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Unit 4 Review

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 3hrs 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
2.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
3.
Seals the Okazaki fragments together
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
helicase
d)
primase
4.

This repetitive sequences of DNA on the ends of chromosomes (TTAGGG) for protection.

a)

telomeres

b)

telomerase

c)

Okazaki fragments

d)

primer

5.
Experiment that radioactively labeled the proteins and DNA of bacteriophages to determine if DNA or protein was the transforming agent
a)
Avery
b)
Watson & Crick
c)
Messelson & Stahl
d)
Hershey & Chase
6.

How do the leading and the lagging strands differ?

a)

The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

b)

The leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.

c)

The leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together, whereas the lagging strand is synthesized continuously.

d)

The leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5? end.

7.
Which enzyme is needed to start DNA replication?
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
Topoisomerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
8.
Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?
a)
RNA primase
b)
single–strand binding proteins
c)
DNA polymerase I
d)
DNA ligase
9.
What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?
a)
The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
b)
One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
c)
The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.
d)
Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands
10.
What is meant that DNA replication follows a “semi-conservative” model?
a)
After DNA replication, each strand contains one side that is a parental strand and the other side is a daughter strand.
b)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains only parental DNA while the other contains only daughter DNA.
c)
None of these identify the “semi-conservative” model.
d)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains a mixture of both parental DNA and daughter DNA dispersed throughout the strand.
11.
Suppose a double-stranded DNA molecule was shown to have 15% adenine bases. What would be the expected percentage of guanine bases in that molecule?
a)
15%
b)
35%
c)
85%
d)
Not enough information
12.
Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Rough E.R.
13.
What is the complementary tRNA anticodon to the following mRNA codon: AUG
a)
UAC
b)
TAC
c)
ATG
d)
AAC
14.
Transcribe the following DNA sequence:
TAT GGC ACT 
a)
TAT GGC ACT
b)
ATA CCG TGA
c)
AUA GGC UGA
d)
UAU GGC ACU
15.
Translate the following RNA sequence:
AUG AAU UGU UGA
a)
Met-Phe-Cys-Stop
b)
Met-Asn-Cys-Stop
c)
Met-Asn-Cys-Trp
d)
Tyr-Leu-Thr-Thr
16.
 A frameshift mutation could result from 
a)
a base insertion only.
b)
a base deletion only. 
c)
a base substitution only. 
d)
either an insertion or a deletion of a base.
17.
The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is 
a)
complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.
b)
complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.
c)
the part of tRNA that bonds with a specific amino acid.
d)
catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.
18.
In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until 
a)
the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.
b)
several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.
c)
the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.
d)
the DNA introns are removed from the template.
19.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
silent
d)
transverse
20.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
21.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
22.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
23.
Which component of DNA determines the traits of an organism? 
a)
Nitrogen Bases
b)
Sugar-Phosphate Backbone
c)
Hydrogen bonds
24.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
25.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
26.

Which enzyme joins the Okazaki fragments in the lagging strand?

a)

Helicase

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

27.

The strand of DNA that is replicated continuously from 5' to 3' is known as

a)

leading strand

b)

lagging strand

c)

parallel strand

d)

antiparallel strand

28.
What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?
a)
to add modified guanin to the 3' end of the mRNA
b)
to indicate the site of translational termination
c)
to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA
d)
to help protect the mRNA from degradation by hydrolytic enzymes 
29.

How can a person's muscle cells have identical DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though they perform different functions?

a)

The two different cells become mutated

b)

The proteins expressed in each cell are different

c)

They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.

d)

The genome of the different cells changes

30.
The graph shows the relative rates of action of four enzymes, A, B, C, and D. Which enzyme shows the greatest change in its rate of action with the least change in pH?
a)
enzyme A 
b)
enzyme B 
c)
enzyme C
d)
enzyme D
31.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
32.

chromosomal mutations cause a segment of the chromosome to repeat itself during replication.

a)

inversion

b)

duplication

c)

translocation

d)

deletion

33.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
silent
d)
transverse
34.
Original DNA: CAT GAT
New DNA: CAT AT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
substitution 
c)
tranverse
d)
insertion
35.
Gene: ABC
New Gene: BBC
What mutation
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
substitution
d)
transversion
36.
What type of gene mutation results from the insertion or deletion of nucleotides and alters the entire amino acid sequence from that point forward?
a)
Frameshift
b)
Missense
c)
Nonsense
d)
Silent
37.
Which of the following mutations results in a non-functional protein because a stop codon appeared too early in the mRNA sequence?
a)
Frameshift
b)
Missense
c)
Nonsense
d)
Silent
38.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a 
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
39.
A frameshift mutation ultimately ends up affecting the position of the...
a)
Reading frame
b)
Nucleus
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Centrioles
40.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand: 
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
41.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
42.

