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WorksheetsAP Biology Essential Knowledge
Total questions: 130
Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins
Which experimental variable is measured and found on the Y axis of a graph?
Independent
Dependent
Controlled
Which of the following is an acceptable alternative hypothesis?
A change in the designated independent variable will have no effect on the dependent variable
A change in the designated independent variable will have an effect on the dependent variable
A change in the designated independent variable will increase the dependent variable
Experimental components that are NOT given a specified “treatment” (ex. placebo pill) are called _
Negative control groups
Positive control groups
Negative controlled variables
Positive controlled variables
If the independent variable for a given experiment is a set of numerical values a _ graph should be used to represent the data (in most cases!)
Line
Bar
XY
Box and whisker
When calculating percent change, you divide the difference between the new value and the original value by _
The original value
The new value
100
A bar graph has error bars that represent +/- 2 standard error of the mean. Which of the following is an acceptable conclusion if the means are different but the error bars are overlapping?
The values are statistically different
The null hypothesis should NOT be rejected (fail to reject)
The sample size is too small
The standard deviation is too large
Which of the following claims is consistent with chi-square hypothesis testing?
The chi-square value is lower than the critical value in the table --> fail to reject the null hypothesis
The chi-square value is lower than the critical value in the table --> reject the null hypothesis
The chi-square value is lower than the p value --> fail to reject the null hypothesis
The chi-square value is lower than the p value --> reject the null hypothesis
The chi-square value is lower than the critical value in the table --> accept the null hypothesis
Prokaryotic cells are small and simple cells found _
Bacteria
Animals
Plants
Fungi
Which of the following explains water's unique properties (high specific heat, lower density in solid form, cohesion, adhesion, and high surface tension)?
Water is polar, which allows hydrogen bonds to form between nearby molecules
Water is nonpolar, which allows hydrogen bonds to form between nearby molecules
Water is polar, which allows covalent bonds to form between nearby molecules
Water is nonpolar, which allows covalent bonds to form between nearby molecules
The addition of H2O molecules _ covalent bonds between adjacent monomers, a process called _
Cleaves, hydrolysis
Cleaves, dehydration synthesis
Forms, hydrolysis
Forms, dehydration synthesis
What are the defining properties of lipids?
Nonpolar and hydrophobic
Nonpolar and hydrophilic
Polar and hydrophobic
Polar and hydrophilic
Which of the following is NOT found in DNA nucleotides (monomers)?
Deoxyribose sugars/monosacchardies
Phosphate groups
Nitrogenous bases
Side chains/R groups
Which nitrogenous base is only found in RNA nucleotides?
A
T
C
G
U
What type of bond holds two strands of DNA together in the center of the double helix?
Hydogen
Covalent
Phosphodiester
Metallic
Which of the following provides an example of a DNA base pair?
A-T
A-U
T-C
G-G
What charge do DNA and RNA molecules have due to their phosphate groups?
Negative
Positive
All of the following are types of proteins EXCEPT
Enzymes
Receptors
Transporters
Hormones
Polysaccharides
Which element is found in nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) AND proteins?
N
P
S
There are 20 different types of _, the monomers of proteins
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Sugars/monosaccharides
Fatty acids
Nitrogenous bases
Which structural component of an amino acid affects its chemical properties (ex. polar and hydrophilic)?
Amino group
Carboxylic acid group
Side chain/R group
Phosphate group
Peptide bonds in polypeptides (protein polymers) are covalent bonds between _
Adjacent side chains/R groups
Adjacent carboxylic acid groups
Adjacent amino groups
The carboxylic acid group of one amino acid and the amino group of the next
The amino group of one amino acid and the carboxylic acid group of the next
A polypeptides' primary structure is the number, type, and sequence of amino acids. What allows polypeptides to have secondary and tertiary structure?
Folding
Gene expression
DNA replication
Transcription
Translation
Which of the following is an example of a tertiary structure interaction in a polypeptide?
