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Biology 2nd Semester Final Review questions

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 30hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What phase of mitosis is this?

a)

anaphase

b)

telophase

c)

prophase

d)

metaphase

2.

What stage of mitosis is this?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

3.

During what phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids separate?

a)

Prophase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

4.

What happens during telophase?

a)

the nuclear membrane reforms and the chromosomes are at the poles

b)

the sister chromatids split

c)

the sister chromatids line up in the middle

d)

the chrmatin coils up into chromosomes

5.

If a cell has 10 pairs of chromosomes before mitosis, how many will it have after?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

6.

IN what phase of the cell cycle does the DNA replicate?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

7.

90% of a cells life is spent in what phase?

a)

Telophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

8.

What is it called when a cell begins to replicate out of control?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

cancer

d)

Parkinson's disease

9.

What holds the sister chromatids together?

a)

centromere

b)

centriole

c)

a homologous pair

d)

chromatin

10.

As a cell grows in both surface area and volume, what happens to the surface area to volume ratio?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It stays the same

11.

What's Chromatin?

a)

Tightly coiled up DNA

b)

An organelle that pulled sister chromatids apart.

c)

A chemical used to kill cancer cells

d)

Unwound DNA

12.

What do plant cells have during cell division that animal cells do not?

a)

Centrioles

b)

Centromeres

c)

A cell plate

d)

Chromatin

13.

What happenes during the process of metastasis?

a)

A sample of tissue taken form a tumor and analyzed by a doctor

b)

When a tumor breaks apart and cancer cells spread to the surrounding tissue

c)

Chemicals are used to destroy cancer cells

d)

Sister chromatids split up

14.

What is it called when a sample of tissue taken form a tumor and analyzed by a doctor?

a)

Cyclin activity

b)

Tumor supression

c)

Biopsy

d)

cancer surgery

15.

What is this structure called?

a)

chromosome

b)

sister chromatid

c)

centromere

d)

chromatin

16.

Which of the following is not a reason cells divide?

a)

To Maintain a surface area to volume ratio that allows for efficient diffusion

b)

To Replace dead cells

c)

To increase the chromosome number

d)

To allow the organism to grow

17.

What is the proper order of phases in mitosis?

a)

Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase, Prophase

18.

A Emu has a diploid number of 82. What is an emu's haploid number?

a)

41

b)

82

c)

164

d)

28

19.

Dark moths get eaten more often in what kinds of forests?

a)

polluted industrial revolution forests

b)

clean pre industrial revolution forests

c)

the forests of the Galapagos islands

d)

The forests of the Russian Taiga

20.

What is a whale pelvis an example of?

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial organ

d)

the fossil record

21.

What is a bat wing and a bird wing an example of?

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial organ

d)

the fossil record

22.

According to Figure 14-4, What is the correct chronological order of life as it evolves?

a)

small mammals, fish, reptiles, birds

b)

fish, small mammals birds, reptiles

c)

fish, reptiles, birds, small mammals

d)

small mammals, birds, fish, reptiles

23.

White Tail Deer live on the eastern side of hte Rocky Mountains. Black Tail Deer live on the west side of the Rocky Mountains. What kind of speciation is this?

a)

geographic

b)

behavioral

c)

Temporal

d)

Ecological

24.

Birds sing songs to attract mates. What kind of speciation is this?

a)

geographic

b)

behavioral

c)

Temporal

d)

Ecological

25.

How many Hydrogen Bonds are there between an A and a T?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

26.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
27.

Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand

ATG TGA CAG

a)

ATG TGA CAG

b)

TAC ACT GTC

c)

TAC ACT CAG

d)

UAC ACU GUC

28.

Which of the following is something that both DNA and RNA have in common?

a)

double helix structure

b)

Uracil

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

Guanine

29.

What is the molecule inside the dashed line oval called?

a)

Sugar

b)

Phosphate

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Nitrogen Base

30.

What is it called when a DNA molecule is copied during S phase?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Reproduction

31.

What are Guanine, thymine, adenine, cytosine, and uracil are all examples of?

a)

nitrogen bases

b)

RNA

c)

Nucleotides

d)

DNA

32.

In what way is DNA the "instructions for life?"

a)

DNA is the molecule that the cell uses to attack other cells

b)

The cell uses DNA to make proteins, and then uses the proteins to do many important things.

c)

The cell uses DNA to digest food and build cell walls

d)

The cell reads DNA like a computer reads a program. This "program" is made up of more and more DNA strands.

33.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
ribosome
c)
cytoplasm
d)
smooth ER
34.

TRANSLATE this RNA sequence: AUG CAA UGA

a)

Met-Glu-Stop

b)

Met-His-Stop

c)

Thr-Glu-Stop

d)

Thr-Pro-Stop

35.

Organisms well suited to their environment will:

a)

reproduce more successfully than those less suited to the same environment.

b)

always be larger than organisms less suited to that environment.

c)

always live longer than organisms less suited to that environment.

d)

need less food than organisms less suited to that environment.

36.

Choose the following statement that fits Darwin’s explanation of Natural Selection:

a)

All offspring have an equal chance of survival

b)

Organisms always produce exactly the number of offspring that can survive in an environment.

c)

All traits are created equal in an environment.

d)

There is variation of traits among populations of organism and some traits are more advantageous than others.

37.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an evolutionary adaptation?

a)

human’s opposable thumbs

b)

having a hard outer shell to protect you from predators

c)

camouflage

d)

exercising a lot and building stronger muscle that allows you to run faster

38.

What is a human appendix an example of?

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial organ

d)

the fossil record

39.

What is the probability of a man and a woman having 3 male offspring in a row?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

12.5%

d)

100%

40.

Which of the following would have a short wrinkled green phenotype?

a)

TtRrYY

b)

TTRRYy

c)

ttrryy

d)

Ttrryy

41.

There are 3 different forms of the blood type gene. What are these different forms called?

a)

traits

b)

genes

c)

pedigrees

d)

alleles

42.

If a black cat and a white cat had offspring that had both black and white color on them, what kind of inheritance would that be?

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

codominant

c)

incompletely dominant

d)

completely dominant

43.

Skin, hair color and eye color are all examples of what type of inheritance?

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

co dominant

c)

incompletely dominant

d)

polygenetic traits

44.

Cross a woman with type A blood (whose father is type O) and a man with type B blood (whose father is type A). What would be the expected percentage of offspring with the genotype Bo?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

e)

0%

45.

A red flower is crossed with a white flower and it produces pink flowers. What would the expected phenotype fractions be if two pink flowers were crossed?

a)

all red

b)

1/2 red, 1/2 white

c)

1/4 red, 1/2 pink, 1/4 white

d)

1/2 red, 1/4 pink, 1/4 white

46.

When individual 1 and 2 had children, what was the chances of them having a female offspring who was a carrier?

a)

0%

b)

50%

c)

100%

d)

25%

47.

What is it called when homologous pairs of chromosomes do not separate properly in anaphase I causing offspring to have more or less than 2 chromosomes?

a)

hemophilia

b)

autosomal traits

c)

non disjunction

d)

incomplete dominance

48.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

49.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

50.

Where does translation occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

51.

How many nucleotides equal 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

52.

The 3 bases of an mRNA sequence are known as a _____.

a)

codon

b)

amino acid

c)

nitrogen base

d)

5 carbon sugar

53.

What is an anticodon?

a)

the 3 nucleotides on a tRNA that compliment a codon

b)

an enzyme that destroys a codon

c)

the other side of the DNA stand

d)

the complimentary 3 nucleotides on a mRNA

54.

What does a restriction enzyme do?

a)

stops transcription from happening

b)

stops mRNA form leaving the nucleus

c)

cuts DNA

d)

makes DNA fragments glow

55.

Which of the following explains why DNA moves across a electrophoresis gel?

a)

larger DNA molecules are pulled by gravity

b)

they are pulled by RFLP fragments

c)

DNA is negatively charges and one side of the gel is charged positive.

d)

The DNA moves by diffusion

56.

Which of the following is DNA fingerprinting not used for?

a)

determine the shape of a DNA molecule

b)

identify a suspect in a criminal case

c)

identify a parent in a paternity case

d)

identify the human remains

57.

How many codons are there for Histidine?

a)

0

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

58.

How do you get rid of a cell's nuclear membrane in order to release the DNA?

a)

inject it with a virus

b)

use the electrophoresis process

c)

charge it with electricity

d)

soak it in detergent (soap)

59.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
60.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
61.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
62.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
63.

RNA has what base that is instead of thymine?

a)

guanine

b)

adenine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

64.

What enzyme does transcription use?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

helicase

65.

THE DOUBLE HELIX OF DNA UNWINDS, THE RED SINGLE STRAND OF MRNA MAKES A COPY OF THE DNA ON MRNA

a)

REPLICATION

b)

TRANSCRIPTION

c)

TRANSLATION

66.

A STRAND OF AMINO ACIDS BOND TOGETHER TO FORM______

a)

AMINO ACIDS

b)

FATS

c)

PROTEIN

67.

CODON OR TRIPLET

a)

CODON

b)

TRIPLET

68.

WHAT IS #1

a)

TRIPLET

b)

CODON

69.

WHAT IS #2( #2 MATCHES UP WITH #1)

a)

CODON

b)

TRIPLET

c)

ANTI-CODON

70.

#2 IS A RIBOSOME READING THE MRNA CODE AND ASSEMBLING AMINO ACIDS AT THE TOP, THIS PROCESS IS CALLED

a)

REPLICATION

b)

TRANSLATION

c)

TRANSCRIPTION

71.

TAT PAIRS WITH____IN RNA

a)

AUA

b)

ATA

72.

This laboratory procedure is known as

a)

CLONING

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

chromatography

d)

use of a dichotomous key

73.

In preparation for an electrophoresis procedure, enzymes are added to DNA in order to

a)

convert the DNA into gel

b)

cut the DNA into fragments

c)

change the color of the DNA

d)

produce longer sections of DNA

74.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
75.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
76.
During gel electrophoresis, DNA moves from the ___ end to the ___ end.
a)
positive, negative
b)
negative, positive
77.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
78.
what is the sugar in DNA
a)
deoxyribose
b)
ribose
c)
sucrose
d)
glucose
79.

The base that pairs with adenine.

a)

thymine

b)

guanine

c)

cytosine

d)

phosphate

80.

Chromosomes that are similar in size, shape, and genetic content; in a pair, one chromosome came from each of two parents

a)
homologous chromosomes
b)
chromatids
c)
zygote
d)
alleles
81.
A form of cell division that halves the number of chromosomes when forming reproductive cells
a)
sister chromatids
b)
mitosis
c)
meiosis
d)
budding
82.
exchange of chromosome segments between homologous chromosomes
a)
crossing over
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
heterozygous
d)
autosomes
83.
characteristics that are inherited
a)
alleles
b)
homologous chromosomes 
c)
traits
d)
purebred
84.
the study of inheritance patterns and variation in organisms
a)
biology
b)
genetics
c)
statistics
d)
chemistry
85.
alternative forms of a gene
a)
traits
b)
alleles
c)
phenotype
d)
chromosome
86.
A genotype in which the two alleles are the same
a)
divergent
b)
heterozygous
c)
homozygous
d)
convergent
87.
A set of alleles that an individual has for a trait or characteristic
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
c)
karyotype
d)
gametes
88.
The physical appearance of a trait or characteristic
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
c)
genetic code
d)
RNA
89.
The expressed form of the trait when two different alleles appear together
a)
recessive
b)
redundant 
c)
repetitive 
d)
dominant
90.
The trait not expressed when the dominant form is present
a)
excessive
b)
genetic code
c)
recessive
d)
dominant 
91.
allele pairs separate independently of each other during meiosis
a)
law of segregation
b)
law of independent assortment
c)
homozygous
d)
heterozygous
92.
A genotype in which the two alleles are different
a)
homozygous
b)
heterozygous
c)
divergent 
d)
convergent
93.

Which is the Dominant Allele in a genotype?

a)

a capital letter

b)

a lowercase letter

c)

a number

d)

the most common version in a population

94.
Which combination is Homozygous Dominant
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
hH
95.

Which Combination is Heterozygous

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

none of the above

96.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, ____ occurs.
a)
mutagenesis
b)
hybridization
c)
crossing over
d)
fertilization
97.

Another word for heterozygous is

a)

purebred

b)

hybrid

c)

dominant

d)

recessive

98.

A diploid carrot cell has 18 chromosomes, so the haploid carrot pollen grain contains

a)

18 chromosomes

b)

9 chromosomes

c)

27 chromosomes

d)

None of the above

99.
Who is the "Father of Genetics"
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Leoric Book
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Malcolm Reynolds
100.
When does crossing-over occur?
a)
Metaphase 1
b)
Prophase 2
c)
Prophase 1
d)
Metaphase 2
101.
Which parent is purebred?
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
GS
d)
Gs
102.
Which is the Dominant Allele?
a)
A
b)
a
103.
Which is the Recessive Allele?
a)
A
b)
a
104.
Which combination is Homozygous Dominant
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
hH
105.
Which Combination is Heterozygous
a)
WW
b)
Ww
c)
ww
106.
What are the parent's Genotypes?
a)
Bb x Bb
b)
BB x Bb
c)
BB x bb
d)
Bb x Bb
107.
What are the possible Gamete combination for: GgRR
a)

GR, gR

b)
GR, gr, GR, gr
c)
GR, Gr, gR, gr
d)
GG, gg, RR, RR
108.

Which of the following is heterozygous?

a)

MM

b)

Mm

c)

mm

109.

Which of the following is homozygous recessive?

a)

QQ

b)

Qq

c)

qq

110.

If Y (yellow) is the dominant allele for pea plant seed color, which of the following would produce green seeds?

a)

yy

b)

Yy

c)

YY

d)

gg

111.

What are the chances that two white flower (pp) pea plants could produce a purple flower pea plant?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

112.
What is it called when a sperm and egg meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
113.
A human being has a somatic cell that has 46 chromosomes.  What is the haploid number found in a gamete?
a)
23
b)
46
c)
69
d)
92
114.
Meiosis occurs in the testes in men and the ___________ in women.
a)
uterus
b)
cervix
c)
ovaries
d)
stomach
115.
You get one homologous chromosome from your ________ and one from your _______.  
a)
dad, mom
b)
brother, sister
c)
grandmother, grandfather
d)
dog, cat
116.
The purpose of meiosis is to form ________ cells.
a)
body
b)
sex
c)
somatic
d)
brain
117.
If you have a parent who has GgBb as their genotype, what are the possible alleles they could donate to their gametes?
a)
GB, Gb, gB, gb
b)
GB, GB, gb, gb
c)
Gb, Gb, Gb, GB
d)
GG, BB, gg, bb
118.
T4 - Based off this Punnett Square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/16
d)
16/16

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