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First Semester Biology Review

Total questions: 133

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What organic molecule provide short term energy for us?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbs
d)
nucleic acid
2.

The Punnett square shows a cross between a homozygous dominant genotype for eye color and a heterozygous genotype for eye color. Which conclusion can be drawn from the Punnett square above?

a)

The parents will have four offspring

b)

All of the offspring will be homozygous dominant

c)

Only two of the offspring will have the same eye color

d)

All of the offspring will have the same eye color

3.

In cocker spaniels the allele for a black coat color (B) is dominant over the allele for a brown coat color (b).

If a brown cocker spaniel is crossed with a homozygous black cocker spaniel, which of the following genotypic ratios can be expected?


DRAW A PUNNETT SQUARE!!

a)

0 BB: 2 Bb: 2 bb

b)

1 BB: 2 Bb: 1 bb

c)

0 BB: 4 Bb: 0 bb

d)

2 BB: 1 Bb: 0 bb

4.

In humans blood type is determined by the A, B, and O alleles. The A and B alleles are codominant to each other and dominant over the O allele. An individual with the BO genotype and an individual with the OO genotype can produce offspring with which of the following phenotypes?

a)

O only

b)

A or B only

c)

B or O only

d)

A, B, or O only

5.

2 In cattle the allele for cloven hooves (H) is dominant over the allele for mule-foot hooves (h). The phenotype for each trait is shown in this picture. What is the probability of mule-foot hooves in the offspring If one parent is homozygous recessive and the other is heterozygous?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

6.

The Punnett square shows a cross between an animal that is heterozygous for the dominant trait of having horns and an animal that is homozygous recessive and has no horns. What percentage of the offspring from this cross will not have horns?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

7.

Sexual reproduction in animals depends on the production of gametes. Which of these processes produces gametes in animals?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Fertilization

c)

Meiosis

d)

Binary fission

8.

The diagram shows a cell during Meiosis I. There are two different images showing the different ways chromosomes could possibly line up in the parent cell during Metaphase I What is significant about the particular stage of Meiosis I that the scientist had sketched in their journal?

a)

allows new allele combinations

b)

cell maintains the same amount of DNA

c)

produces 4 sex cells

d)

causes gene mutations

9.

Why is it important to reduce the number of chromosomes in half when forming gametes for sexual reproduction?

a)

Gametes have a single function which requires less DNA to perform the function compared to somatic cells

b)

A reduction in the number of chromosomes reduces the chances for mutations that would affect the offspring

c)

The offspring will have the correct number of chromosomes when the sperm and egg are joined

d)

The chromosomes in gametes are already replicated strands of DNA which returns the number of chromosomes to the original amount

10.

The form of cell division in which the number of

chromosomes is halved to produce gametes is known as —

a)

mitosis

b)

centrioles

c)

meiosis

d)

cytokinesis

11.

Compared with mitosis, the process of meiosis results in daughter cells that are —

a)

diploid cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cells

b)

diploid cells with a smaller number of chromosomes than the parent cells

c)

haploid cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cells

d)

haploid cells with a smaller number of chromosomes than the parent cells

12.

A teacher prepared a dihybrid cross Punnett square and a key to dominant and recessive traits. What would be the appearance of the offspring for the genetic combination labeled X?

a)

Tall, round

b)

Short, wrinkled

c)

Short, round

d)

Tall, wrinkled

13.

In a population of wild cats, long legs are dominant over short legs. Wild cats with long legs are —

a)

heterozygous only

b)

homozygous dominant only

c)

heterozygous or homozygous recessive

d)

heterozygous or homozygous dominant

14.

Having freckles is a dominant trait in humans. A girl has freckles, but her brother does not.

What genotypes would the parents need to have to make this possible?

a)

FF and FF

b)

ff and ff

c)

Ff and Ff

d)

FF and ff

15.
a)

INCREASES GENETIC VARIATION

b)

TAKES PLACE IN PROPHASE I

c)

CROSSING OVER

d)

ALL ARE TRUE

16.

CROSSING OVER INCREASES

a)

LIFE SPAN

b)

GENETIC VARIATION

c)

THE NUMBER OF OFF-SPRING

d)

ALL ARE TRUE

17.

WHAT TYPE OF CELLS STORE THE GENETIC INFORMATION THAT IS PASSED TO OFF-SPRING

a)

BODY CELLS

b)

MITOSIS

c)

EGG

d)

SPERM

e)

EGG AND SPERM

18.