A hydrogen bond between an amino group and a carboxyl group of its backbone
A covalent bond (disulfide bridge) between amino acid R groups/side chains
An alpha helix
A beta pleated sheet
A hydrogen bond between an amino group of its backbone and a side chain/R group
_ are molecules that bind to enzymes (i.e. what “enters” the chemical reaction)
Substrates
Proteins
Products
Amino acids
What effect do enzyme active sites have on chemical reactions?
They de-stabilize the transition state
They increase activation energy
They speed up reactions
They inhibit metabolism
What biological interactions involve compatibility of shape and charge?
Enzyme active sites and substrates
Receptor binding sites and ligands
Both answers are correct
Why do very high temperatures generally have an adverse effect on enzymatic activity?
Substrates and enzymes move more slowly, and are less likely to collide to produce a successful reaction
Denaturation occurs
Renaturation occurs
Which of the following conditions allows for optimized enzymatic activity and product formation?
Unlimited substrate with unlimited enzymes
Unlimited substrate with limited enzymes
Limited substrate with limited enzymes
Limited substrate with unlimited enzymes
How does noncompetitive inhibition of enzymes work?
Inhibitors bind to enzyme allosteric sites, which alters the active site (prevents substrate binding)
Inhibitors bind to enzyme active sites (prevents substrate binding)
Inhibitors bind to enzyme active sites (enhances substrate binding)
Inhibitors binds to enzyme allosteric sites, which alters the active site (enhances substrate binding)
Where is DNA located in eukaryotic cells?
Stored on multiple, linear chromosomes that are contained within a nucleus
Stored on a single, circular chromosome that is freely floating in the cytoplasm
Stored on multiple, linear chromosomes that are freely floating the cytoplasm
Stored on a single, circular chromosome that is contained within a nucleus
Genes are specific sequences of _ nucleotide bases (As, Ts, Cs, and Gs)
DNA
RNA
Protein
What are the two steps of gene expression?
1) Transcription
2) Translation
1) Translation
2) Transcription
1) Mitosis
2) Meiosis
1) DNA Replication
2) Division
What is synthesized in the 5' --> 3' direction from the template/non-coding/minus/antisense strand during transcription?
Genes
RNA molecules
Polypeptides
DNA molecules
Polysaccharides
What enzyme synthesizes RNA molecules (mRNA, tRNA, rRNA, regulatory RNA, etc.) during transcription?
RNA polymerase
DNA polymerase
Helicase
Ligase
Primase
What sequences are removed from mRNA during RNA processing (eukaryotic cells)?
Introns
Exons
GTP cap
Poly-A tail
Codons
What cellular organelle found in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough ER makes translation possible?
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Chloroplast
Nucleus
Lysosome
What type of RNA contains anticodons that pair with codons during translation?
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
miRNA
siRNA
What is synthesized during translation due to repeated interactions between mRNA codons and tRNA anticodons?
Polypeptides, which are protein polymers
Polypeptides, which are nucleic acid polymers
Amino acids, which are protein polymers
Amino acids, which are nucleic acid polymers
What events of gene expression are impacted by mutations, random permanent changes in DNA?
The synthesis of RNA during transcription
The synthesis of proteins/polypeptides during translation
Both answers are correct
Which of the following cellular organelles allows for polypeptide folding/enzymatic modification and the packaging of polypeptides in vesicles to traffic their destination?
Golgi
Rough ER
Smooth ER
Lysosome
Vacuole
Which organelles are membrane sacs containing hydrolytic enzymes that perform hydrolysis at low pH levels (acidic)?
Golgi bodies
Rough ER
Smooth ER
Lysosomes
Vacuoles
_ are DNA sequences that allow bacterial/prokaryotic cells to synthesize a single mRNA molecule that is subsequently translated into polypeptide subunits that assemble into 2+ proteins
Operons
Operators
Promoters
Enhancers
Silencers
If an operon is being repressed then a repressor is bound to the _ sequence
Operator
Promoter
Gene
Enhancer
Silencer
If an operon is being expressed then RNAP is bound to the _ sequence
Operator
Promoter
Gene
Enhancer
Silencer
Which of the following explains a key difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic regulation of gene expression?
Only eukaryotic regulation involves transcription factors
Only eukaryotic regulation involves activators and repressors
Only prokaryotic regulation involves regulatory genes
Only prokaryotic regulation involves one gene influencing the expression of another gene
The expression of a eukaryotic gene involves the binding of RNAP and transcription factors to the _
Promotor
Gene
Enhancer
Silencer
Operator
What accounts for cell differentiation/specialization in eukaryotic organisms?
Differences in gene expression/protein synthesis
Uniformity of transcription factor, activator, and repressor concentrations
Differences in DNA sequences from one cell type to another
The events of the cell cycle
Which biotechnology technique creates dark bands that show the separation of DNA molecules based on size?
Gel electrophoresis
PCR
Transformation
Sequencing
Signals that allow for cell communication are typically in the form of _
Chemicals (molecules and ions)
Action potentials (electrical)
Electromagnetic radiation (light)
What form of signaling allows for long distance communication between cells (involves hormones and the blood stream)?
Autocrine
Juxtactine
Paracrine
Endocrine
Synapatic
Reception (cell communication) involves the binding of _ to receptor proteins found on or within target cells (those with the receptor)
Ligands
Substrates
Enzymes
Amino acids
Nucleotides
What term describes the series of chemical reactions and interactions that link ligand binding to target cell responses?
Transduction
Transformation
Conjugation
Transposition
Which of the following is a common second messenger of signal transduction pathways that relays and amplifies the intracellular signal?
cAMP
Kinase
ADP
Phosphatase
Which of the following is potential consequence when any element of a signal transduction pathway (ex. a protein kinase) is inhibited?
Cells fail to receive signals from other cells
Cells see an increase in receptor protein conformational changes
Cells amplify the intracellular signal more efficiently
Cells see an increase in protein activation
Cells fail to express certain genes
What occurs in negative feedback (homeostasis)?
An organism’s conditions are returned to an ideal point and then the mechanism is shut down
An organism’s conditions are returned to an ideal point and the mechanism is amplified
An organism’s conditions are distanced from an original point and the mechanism is amplified
An organism’s conditions are distanced from an original point and then the mechanism is shut down
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the cell cycle?
Growth
Maintenance
Repair
Gamete production
What occurs during S phase of the cell cycle?
Growth
DNA/chromosome replication
Mitosis
Cytokinesis
Meiosis
RNA nucleotide primers are added to both template parent strands during semi-conservative DNA replication by _
DNA polymerase
Topoisomerase
Primase
Helicase
Ligase
As is the case with RNAP, DNA polymerase (DNAP) synthesizes daughter DNA strands in the _ direction
5' --> 3'
3' --> 5'
What is the purpose of mitosis and cytokinesis?
Producing genetically identical daughter cells for growth, maintenance, and repair
Producing genetically different daughter cells that have different functions
Producing genetically identical daughter cells that always enter dormancy
Producing genetically different daughter cells that are used in sexual reproduction/fertilization
_ synthesized by centrosomes allow for the equal division of _ during mitosis
Microtubule proteins, sister chromatids
Microtubule proteins, homologous chromosome pairs
Enzymes, homologous chromosome pairs
Enzymes, sister chromatids
Which of the following events occurs towards the end of mitosis and M phase?
The break down of the nucleus
The condensing of chromatin into chromosomes
The formation of a nucleus in each daughter cell
The attachment of microtubules to sister chromatids
What is a consequence to disruptions in cell cycle regulation?
Cells divide too frequently, forming cancerous tumors
Healthy cells undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death)
Increased production of gametes
_ phosphorylate proteins associated with cell division, which allows cells to progress through different checkpoints
Cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks)
Cyclins
Growth factors
Phosphatases
Plasma and organelle membranes are _ containing many different proteins and other molecules (ex. cholesterol)
Phospholipid bilayers
Triacylglycerols
Fatty acids
Polysaccharides
Complex carbs
Water's polarity causes nonpolar and hydrophobic _ to be found in a membrane's interior
Fatty acids
Glycerols
Phosphate groups
Side chains
Cell walls are cell organelles containing polysaccharides/complex carbs found in many cells, but NOT _ cells
Animal
Plant
Fungal
Bacterial
The endosymbiotic theory explains the origin of _
Cell compartmentalization
Eukaryotic organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts
Large bacteria
Phospholipid bilayers
A large _ increases cell and organismal efficiency of matter and energy acquisition/dissipation
Surface area
Volume
Surface area to volume ratio
Why is it beneficial for a membrane to be highly folded?