Any change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene is called

a)

a mutation

b)

a codon

c)

a translation

d)

an anticodon

43.

A permanent change in the DNA sequence

which can affect a single gene or group of genes

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Somatic Cell

c)

Chromosomal Mutation

d)

Gene Mutation

44.

A point mutation where one nucleotide base replaces an original nucleotide base

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Chromosomal Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Substitution Mutation

45.

A nucleotide base is inserted or deleted shifting the entire DNA sequence. Entire protein will be changed.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

d)

Translocation

46.

A frameshift mutation where a nucleotide base

is removed from the DNA sequence.

a)

Deletion Mutation

b)

Substitution Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Silent Mutation

47.

Mutations that involve parts of or all of

a chromosome

a)

Replication

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Chromosomal Mutation

d)

Transcription

48.

Part of a chromosome is repeated

a)

Gene Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Deletion Mutation

d)

Duplication Mutation

49.

Part of a chromosome is reversed.

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Point Mutation

50.

Part of one chromosome is transported and attached

to a non-homologous chromosome

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Translocation Mutation

c)

Duplication Mutation

d)

Point Mutation

51.

What are the building blocks of DNA?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleotides

52.

Describe the double helix structure of DNA.

a)

A straight line formed by a single strand of nucleotides

b)

A twisted ladder-like shape formed by two strands of nucleotides held together by hydrogen bonds.

c)

A circular shape formed by three strands of nucleotides

d)

A square shape formed by four strands of nucleotides

53.

What are the four nitrogenous bases found in DNA?

a)

Thymine, Uracil, Cytosine, Adenine

b)

Adenine, Thymine, Uracil, Guanine

c)

Adenine, Uracil, Cytosine, Guanine

d)

Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine

54.

Explain the role of DNA in protein synthesis.

a)

DNA provides the instructions for making proteins through the process of transcription and translation.

b)

DNA is not involved in protein synthesis

c)

Protein synthesis occurs without the involvement of DNA

d)

Proteins provide the instructions for making DNA

55.

What is the primary function of RNA?

a)

Regulate gene expression by binding to specific proteins

b)

Carry out the instructions encoded in DNA for protein synthesis

c)

Store genetic information in the form of a double helix

d)

Facilitate the transfer of amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis

56.

Differentiate between DNA and RNA structure.

a)

DNA is single-stranded with ribose sugar and uracil base, while RNA is double-stranded with deoxyribose sugar and thymine base.

b)

DNA is double-stranded with deoxyribose sugar and thymine base, while RNA is single-stranded with ribose sugar and uracil base.

c)

DNA and RNA have the same structure and composition.

d)

DNA is single-stranded with deoxyribose sugar and thymine base, while RNA is double-stranded with ribose sugar and uracil base.

57.

What is the genetic code and how is it read?

a)

The genetic code is the set of rules by which information encoded in genetic material (DNA or RNA sequences) is translated into proteins. It is read by the ribosome in a process called translation.

b)

The genetic code is a secret message hidden in the DNA that only certain people can read

c)

The genetic code is a type of barcode that can be scanned to reveal genetic information

d)

The genetic code is a language spoken by cells to communicate with each other

58.

Explain the process of transcription in protein synthesis.

a)

Protein binds to DNA and creates a complementary RNA strand.

b)

RNA polymerase binds to RNA and creates a complementary DNA strand.

c)

DNA polymerase binds to RNA and creates a complementary DNA strand.

d)

RNA polymerase binds to DNA and creates a complementary RNA strand.

59.

What are the three types of RNA and their functions?

a)

mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA with their respective functions

b)

aRNA, bRNA, and cRNA with their respective functions

c)

xRNA, yRNA, and zRNA with their respective functions

d)

pRNA, qRNA, and sRNA with their respective functions

60.