MEIOSIS

a)

REDUCES THE NUMBER OF CHROMOSOMES BY ONE HALF

b)

PRODUCES UNIQUE SEX CELLS-1N

c)

ALLOWS TRAITS TO BE PASSED TO OFFSPRING

d)

ALL ARE TRUE

e)

INCREASE GENETIC VARIATION

19.

MITOSIS

a)

INCREASES GENETIC VARIATION

b)

ALLOWS TRAITS TO BE PASSED ON TO OFFSPRING

c)

PRODUCES 2 IDENTICAL DAUGHTER CELLS

d)

ALL ARE TRUE

20.

MEIOSIS PRODUCES 4 CELLS-THE CHROMOSOME NUMBER IS ...

a)

DIPLOID

b)

HAPLOID

21.

NORMAL HUMANS HAVE 46 CHROMOSOMES, HOW MANY CHROMOSOMES WILL THE GAMETES HAVE AFTER MEIOSIS?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

12

d)

92

22.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
23.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
24.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
25.
Compared to the number of chromosomes contained in a body cell, how many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?
a)
The same number
b)
One-fourth as many
c)
Twice as many
d)
Half as many
26.
Chromosomes exchange genetic material during 
a)
crossing over
b)
replication
c)
synthesis
d)
translation
27.

A teacher prepared a dihybrid cross Punnett square and a key to dominant and recessive traits. What would be the appearance of the offspring for the genetic combination labeled X?

a)

Tall, round

b)

Short, wrinkled

c)

Short, round

d)

Tall, wrinkled

28.

(Grey fur (G) is dominant over white fur (g) and Black eyes (B) are dominant over red eyes(b))

A male rabbit GGbb crossed with a female rabbit with ggBb.


How many out of 16, have grey fur and black eyes?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

16

29.

(Grey fur (G) is dominant over white fur (g) and Black eyes (B) are dominant over red eyes(b))

A male rabbit GGbb crossed with a female rabbit with ggBb.


How many out of 16, have grey fur and black eyes?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

16

30.

A teacher prepared a dihybrid cross Punnett square and a key to dominant and recessive traits. What is the correct genetic combination of offspring X?

a)

TTRR

b)

ttrr

c)

TtRr

d)

TRtr

31.

(Grey fur (G) is dominant over white fur (g) and Black eyes (B) are dominant over red eyes(b))

A male rabbit GGbb crossed with a female rabbit with ggBb.


What percentage have Grey fur and red eyes

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

e)

0

32.

What is the name of the process in the diagram.

a)

metaphase

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

mycosis

33.

Refer to the diagram. Arrange the stages of mitosis in order.

a)

I, II, III, IV, V, VI

b)

VI, II, I, IV, V, III

c)

III, VI, I IV, II, V

d)

V, III, IV, I, II, VI

34.

Refer to the diagram. What is occurring within the cell labeled II?

a)

a cleavage furrow is forming to divide the cell into two daughter cells

b)

DNA is replicated so there are two copies of each chromosome in each daughter cell

c)

chromatin is condensing to form visible chromosomes

d)

the spindle is attaching to chromatids to move them to the middle

35.

Which stage of the cell cycle in the diagram above shows the formation of spindle fibers and chromatin condensing into chromosomes?

a)

I

b)

III

c)

IV

d)

VI

36.

What is the purpose of mitosis

a)

each daughter cell has half the amount of DNA of parent cells

b)

new nuclei have an exact copy of DNA

c)

reproduction of mitochondria and chloroplasts

d)

prevents the occurrence of cancer cells

37.

In order for a cell to successfully divide, the cell must first:

a)

duplicate its genetic information

b)

decrease it's volume

c)

increase in size

d)

decrease it's number of organelles

38.

Sister chromatids are attached to each other at an area called

a)

centriole

b)

centromere

c)

spindle

d)

chromosome

39.

If a cell has 22 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each of it's daughter cells have after cytokinesis during mitosis?

a)

8

b)

11

c)

22

d)

24

40.

Where does DNA replication occur?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

41.

What occurs at G1?

a)

chromatin condenses to form chromosomes

b)

cleavage of cytoplasm and formation of cell plate

c)

period of growth and development between mitotic divisions

d)

nuclear membrane, nucleolus and chromatin fade

42.