This allows more surface area to fit in a given volume
This increases surface area
This increases volume
This decreases volume
Membranes are semi or selectively _, meaning only certain substances can pass through the phospholipid bilayer
Permeable
Polar
Malleable
Conservative
How are nonpolar and hydrophobic molecules such as O2, CO2, N2 transported?
They move through the bilayer
They move through transport proteins
They utilize vesicles
How are ions such as Na+ and K+ transported?
They move through the bilayer
They move through transport proteins
They utilize vesicles
Which of the following is a feature of passive transport?
An input of energy (ex. ATP hydrolysis)
Equilibrium being reached
The movement of substances from low concentration to high concentration (against gradient)
The utilization of vesicles
Osmosis is the movement of free water molecules to areas of high _
Solute concentration/osmolarity/tonicity
Free water concentration
Water potential
How do most water molecules move across membranes?
Simple diffusion through the bilayer
Facilitated diffusion through aquaporin transporters
Phagocytosis
Exocytosis
The water potential inside a cell is calculated, and then the water potential outside a cell is calculated. It is predicted that water will move to the area where water potential is _
Lower
Higher
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
What allows for the movement of substances against their chemical gradient during active transport?
Energy input from ATP or another source
Channel transport proteins
Vesicles
_ involves vesicles transporting substances (typically macromolecules) fusing with membranes and secreting substances out of cells
Exocytosis
Endocytosis
Phagocytosis
Pinocytosis
Gametes made in meiosis by sexually reproducing species are _
Genetically unique and haploid (1n)
Genetically unique and diploid (2n)
Genetically identical and haploid (1n)
Genetically identical and diploid (2n)
The fusing of gametes in _ produces a(n) _
Fertilization, zygote
Fertilization, embryo
Meiosis, zygote
Meiosis, embryo
Which of the following statements regarding homologous chromosomes is FALSE?
They first appear in diploid zygotes (fertilization products)
One is paternally inherited and one is maternally inherited
They contain the same types of DNA sequences, including genes
They are produced due to S phase of the cell cycle and therefore contain identical DNA
Humans typically have 23 homologous chromosome pairs
What two events of meiosis explain why gametes are genetically unique?
Crossover and random segregation
Independent assortment and fertilization
Fertilization and homologous recombination
Crossover and regulation of gene expression
Mitosis and cytokinesis
The two cells produced in Meiosis I (the first division of meiosis) are _
Haploid (1n)
Diploid (2n)
As is the case with mitosis, chromosomes line up in the center of cells during _ of meiosis
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Crossover/homologous recombination occurs during _ of meiosis. Recombined sister chromatids are separated by microtubules during _
Prophase I, Anaphase I
Metaphase I, Anaphase I
Prophase I, Anaphase II
Metaphase I, Anaphase I
Most traits and genetic disorders are passed from one generation to the next due to the inheritance of _
Chromosomal/nuclear DNA
Mitochondrial DNA
Chloroplast DNA
Plasmids
All of the following can cause genetic disorders to arise EXCEPT
Errors in meiosis (ex. nondisjuction)
Errors in DNA replication
The presence of mutagens (chemicals and radiation)
Errors in gene expression (transcription and translation)
Alleles are variants/versions/types of a _ (one inherited from each parent)
Homologous chromosome
Gene
Phenotype
Sister chromatid
Which of the following is NOT an example of a genotype?
Homozygous dominant (AA)
Heterozygous (Aa)
Homozygous recessive (aa)
Purple flowered
Which of the following explains the difference between dominant and recessive alleles?
Dominant alleles are inherited on chromosomes whereas recessive alleles are inherited on plasmids
Dominant alleles in genotypes are expressed whereas recessive alleles in genotypes are never expressed
Dominant alleles are expressed in the phenotype if present (AA or Aa) whereas recessive alleles are only expressed in the phenotype if 2 are present (aa)
Dominant alleles are a component of genotypes whereas recessive alleles are components of phenotypes
What is the focus of polygenic inheritance?
Traits determined by many allele pairs (genotypes) and their observed manifestations (phenotypes)
Traits determined by alleles located on maternally inherited mitochondrial and chloroplast DNA
Traits determined by inherited factors that influence the regulation of expression of genotypes
Traits determined by genes where 3+ alleles exist
Sex-linked inheritance non-Mendelian because sex chromosomes can be _; organisms can have hemizygous genotypes where the phenotype is determined by _
Non-homologous, a single allele
Non-homologous, a pair of alleles
Homologous, a single allele
Homologous, a pair of alleles
Due to _ during prophase I of meiosis I is unlikely for alleles located _ to be separated, making it more likely that these linked alleles will be present in a produced gamete (gene linkage)
Crossover, close together on the same chromosome
Independent assortment, close together on the same chromosome
Crossover, on different chromosomes
Independent assortment, on different chromosomes
What is observed in autosomal recessive pedigrees?
Two unaffected parents (carriers) have affected offspring
Two affected parents (heterozygotes) have unaffected offspring
Affected females have all affected male offspring
Affected males have all affected female offspring
Affected females have all affected offspring (male and female)
What is observed in X-linked recessive pedigrees?
Two unaffected parents (carriers) have affected offspring
Two affected parents (heterozygotes) have unaffected offspring
Affected females have all affected male offspring
Affected males have all affected female offspring
Affected females have all affected offspring (male and female)
When performing a chi-square test for the null hypothesis that two genes are NOT linked (i.e. they assort independently), one should assume a _ ratio between the four different phenotype combinations (expected results)
1:1:1:1 (25% of each combo)
9:3:3:1
3:1:3:1
Evolution can be defined changes in the DNA and phenotypes of _ over time
Populations
Individual organisms
Ecosystems
Communities
What allows populations to be less susceptible to decline or extinction in the face of environmental pressure?
Low genetic diversity
Low phenotype diversity
High genetic and phenotype diversity
Which of the following statements regarding evolutionary fitness is FALSE?
It is, in part, determined by the environmental context
It exclusively involves the relative ability to survive
It has a significant impact on natural selection
It can be altered due to DNA or chromosomal mutations
What processes that are exclusive to sexually reproducing species increase genetic diversity/variation?
Meiosis and fertilization
Transduction and transposition
Transformation and conjugation
Viral transduction and signal transduction
What is the only mechanism of evolution that always results in the adaptation of populations?
Natural selection
Mutations
Genetic drift
Gene flow
Which of the following explains the adaptation of populations in natural selection?
High fitness variants pass their DNA on to future generations more frequently than low fitness variants
Populations choose to evolve in ways that benefit survival and/or reproduction
Selective pressures and the environment create variation that serves to influence reproductive success
Phenotypic shifts occur when there is little to no competition for resources
What is convergent evolution?
Similar selective pressures result in similar adaptations in different populations or species
Different selective pressures result in different adaptations within a population or species
Evolution that occurs slowly over hundreds of thousands or millions of years
Evolution that occurs rapidly after long periods of stasis (stability)
Genetic drift only has a significant impact on _ populations and occurs due to _ reproductive success
Small, random
Small, fitness-driven
Large, random
Large, fitness-driven
In order to solve any and all Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium problems (non-evolving populations), it is essential that you determine the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals (_) first
p
q
p2
2pq
q2
Speciation, evidenced by _, is the creation of new species from a _
Reproductive isolation, single ancestral species (common ancestor)
Reproductive isolation, species that has transformed into another
Continued gene flow, single ancestral species (common ancestor)
Continued gene flow, species that has transformed into another
_ barriers are mechanisms that impede mating or fertilization between species
Allopatric
Sympatric
Prezygotic
Postzygotic
Which of the following statements regarding cladograms and phylogenetic trees is FALSE?
Species are assumed to be closely related if they share recent common ancestors (nodes on tree)
The outgroup is the species or group that is least closely related to the other lineages (only 1 common ancestor)
Morphological data is more reliable that molecular data when it comes to their construction
They can be revised based on new morphological and/or molecular data
Which of the following is NOT relevant to evidencing evolution and common ancestry of species?
Geographic proximity
The fossil record
Comparing structures and functions
DNA, RNA, and protein sequence data
Cell and molecular uniformity
What are homologous structures?
Anatomical features with shared evolutionary origins that can develop new functions over time
Anatomical features that have the same functionality, but not the same evolutionary origin
Anatomical features in organisms that have lost function over evolutionary history
The hydrolysis of _ powers cellular work and metabolic processes
ATP
ADP
Pi
cAMP
What process allows for the synthesis of ATP from organic molecules and O2?
Cellular respiration
Photosynthesis
Chemosynthesis
Heterotrophy
What process allows for the synthesis of organic molecules from light energy, CO2, and H2O?
Cellular respiration
Photosynthesis
Chemosynthesis
Heterotrophy
Where does cellular respiration occur in eukaryotic cells (animals, plants, and fungi)?
Mitochondria
Chloroplasts
Lysosomes
Nuclei
Where does photosynthesis occur in plant and algal cells?
Mitochondria
Chloroplasts
Lysosomes
Nuclei
What processes allow for the synthesis of ATP in cellular respiration AND photosynthesis?
The electron transport chain and chemiosmosis
Chemiosmosis and glycolysis
Glycolysis and the Krebs Cycle
The Krebs Cycle and the Calvin Cycle
Which process involving NADH, FADH2, O2, and hydrogen ions (H+) accounts for the majority of ATP synthesized during cellular respiration?
Glycolysis
Pyruvate Oxidation
The Krebs Cycle
Oxidative Phosphorylation
What is oxidation (cellular respiration and photosynthesis)?
The loss of electrons
The gain of electrons
The loss of protons
The gain of protons
Which of the following is NOT an input of the Calvin Cycle?
H2O
NADPH
CO2
ATP
Groups of species and the abiotic factors that support them are best described as _
Populations
Communities
Ecosystems
Habitats
Biomes
_ is used to quantify biodiversity in an ecosystem. Generally speaking, ecosystems with _ biodiversity are more resilient in the face on environmental disruptions
Simpson's Diversity Index, high
Simpson's Diversity Index, low
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, high
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, low
The term _ describes the roles different species take on in supporting the overall health of their respective ecosystems
Symbiosis
Ecological niche
Trophic level
Tertiary consumer
_ growth occurs in populations where there are unlimited biotic and abiotic factors in their habitats
Exponential
Logistic
Disruptive
Directional
Adaptive
Which of the following is an example of a density independent factor that limits population growth?
Environmental disasters (fires, floods, hurricanes, etc.)
Food/energy availability
Predation
Herbivory
Communicable disease
_ growth is influenced by carrying capacity (K), the _ number of organisms that can be supported by a population’s habitat
Logistic, maximum
Logistic, minimum
Exponential, maximum
Exponential, minimum
_ is defined by interactions between populations where one species benefits while the other is unaffected
Commensalism
Mutualism
Symbiosis
Predation
Interspecific competition
_ are populations small in size that play key roles in maintaining ecosystem stability
Keystone species
Photoautotrophic producers
Chemoautotrophic producers
Decomposers
Invasive species
Which of the following statements regarding invasive species is FALSE?
They exploit a new niche free of predators
They outcompete native competitors for resources
They disrupt the balance of ecosystems
They recycle CO2 and other abiotic factors back into the system
They, in most cases, are introduced into ecosystems due to human activity
All of the following are human-driven processes that disrupt ecosystems EXCEPT
Climate change
Habitat destruction/fragmentation
Overexploitation
Spread of disease
Geological events