How does the genetic code determine the sequence of amino acids in a protein?

a)

The genetic code determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein through the process of transcription and translation.

b)

The sequence of amino acids in a protein is determined by the environment

c)

The sequence of amino acids in a protein is determined by random chance

d)

The genetic code is not involved in determining the sequence of amino acids in a protein

61.

What is the role of tRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

tRNA carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosome.

b)

tRNA carries amino acids to the ribosome and matches them to the coded mRNA message.

c)

tRNA synthesizes new strands of DNA.

d)

tRNA has no role in protein synthesis.

62.

What is the difference between purines and pyrimidines?

a)

Purines are single-ringed structures, while pyrimidines are double-ringed.

b)

Purines are double-ringed structures, while pyrimidines are single-ringed.

c)

Purines and pyrimidines are the same.

d)

Purines are proteins, while pyrimidines are nucleotides.

63.

What is the process of DNA replication?

a)

DNA replication is the process of producing two identical replicas from one original DNA molecule.

b)

DNA replication is the process of producing proteins from DNA.

c)

DNA replication is the process of producing RNA from DNA.

d)

DNA replication is the process of producing carbohydrates from DNA.

64.

What is the role of mRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

mRNA carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosome.

b)

mRNA synthesizes new strands of DNA.

c)

mRNA carries amino acids to the ribosome and matches them to the coded tRNA message.

d)

mRNA has no role in protein synthesis.

65.

What is the difference between a nucleotide and a nucleoside?

a)

A nucleotide is a nucleoside with one or more phosphate groups, while a nucleoside is a nucleotide without any phosphate groups.

b)

A nucleoside is a nucleotide with one or more phosphate groups, while a nucleotide is a nucleoside without any phosphate groups.

c)

Nucleotide and nucleoside are the same.

d)

A nucleotide is a protein, while a nucleoside is a carbohydrate.

66.

What is the role of the ribosome in protein synthesis?

a)

The ribosome synthesizes new strands of DNA.

b)

The ribosome carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the mRNA.

c)

The ribosome carries amino acids to the mRNA and matches them to the coded tRNA message.

d)

The ribosome reads the mRNA and joins the appropriate amino acids to form a protein.

67.

What must happen to a newly made polypeptide before it can be secreted from a cell?

a)

it must be translated by a ribosome found in the cytoplasm of the cell and then sent toward the cell membrane

b)

it must be produced by a ribosome on the rough ER and sent to the golgi apparatus

c)

It must be produced by a ribosome in the golgi apparatus and sent to the rough ER.

68.
A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be?
a)
5'-TTG-CTG-CAG-TAG-3'
b)
3'-AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA-5'
c)
3'-AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA-5'
d)
3'-AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA-5'
69.
What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the mRNA codon sequence
5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'
a)
met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
b)
met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
c)
met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
d)
met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
70.

What is a promoter?

a)

Sequence of DNA at the beginning of the gene that tells RNA polymerase where to start transcription.

b)

Sequence of RNA that tells the ribosome where to start translation.

c)

Sequence of DNA at the beginning of the gene that tells the ribosome where to start transcription

d)

Sequence of RNA that tells RNA polymerase where to start translation.

71.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
72.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
73.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
74.
What is a peptide bond?
a)
Bond that holds two amino acids together.
b)
A bond that holds hydrogen and oxygen molecules together.
c)
A bond that holds the phosphate group of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neighboring nucleotide.
d)
A bond that is formed by the sharing of electrons.
75.

The image shows part of a polypeptide. What determines the order in which the amino acids are connected to each other in the polypeptide?

a)

the chemical structure of each R-group in the amino acid

b)

the order of the the nitrogenous bases in a gene

c)

the random nature of ribosome function

d)

