine
d)
Thymine
79.
Mr. Jones was killed in a car accident. Afterwards, a former girlfriend filed a paternity suit claiming that Mr. Jones was the father of her child, and thus she was entitled to the man’s estate. Which sample of DNA would have to be from Mr. Jones if he were the child’s father?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
80.
Bob was found dead in his home. Crime scene analysis showed signs of a struggle. Blood was collected from the crime scene, the victim, and three suspects. Which suspect likely committed the crime?
a)
Sue
b)
Lisa
c)
John
d)
None of these
81.
What mutation has occurred here?
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift
82.
Which change below would result in a different Amino Acid?
3'-GCT-5'
3'-GCT-5'
a)
GTT
b)
TCT
c)
TCC
d)
GCA
83.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
84.
What is the correct mRNA strand from this DNA?
CAC-GTG-ACA-GCG
CAC-GTG-ACA-GCG
a)
GTG-CAC-TGT-CGC
b)
CAC-GUG-ACA-GCG
c)
GUG-CAC-UGU-CGC
85.
When step d is completed, the two DNA molecules formed will be ___.
a)
Identical to each other but not to the parent
b)
Identical to the parent but not to each other
c)
Identical to each other and to the parent
d)
Different from each other and from the parent
86.
Why is the order of amino acids so important?
a)
The order of amino acids dictates the function of the protein and what shape the protein will fold into.
b)
It is not important. The protein folding chamber will force the protein to fold into the correct shape.
c)
The order of the amino acids tells the cell what DNA to make.
d)
It is not important that is why most mutatiosn are silent.
87.
In step b, the original strands have separated because ___.
a)
DNA polymerase has stopped functioning
b)
Hydrogen bonds between the bases have broken
c)
Water hydrolyzes the bases into their subunits
d)
Bases naturally repel each other
88.
When, during the cell cycle, does this occur?
a)
During G1
b)
During S
c)
During G2
d)
During M
89.
Identify this process.
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Proof reading
90.
In DNA replication, three of the four choices listed below are correctly paired. Select the exception. A. A – C B. C – G C. A – T D. T – A
a)
A-C
b)
C-G
c)
A-T
d)
T-A
91.
What is the site of Protein Synthesis?
a)
El Cerro
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Lysosomes
92.
Proteins are made of:
a)
Amino Acids
b)
Fatty Acids
c)
Monosaccharides
d)
Nucleic Acids
93.
This carries the DNA message from the nucleus to the ribosomes:
a)
tRNA
b)
mRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
UPS
94.
DNA copies itself in a process called:
a)
Copification
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Transcription
95.
Which of the following processes produces gametes?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Protein Synthesis
96.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of RNA?
a)
Ribose Sugar
b)
Thymine
c)
Guanine
d)
Cytosine
97.
tRNA brings amino acids to the growing protein =
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Mitosis
98.
What is another way of saying "hybrid"?
a)
heterozygous
b)
homozygous dominant
c)
homozygous recessive
d)
none of these choices
99.
The dominant trait is
a)
yellow pea seeds
b)
green pea seeds
c)
there is no dominant seed
d)
Jolly green giant
100.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
101.
The diagram shows the process of
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Mitosis
102.
Which of the following best describes meiosis?
a)
It is carried out in all tissues theat require cell replacement
b)
It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of an organism
c)
It happens in all of the tissues except the brain and spinal cord
d)
It is the first stage of mitosis
103.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous genes
d)
mutated DNA
104.
What is transcription?
a)
DNA to mRNA
b)
DNA to tRNA
c)
mRNA to protein
d)
mRNA to amino acids
105.
what is Bb?
a)
ressesive
b)
Dominate
c)
Heterozygous
d)
I don't know...
106.
The passing of physical characteristics from parent to offspring is __________.
a)
genetics
b)
heredity
c)
genes
d)
traits
107.
Which best describes the process shown?
a)
mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is ltered
b)
segregation of sister chromatids
c)
condensation and segregation of the alleles
d)
crossing-over which alleles are exchanged
108.
One species of Galapagos finches, the cactus finch, eats insects off cactus plants, A disease kills off most of the cacti. Which of these will most likely happen to the carrying capacity of the island?
a)
It would increase a small amount since the insect population would decrease.
b)
It would remain about the same since the finches would change to a different diet.
c)
It would increase exponentially since the insects would have limited places to hide.
d)
It would decrease considerably since finches and insects are specifically adapted to their niche.
109.
A population of salamanders that lice in a river require clear, fresh water to survive. A flood causes tons of sediment to be suspended in the river. Which of these most likely will happen to the salamander population?
a)
The salamanders will adapt to life on land
b)
The salamanders will move to another river
c)
The salamanders will adapt to living in the muddy water
d)
The salamanders will decrease in number because of the water quality
100 %