The cell cycle has checkpoints built in to ensure that each cell has met certain criteria before being allowed to move to the next stage. What happens prior to the cell being allowed to enter the G2 stage of the cell cycle?

a)

the cell makes RNA

b)

the nucleus divides

c)

DNA replication occurs

d)

the chromosomes align

43.

What part of the cell clycle results in daughter cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

prophase

c)

cytokinesis

d)

G2 checkpoint

44.

During prophase, chromosomes become visible, the spindle forms and the nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear. In which cellular process does prophase occur?

a)

mitosis

b)

DNA replication

c)

interphase

d)

growth phase

45.

What kind of cells most likely result from uncontrolled growth due to mutations in genes that control the cell cycle?

a)

nerve cells

b)

bone cells

c)

cancer cells

d)

cardiac cells

46.

During the cell cycle, normal cells exit the G1 phase and enter the G0 phase where they rest. Typically, cells will reenter the cycle at G1 prior to going on to S phase. However abnormal cells such as cancer cells may not be allowed to enter the G0 phase to rest. As a result, these cells will most likely -

a)

mutate during G2 phase

b)

continuously repeat the cycle

c)

die after DNA replication

d)

fail to complete mitosis

47.

Which of the following processes is mort likely affected by cancer drugs

a)

cellular respiration

b)

transport of molecules

c)

cell differentiation

d)

cellular division

48.

As cancerous cells multiply uncontrollably, abnormal tissue masses form. These masses of tissue are called -

a)

tumors

b)

cell bags

c)

alveoli

d)

metastasize

49.

Which of the following structures do plant cells have that animal cells do not?

a)

vacuoles and cell membranes

b)

chloroplasts and mitrochondria

c)

chloroplasts and cells walls

d)

cell walls and cell membranes

50.

Which phase of mitosis is occurring in the cell indicated by the arrow?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

51.

Cells pass through a G2 checkpoint before entering mitosis. Ideally, if DNA damage is detected, the cells do not enter mitosis until the damage is repaired. Why is DNA damage repaired before cells enter mitosis?

a)

so that another round of DNA synthesis does not have to take place

b)

So that the chromosomes can align a the metaphase plate during mitosis

c)

So that the cytoplasm can be divided equally between the two daughter cells

d)

so that healthy daughter cells are produced, allowing the organism to continue growing

52.
Results of cell division or mitosis include all of the following EXCEPT?
a)
growth
b)
repair damaged cells
c)
replace damaged cells
d)
dead cells
53.
How many daughter cells are produced in mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
6
54.

Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...

a)

16 chromosomes.

b)

46 chromosomes.

c)

8 chromosomes.

d)

4 chromosomes.

55.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
56.

which phases are in mitosis ?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

cytokinesis

e)

anaphase

57.

Which stage of the Life Cycle of the cell is this cell in (look close-the DNA hasn't formed Chromosomes (X) yet)

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

58.

Which of the following is the correct order of the Cell Cycle?

a)

Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis

b)

Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Mitosis, Interphase

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Interphase, Prohase, Cytokinesis

59.
Identify the stage of the cell cycle while looking at the picture.
a)
Interphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
60.
Identify the stage of the cell cycle while looking at the picture.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
61.
Identify the stage of the cell cycle while looking at the picture.
a)
Interphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
62.
Identify the stage of the cell cycle while looking at the picture.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
63.
Identify the stage of the cell cycle while looking at the picture.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
64.
*Identify the stage of the cell cycle while looking at the picture.
a)
Prophaese
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
65.
Identify the stage of the cell cycle while looking at the picture.
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
66.

What do aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration have in common?

a)

Both are ways cells obtain or use energy

b)

Both require oxygen to break molecular bonds

c)

both processes occur in all living organisms

d)

both produce relatively equal amounts of ATP

67.

How does the respiration of a person change as they are running (beginning to end of run)?

a)

At the beginning of the run, the cells perform aerobic respiration, but it changes later in the run to anaerobic respiration when the oxygen is decreased in the body.

b)

At the beginning of the run, the cells perform anaerobic respiration, but it changes later in the run to aerobic respiration when the oxygen is increased in the body.

c)

At the beginning of the run, the cells perform aerobic respiration, but it changes later in the run to anaerobic respiration when the oxygen is increased in the body.

d)

At the beginning of the run, the cells perform anaerobic respiration, but it changes later in the run to aerobic respiration when the oxygen is decreased in the body.

68.

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration differ in which of the following ways?

a)

the energy conversion in cellular respiration takes place in the chloroplast

b)

the main source of energy in cellular respiration is glucose

c)

the main source of chemical energy in cellular respiration is water

d)

the final product of cellular respiration is electromagnetic radiation

69.

during cellular respiration in mitochondria, the organelle breaks down glucose to release chemical energy. How is the chemical energy used?

a)

the chemical energy is used to form ATP bonds

b)

the chemical energy is used to form more glucose

c)

the chemical energy is converted into carbon dioxide

d)

the chemical energy is converted into oxygen

70.

What occurs inside a cell while it performing the process of respiration?

a)

sugar is broken down to generate ATP molecules that are used for energy

b)

the negative charge inside of the cell is used to increase the concentration of chemicals inside the cell

c)

light reactive chemicals combine carbon dioxide and water to form glucose molecules that are stored as food

d)

the cell membrane forms around air bubbles to create a vacuole that is used to separate the oxygen from the rest of the air

71.

What occurs inside a cell while it performing the process of photosythesis?

a)

sugar is broken down to generate ATP molecules that are used for energy

b)

the negative charge inside of the cell is used to increase the concentration of chemicals inside the cell

c)

light reactive chemicals combine carbon dioxide and water to form glucose molecules that are stored as food

d)

the cell membrane forms around air bubbles to create a vacuole that is used to separate the oxygen from the rest of the air

72.

Identify the cell organelle at X

a)

ribosome

b)

mitochondrion

c)

cell membrane

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

73.

Identify the cell organelle and process

a)

ribosome, protein synthesis

b)

chloroplast, photosynthesis

c)

chromosome, DNA replication

d)

mitochondrion, respiration

74.

What cellular process is occurring in the organelle labeled A?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

cellular respiration

c)

chemosynthesis

d)

protein synthesis

75.

Identify the structures and processes at T and V

a)

T - ribosome, protein synthesis: V - nucleus, cell cycle

b)

T - chloroplast, photosynthesis; V - vacuole, glucose storage

c)

T - chloroplast, photosynthesis; V - mitochondrion, respiration

d)

T - golgi apparatus, packaging macromolecules; V - lysosomes, digestion of organelles

76.

Identify substances which best complete the diagram at U and Y

a)

U - H2O + CO2 ; Y - C6H12O6 + O2

b)

U - CO2 + O2 ; Y - C6H12O6 + H2O

c)

U -C6H12O6 + O2 ; Y - H2O + CO2

d)

U - C6H12O6 + CO2 ; Y - H2O + CO2

77.

food provides the human body with all of the following except -

a)

calories

b)

nutrients

c)

oxygen

d)

water

78.

The compound synthesized during photosynthesis is -

a)

H2O

b)

C6H12O6

c)

CO2

d)

O

79.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
80.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
81.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
82.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
83.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
84.
What is the correct complimentary strand for the following DNA?ATCGAG
a)
TACGAG
b)
ATCGAG
c)
TAGCTG
d)
TAGCTC
85.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
86.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
87.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
88.
What is the product of translation?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
proteins
89.
What is the product of transcription?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
proteins
90.
How many nucleotides make a codon?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
91.
A mutation that affect one specific location is called
a)
a mutagen
b)
a chromosomal mutation
c)
a point mutation
d)
translocation
92.

Which type of cell contains a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles?

a)

eukaryotic

b)

prokaryotic

c)

virus

d)

homokaryotic

93.

A cell is described as having mitochondria, ribosomes, reproducing by meiosis, and performing photosynthesis. What type if cell is it?

a)

bacteria

b)

prokaryote

c)

virus

d)

eukaryote

94.

What type of cell is pictured?

a)

animal cell

b)

plant cell

c)

bacteria cell

d)

virus cell

95.

Which of the following can be found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

nucleus

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleic acid

96.

What structure in plant cells makes them less flexible than animal cells?

a)

vacuole

b)

cell wall

c)

chloroplast

d)

cell membrane

97.

What organelle is shown as number 2?

a)

Golgi body

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

98.

Which of the following would provide the best evidence that a cell is eukaryotic?

a)

chromosomes

b)

internal membranes

c)

carbohydrates

d)

cell walls

99.

Some ribosomes are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. What do they do for the cell?

a)

breakdown waste material

b)

conversion of radiant energy to glucose

c)

synthesis of new proteins

d)

replication of nucleic acid

100.

This diagram shows cellular activity across a cell membrane. Which processes does this diagram model?

a)

Energy conversions and synthesis of new molecules

b)

Synthesis of new molecules and homeostasis

c)

Transport of molecules and energy conversions

d)

Homeostasis and transport molecules

101.

A student performed an experiment where corn starch was poured into tubing and the ends were tied. The tubing was then dropped into a beaker of iodine solution. After 10 minutes the starch turned black. What cellular structure was the tubing representing?

a)

cell wall

b)

cell membrane

c)

vacuole

d)

nucleus

102.

What organelle is shown as number 1?

a)

Golgi body

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

103.

Diffusion and osmosis are similar because they are both types of

a)

protein synthesis processes

b)

passive transport processes

c)

cellular replication processes

d)

cellular metabolism processes

104.

Which of the following cell processes would stop first if all the ribosomes in a cell were suddenly destroyed?

a)

active transport

b)

protein synthesis

c)

cellular respiration

d)

intracellular digestion

105.

Which structure does not belong in a prokaryotic cell?

a)

DNA

b)

nuclear membrane

c)

phospholipid membrane

d)

cytoplasm

106.

Which process would be affected if the structure labeled 3 was destroyed?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

reproduction

c)

respiration

d)

transport

107.

How does the cell membrane help a to maintain the health of a cell?

a)

by providing support and structure for the cell

b)

by regulating the transport of materials in and out of the cell

c)

by manufacturing protein to provide energy for the cell

d)

by storing food as future energy for the cell

108.

Which of the following best explains the process in the illustration?

a)

passage of water molecule through a semipermeable membrane to create equilibrium

b)

Transportation of molecules across the membrane from high to low concentration gradient by a protein channel

c)

Movement of molecules against the concentration gradient expending energy

d)

separation of suspended particles from a fluid environment through a porous membrane

109.

Due to environment conditions the water concentration outside the cell becomes lower than the water concentration inside the cell (drought). How would the cell most likely respond to maintain homeostasis?

a)

The cell would fill with water

b)

The cell would release water

c)

the cell would increase the production of salt

d)

the cell would decrease the production of salt

110.

Which of the following is the best description of osmosis?

a)

oxygen transfers into red blood cells through gaps in the cell membrane

b)

large molecules are brought into the cell by wrapping the chell membrane around the molecule to form a vacuole

c)

water moves across the cell membrane from high to low concentration

d)

the membrane's proteins provide a pathway for large particles to move across the cell membrane and bring the cell to equilibrium

111.

Which are names for the large organic molecules that are found in all living things?

a)

Biomolecules

b)

Micromolecules

c)

Macromolecules

d)

Gigamolecules

112.

What do we call the building blocks of biomolecules?

a)

elements

b)

monomer

c)

function

d)

crumbling

113.

What is the monomer for carbohydrates?

a)

Monosaccharide

b)

Amino Acid

c)

Glycerol and fatty acid

d)

Nucleotide

114.

Which of the following elements are found in all four biomolecules?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Carbon

d)

Phosphorus

e)

Hydrogen

115.

Which macromolecule is responsible for Quick energy?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic acid

116.

What type of biomolecule would cookies be considered?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

LIpids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acid

117.

Which macromolecule has the monomer amino acid?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

118.

Which macromolecule is responsible for growth and repair

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic acid

119.

Which of the following would be the best example of a protein?

a)

Butter

b)

Steak

c)

Bread

d)

Strawberries

120.

Which biomolecule provides long term storage and insulation?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

121.

Which biomolecule would starch and glucose be considered?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic acids

122.

Which biomolecule would DNA be considered?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic acids

123.

Which type of macromolecule has the monomer nucleotide?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

124.

Which is used to make cell walls (cellulose)?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

125.

Which is used to make muscle and hair?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

126.

Which biomolecule is made from glycerol and fatty acid?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

127.

Which biomolecule stores genetic information?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

128.

Which biomolecule is used to make cell membranes?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

129.

What type of biomolecule is seen in this picture?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

130.

What type of biomolecule is seen in this picture?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

131.

What type of biomolecule is seen in this picture?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

132.

What type of biomolecule is seen in this picture?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

133.

What type of biomolecule is seen in this picture?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

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