the sequence of amino acids that make up the gene

76.
Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic gene expression but does occur in eukaryotic gene expression?
a)
mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed
b)
RNA polymerase binds to the promotor
c)
a poly-A tail is added to the ends of the mRNA
d)
Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even alittle
77.
What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?
a)
to add modified guanin to the 3' end of the mRNA
b)
to indicate the site of translational termination
c)
to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA
d)
to help protect the mRNA from degradation by hydrolytic enzymes 
78.
Which component of DNA determines the traits of an organism? 
a)
Nitrogen Bases
b)
Sugar-Phosphate Backbone
c)
Hydrogen bonds
79.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
80.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
81.
A certain gene codes for a polypeptide that is 120 amino acids long. Approximately how many nucleotides long is the mRNA that codes for this polypeptide likely to be?
a)
360
b)
480
c)
40
d)
30
82.
The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following?
a)
The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids.
b)
A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.
c)
All organisms have experienced convergent evolution.
d)
DNA was the first genetic material.
83.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
84.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
85.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
86.
The lac operon genes only become expressed if:
a)
lactose binds to the repressor
b)
glucose binds to the repressor
c)
lactose binds to the operator
d)
the repressor binds to the operator
87.
Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?
a)
prokaryotes (bacteria)
b)
eukaryotes (plant and animals)
c)
animals only
d)
viruses
88.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
89.

Which RNA functions as site of protein synthesis?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

90.

Which RNA functions to bring amino acids to the ribosome?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

91.

Which RNA is the transcript from DNA template?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

92.

Which RNA has an anticodon that pairs with codon?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

93.

Which RNA has the codons sequence for translation?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

94.

Which enzyme is responsible for transcription?

a)

Ligase

b)

Primase

c)

RNA Polymerase

d)

Transcriptase

95.

In transcription, which direction is DNA read?

a)

3' to 5’

b)

5' to 3’ 

c)

C terminus to N terminus

d)

N terminus to C terminus

96.

In transcription, which direction is RNA made?

a)

3' to 5’

b)

5' to 3’ 

c)

C terminus to N terminus

d)

N terminus to C terminus

97.

Function of 5' Cap...

a)

Add phosphates to the RNA

b)

Provide ATP for transcription

c)

Protect from hydrolytic enzymes

d)

Site of ribosome binding 

98.

Function of Poly A tail...

a)

Add phosphates to the RNA

b)

Provide ATP for transcription

c)

Protect from hydrolytic enzymes 

d)

Site of ribosome binding 

99.

What is the process of transcription?

a)

Synthesizing DNA under the direction of DNA

b)

Synthesizing DNA under the direction of RNA

c)

Synthesizing RNA under the direction of DNA

d)

Synthesizing RNA under the direction of RNA

100.

What type of virus will violate the central dogma?

a)

Bacteriophage

b)

DNA virus

c)

Retrovirus

d)

All of the above

101.

What enzyme is responsible for transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

RNA polymerase

102.

Which strand is read for transcription?

a)

3’ to 5’ coding strand

b)

5’ to 3’ coding strand

c)

3’ to 5’ noncoding strand

d)

5’ to 3’ noncoding strand

103.

Which direction is RNA synthesized?

a)

3’ to 5’

b)

5’ to 3’

104.

What is the function of the

poly A tail?

a)

Binds to the promoter region

b)

Decrease degradation by hydrolytic enzymes

c)

Remove noncoding information

d)

Site of ribosome binding

105.

What is the function of the 5’ cap?

a)

Binds to the promoter region

b)

Decrease degradation by hydrolytic enzymes

c)

Remove noncoding information

d)

Site of ribosome binding

106.

Antibiotics can be used to kill the specific pathogenic bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, that causes tuberculosis. The appearance of antibiotic-resistant strains has made it more difficult to cure M. tuberculosis infections. These antibiotic-resistant bacteria survive and pass on the genes to their offspring, making the resistant phenotype more common in the population.


DNA analysis indicates that the genes for antibiotic resistance are not normally present in bacterial chromosomal DNA.


Which of the following statements best explains how the genes for antibiotic resistance can be transmitted between bacteria without the exchange of bacterial chromosomal

DNA?

a)

The antibiotic-resistant bacteria release a hormone that signals neighboring bacteria to become resistant.

b)

The genes for antibiotic resistance are located on a plasmid that can be passed to neighboring bacteria.

c)

The antibiotic-resistant bacteria are the result of bacteria that specifically modify their own chromosomal DNA

DNA to neutralize the antibiotics.

d)

The antibiotic alters the bacterial genome of each bacterium, which results in an antibiotic-resistant population.

107.

Which of the following correctly explains the process shown in Figure 1 ?

a)

DNA replication is occurring because replication is semi-conservative and the new strand is a copy of the template strand.

b)

Initiation of transcription is occurring because a strand of RNA

is being produced from a DNA template strand.

c)

Translation is occurring because the two strands have separated and a new strand is being produced.

d)

Alternative splicing of mRNA is occurring because the mRNA

strand is being synthesized from only one strand of DNA

.

108.

Mendel called the distinct heritable features

a)

alleles

b)

chromosomes

c)

characters

d)

traits

109.

In peas, tall plants are dominant over dwarf. Mendel crossed two pea plants that are tall and studied the offspring. Of the 100 offspring, 78 were tall and 22 are dwarf. What were the genotypes of the parents?

a)

TTXTt

b)

ttXTT

c)

TtXtt

d)

TtXTt

110.

In peas, tall plants are dominant over dwarf. Mendel crossed two pea plants that are tall and studied the offspring. Of the 100 offspring, 78 were tall and 22 are dwarf. What were the genotypes of the tall plants from the cross?

a)

TT only

b)

Tt only

c)

TT and Tt

d)

There is not enough information to know for sure.

111.

Alternative versions of genes are called

a)

alleles

b)

traits

c)

characters

d)

chromosomes

112.

States that the two alleles for a heritable character separate (segregate) during gamete formation and end up in different gametes.

a)

Law of Loci

b)

Law of Dominance

c)

Law of Segregation

d)

Law of Independent Assortment

113.

In peas, purple flowers are dominant over white flowers. If a heterozygous purple pea plant is crossed with a white flower, what portion of the offspring would be expected to be white?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

114.

States that each pair of alleles segregates independently of each other pair of alleles during gamete formation.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Loci

d)

Law of Independent Assortment

115.

Genes located near each other on the same chromosome tend to be _____________.

a)

Inherited together.

b)

not inherited together.

c)

mixed together.

d)

separated.

116.

Multiplication Rule:

If two parents have the genotypes AAbbCc X aaBbcc, what is the probability of having an offspring with AabbCc?

a)

1/4

b)

1/16

c)

1/32

d)

All of them.

117.

The phenotype of F1 hybrids is somewhere between the phenotypes of the two parental varieties.

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

c)

complete dominance

d)

multiple alleles

118.

Two dominant alleles affect the phenotype in separate, distinguishable ways.

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

c)

law of dominance

d)

complete dominance

119.

In snapdragons red and white are incompletely dominant, the heterozygous condition results in pink. What is the probability of getting white offspring when a white and a pink flower are crossed?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

120.

Disease that is fatal; a dysfunctional enzyme causes an accumulation of lipids in the brain

a)

Achrondroplasia

b)

Down's Syndrome

c)

Sicke Cell Anemia

d)

Tay Sachs

121.

What are the blood types found in humans. Check all that apply.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

AB

e)

O

122.

Most genes have multiple phenotypic effects, a property called

a)

codominance

b)

pleiotropy

c)

epistasis

d)

norm of reaction

123.

Some traits may be determined by two or more genes, this is

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

c)

pleiotropy

d)

epistasis

124.

Skin color in humans is involve a variation along a continuum involving several genes, this is

a)

codominance

b)

polygenic inheritance

c)

epistasis

d)

pleiotropy

125.

Heterozygous individuals who carry the recessive allele but are phenotypically normal are referred to as

a)

carriers

b)

affected

c)

normal

d)

diseased

126.

In this disease, the allele results in defective or absent chloride transport channels in plasma membranes

Symptoms include mucus buildup in some internal organs and abnormal absorption of nutrients in the small intestine

a)

Huntington's

b)

achondroplasia

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

cystic fibrosis

127.

A degenerative disease of the nervous system

The disease has no obvious phenotypic effects until the individual is about 35 to 40 years of age.

a)

Huntington's

b)

Sickle cell anemia

c)

cystic fibrosis

d)

Achondroplasia

128.

The disorder caused by nondisjunction of chromosome 21 is known as

a)

Down's syndrome

b)

Turner's syndrome

c)

Klinefelter's syndrome

d)

Triple X syndrome

129.

Chromosomes with genes for traits unrelated to sex are called

a)

autosomes

b)

complete

c)

deutosomes

d)

linked genes

130.

Two processes that increase genetic variation during meiosis are crossing over and _____

a)

Synapsis

b)

Tetrad

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Gameiosis

131.

A person with Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome. This means one of their gametes was missing a chromosome.

Which of the following is why gametes sometimes lack a complete chromosome?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Inversion mutation

d)

Substitution mutation

132.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY