wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Intro to Advanced Biology Spring Final Review

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which is NOT true of MEIOSIS?
a)
Produces two cells
b)
Allows for genetic recombination
c)
Produces gametes
d)
Includes crossing over
2.
If the diploid number of an organism is 36, how many chromosomes are found in a gamete?
a)
36
b)
72
c)
18
d)
Not enough information
3.
Which process creates an identical copy of DNA?
a)
Mutation
b)
Replication
c)
Transcription
d)
Translation
4.
Transcribe this sequence:  ACTGTTC
a)
UGACAAG
b)
TGACAAG
c)
TGUCUUG
d)
AGUCUUG
5.
In a cross of two heterozygous parents, what proportion of the offspring will also be heterozygous?
a)
50%
b)
100%
c)
0%
d)
75%
6.
SPEED QUESTION!!  Who is the Father of Genetics?
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Louis Pasteur
d)
Robert Hooke
7.
What do you call a change in an organism's DNA?
a)
Replication
b)
Mutation
c)
Codon
d)
Phenotype
8.

Each organism has _____ alleles that make up a trait.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

9.

Meiosis results in ______.

a)

4 genetically unique haploid gametes

b)

4 genetically unique diploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical cells

d)

4 genetically identical cells

10.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
11.

When homologous chromosomes match up, they form a structure called a ___________.

a)

tetrad

b)

triad

c)

diploid

d)

gamete

12.

Two processes that increase genetic variation during meiosis are crossing over and _____

a)

Synapsis

b)

Tetrad

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Gameiosis

13.
Human eggs and sperm are _____, and each has ____ chromosomes.
a)
diploid, 23
b)
diploid, 46
c)
haploid, 23
d)
haploid, 46
14.
From Smallest to Largest (most specific to broadest), which of the following lists the taxa in the correct order?
a)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
b)
Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingom, Domain
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Species, Genus, Family, Class, Order, Phylum, Kingdom, Domain
15.
Where does Translation take place?
a)
RNA
b)
ribosome
c)
nucleus
d)
chromosome
16.

What is the term for a three nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid (on mRNA)? For example: AUG

a)
Nitrogen base
b)
Codon
c)
Amine
d)
Phosphate group
17.
Transfer RNA (tRNA) is important because it __________.
a)
Carries amino acids to the ribosome
b)
Carries ribosomes to the ER
c)
Carries glucose to mitochondria
d)
Carries mRNA out of the nucleus
18.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
19.
The passing of traits from parents to offspring is 
a)
heredity
b)
genetics
c)
meiosis
d)
fertilization
20.
In what type of inheritance are both alleles clearly expressed?
a)
codominance
b)
mendelian
c)
incomplete
d)
x-linked
21.
According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism? 
a)
Amphibians
b)
Ray finned fish
c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
22.
According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism? 
a)
Amphibians
b)
Ray finned fish
c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
23.

Which of the following RNA sequences would be transcribed from the DNA sequence ATGCCTAGGAC?

a)

TACGGATCCTG

b)

UAGCGAUCCUG

c)

AUGCCUAGGAC

d)

UACGGAUCCU

e)

GCAUUCGAAGU

24.
The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is 
a)
complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.
b)
complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.
c)
the part of tRNA that bonds with a specific amino acid.
d)
catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.
25.
Which of the following is an example of a homozygous dominant genotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bB
d)
bb
26.

Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, these bones having developed from very similar embryonic tissues. How do biologists interpret these similarities?

a)

By identifying the bones as being analogous

b)

By the principle of convergent evolution

c)

By proposing that humans, bats, and dolphins share a common ancestor

d)

By looking at where the animals live

27.

When we say that an individual organism has a greater fitness than another individual, we specifically mean that the organism

a)

lives longer than others of its species.

b)

competes for resources more successfully than others of its species.

c)

mates more frequently than others of its species.

d)

utilizes resources more efficiently than other species occupying similar niches.

e)

leaves more viable offspring than others of its species.

28.

What does a phylogenetic tree show?

a)

shows how living organisms are related to each other using evidences

b)

organizes living organisms by color

c)

shows how living organisms interact with each other in the real world

d)

shows how certain organisms grow based on their genes

29.

a __________ is a segment of DNA that codes for a protein

a)

gene

b)

allele

c)

histone

d)

helix

30.

How many different phenotypes would exist in trait that is controlled by incomplete dominance?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

more than four

31.

somatic cells have ______ SET(S) of chromosomes and gametes have ______ SET(S) of chromosomes

a)

one, two

b)

two, one

c)

three, six

d)

four, two

32.

What is the correct analysis for this karyotype?

a)

male with trisomy 21 (down syndrome)

b)

female with trisomy 21 (down syndrome)

c)

male with XXY (klinefelter syndrome)

d)

female with XYY (jacob's syndrome)

33.

nondisjunction would likely result in

a)

a gamete with too few chromosomes

b)

a gamete with too many chromosomes

c)

either of these are possible results

34.

For a population to be in genetic equilibrium this must be true

a)

allelic frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation

b)

allelic frequencies in a population change slightly from generation to generation

c)

allelic frequencies in a population vary significantly from generation to generation

d)

none of these are true

35.

natural selection is

a)

survival and reproduction of the largest and strongest organisms

b)

survival and reproduction of the organisms best suited to their environment

c)

the organisms that acquire the best traits to suit the environment

d)

survival and reproduction of the smartest individuals in a population

36.

all of these bird species share a common ancestor that lived in this group of small islands long ago. the descent from a common ancestor in this island setting is referred to as

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

convergent evolution

c)

coevolution

d)

parallel evolution

37.

Which biochemical evidence would suggest that all living organisms share a common ancestor?

a)

all organisms construct protein using RNA, ribosomes, and the genetic code

b)

all organisms use ATP as an energy carrier

c)

all organisms carry genetic information in the form of DNA

d)

all of these

38.

Vestigial structures show

a)

how an ancestor may have lived

b)

how old a fossil is

c)

what the organism is not related to

d)

usefulness in the organism that has it

39.

DNA is made up of phosphates, sugars, and

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

bases

d)

iodine

40.

A red flower bred to a white flower produces red and white spotted flowers. This is an example of

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

recessive genes

c)

epistasis

d)

co-dominance

41.

The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?

a)

Segregation of sister chromatids

b)

Mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

c)

Crossing over in which alleles are exchanged

d)

Condensation and segregation of alleles

42.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
43.

A mutation resulting in no change from the original amino acid sequence

a)

substitution-silent

b)

substitution-nonsense

c)

substitution-missense

d)

frameshift

44.

What is the purpose of translation?

a)

to replicate DNA before cell division

b)

to assemble mRNA into a chain

c)

to synthesize amino acids that open up the DNA

d)

to use the genetic code to form a specific sequence of amino acids

45.

When does synthesis of DNA happen?

a)

S phase

b)

G1 phase

c)

M phase

d)

G2 phase

46.

Which of the following processes occurs in the nucleus

a)

DNA Replication and Transcription

b)

DNA Replication and Translation

c)

Transcription and Translation

d)

Translation and Modification

47.
Which scientist determined that DNA contains equal amounts of Guanine and Cytosine, and equal amounts of Adenine and Thymine?
a)
Erwin Chargaff
b)
James Watson and Francis Crick
c)
Rosalind Franklin
d)
Toby McGuire
48.
Which organelle assembles proteins?
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Ribosome
c)
Nucleus
d)
Mitochondrion
49.
When an red flower and a white flower are crossed and the offspring are pink flowers... 
a)
Codominance
b)
Epistasis
c)
Intollerance
d)
Incomplete Dominance
50.
A structure that no longer serves a purpose in the current organism, but may have had a purpose in an ancestor (Example: human tailbone).
a)
Homologous Structure
b)
Analogous Structure
c)
Vestigial Structure
d)
Complex Structure
51.
A collection of all of the organisms of the same species living in the same area.
a)
Community
b)
Population
c)
Ecosystem
d)
Biosphere
52.
As a cell becomes larger, its
a)
surface area increases faster than its volume.
b)
volume increases faster than its surface area
53.

A small cell has a ________ surface area to volume ratio than a larger cell.

a)

larger

b)

smaller

c)

equal

54.

Which of the following has the largest surface area to volume ratio?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

55.
Which type of reproduction increases genetic diversity?
a)
Sexual
b)
Asexual
c)
A and B
d)
None of the above
56.

When organisms are better adapted to their environment they will survive and reproduce more successfully than organisms less adapted. This process is called what?

a)

Selective breeding

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Cloning

d)

Evolution of all species

57.

Which scientist visited the Galapagos Islands and came up with the theory of natural selection?

a)

Theodor Schwann

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Rudolf Virchow

58.

Scientists have collected millions of fossils of different organisms, and have developed a timeline of life on Earth. What do we call this?

a)

Mutation

b)

Natural Selection

c)

The theory of evolution

d)

Fossil Record

59.

Sometimes bones in the front limbs of animals are very similar in structure. What do we call similar bone structures that indicate a link to a common ancestor?

a)

Adaptations

b)

Gradualism

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

Extinction

60.

A physical or behavioral trait that helps an organism survive and reproduce in its environment is called a what?

a)

An adaptation

b)

A response to a stimulus

c)

A mutation

d)

Evolution

61.

What most likely caused the finches on the Galapagos Islands to have beaks that were different from the finches on the mainland?

a)

There were different types of predators on the island.

b)

There were different types of food available on the island.

c)

The finches had no water to drink.

d)

The finches on the mainland could not fly high enough.

62.

When looking at two birds of the same species, you notice that one has darker feathers than the other one. You also notice that one has a beak that is just a little longer. These slight differences within members of the same species are called.....

a)

Fossils

b)

Extinction

c)

Meiosis

d)

Variations

63.

What is the study of organisms at the early stages of development?

a)

DNA studies

b)

Comparative Embryology

c)

Extinction

d)

Fossil Record

64.

Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals in a population?

a)

p2

b)

2pq

c)

q2

d)

p2 + 2pq

65.
What do you call all of the genes in a population?
a)
Gene pool
b)
Relative Frequency
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Allele pool
66.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Mutation
67.
What does the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium measure?
a)
changes in allele frequencies
b)
numbers of mutations
c)
goodness of fit
d)
genetic diversity
68.
A population of 150 individuals has an allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to determine the frequency of the genotype (bb).
a)
0.09
b)
0.42
c)
0.49
d)
0.21
69.
Which is a mechanism for change in allele frequency?
a)
gene flow
b)
genetic drift
c)
natural selection
d)
all answers are correct
70.
Gene flow involves
a)
Natural disasters killing most of the members of a population
b)
Individuals moving into and out of the population
c)
Selective mating
d)
Small changes because of the environment
71.

If a population experiences no migration, is very large, has no mutations, has random mating, and there is no selection, which of the following would you predict?

a)

The population will evolve, but much more slowly than normal

b)

The makeup of the population's gene pool will remain virtually the same as long as these conditions hold.

c)

The composition of the population's gene pool will change slowly in a predictable manner.

d)

Dominant alleles in the population's gene pool will slowly increase in frequency while recessive alleles will decrease.

e)

The population probably has an equal frequency of A and a alleles.

72.
When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,  what is NOT happening to the species?
a)
Survival
b)
Reproduction
c)
Death
d)
Evolution
73.

A chart that displays family relationships indicating traits or disorders

a)

Punnett square

b)

Pedigree

c)

Karyotype chart

74.

Each generation in a pedigree is marked with

a)

Arabic numerals

b)

Names of individuals

c)

Roman numerals

75.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
76.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
77.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
78.
What do half colored symbols represent?
a)
The individual is a carrier (heterozygous).
b)
The individual expresses the trait.
c)
The individual has both recessive alleles.
d)
The individual has both dominant alleles.
79.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
80.
Give the genotype for person II-1, for this autosomal trait.
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
we cannot be 100% sure of the genotype
81.
If a trait SKIPS a generation, it is an indication that the trait is....
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
c)
incompletely dominant
d)
co-dominant
82.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
83.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

84.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

85.

Why must transcription occur where DNA can be found?

a)

because DNA can't leave

b)

because ribosomes are in the nucleus

c)

because DNA polymerase is found there

d)

because helicase unzips the DNA

86.

How many codons equals 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

87.

How many nucleotides equal 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

88.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

89.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

90.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
91.
A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base form the building blocks of which organic compound?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
lipids
d)
proteins
92.
which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
93.
What molecules do both DNA and RNA contain?
a)
uracil
b)
nucleotides
c)
thymine
d)
deoxyribose
94.
The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is part of a gene. how many amino acids are coded for by this message?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
12
d)
20
95.
One human disease is caused by a change in one codon in a gene from GAA to GUA. The disease is a result of 
a)
a mutation
b)
crossing-over
c)
a meiosis error
d)
polyploidy
96.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
97.
Which process?
a)
mutation
b)
transcription
c)
respiration
d)
translation
98.
An RNA polymer is composed of subunits known as
a)
polysaccharides
b)
ribose molecules
c)
nucleotides
d)
uracil molecules
99.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
100.

In eukaryotes, which organelle is DNA usually found in?

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

101.
The sugar in DNA is ?
a)
sucrose
b)
glucose
c)
deoxyribose
d)
fructose
102.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
103.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
104.
If a DNA molecule consists of 29% Guanine, how much cytosine will it contain?
a)
29%
b)
58%
c)
21%
d)
I have no idea.

Similar Resources on Wayground

Honors Bio Practice Final Exam Fall Semester

100 questions

Honors Bio Practice Final Exam Fall Semester

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Evolution Pre-Test

100 questions

Evolution Pre-Test

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Unit 8: Ecosystem & Community Ecology Recap

102 questions

Unit 8: Ecosystem & Community Ecology Recap

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Biology EOC Review Quiz

100 questions

Biology EOC Review Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Biology A Exam Review

100 questions

Biology A Exam Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

GMAS Review - Biology

99 questions

GMAS Review - Biology

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 11th Grade

CA 5 BIOLOGY EOC

104 questions

CA 5 BIOLOGY EOC

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 10th Grade

AP Enzymes Review 2023

100 questions

AP Enzymes Review 2023

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade