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Biology S2 Study Quiz

Total questions: 134

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
One of a number of different forms of a gene. 
a)
 gene
b)
gamete
c)
fertilization
d)
allele
2.
A sex cell that has half the amount of DNA that is found in a body cell.
a)
 gene
b)
gamete
c)
fertilization
d)
allele
3.

The passing of traits from parents to offspring

a)

genetics

b)

geneology

c)

heredity

d)

allele

4.

The study of heredity is known as

a)

hereditology

b)

genetics

c)

biology

d)

law of heredity

5.

Plants that produce offspring with the same trait are known to be...

a)

cross-pollinated

b)

F1 generation

c)

self-pollinated

d)

true-breeding

6.

Which law of genetics states that factors are seperated?

a)

law of independent assortment

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of Mendel

d)

law of separation

7.

What is an organism's genetic makeup known as?

a)

phenotype

b)

chromosome

c)

DNA

d)

genotype

8.

The physical appearance of the organism is known as the

a)

phenotype

b)

chromosome

c)

nucleictype

d)

genotype

9.

When both alleles of a pair are alike, the organism is said to be

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

homologous

d)

heterologous

10.

This is an example of what?

a)

probability

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

co-dominance

d)

none of the above

11.

What would the genotypes be?

a)

TT, TT, Tt, Tt

b)

TT, Tt, Tt, tt

c)

co-dominance

d)

none of the above

12.
If T=Tall & t=short, what is the genotypic ratio?
a)
1:3
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:2
13.
If T=Tall & t=short, what is the phenotypic ratio?
a)
1:3
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:2
14.
Who pioneered genetics?
a)
Johann Sebstian Bach
b)
A German monk named Mendel
c)
Gregor Mendel
d)
John Mendel
15.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
16.
If a Homozygous red snapdragon and a Heterozygous pink snapdragon were crossed - what percentage of the offspring would be homozygous white?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
17.
How many pairs of chromosomes are in your cells?
a)
23
b)
19
c)
12
d)
10
18.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
T
19.
What is the Punnett square used to predict?
a)
possible genotypes for the cross
b)
which traits are dominant
c)
which traits are recessive
d)
the number of offspring
20.
Which of the following cell types is formed by meiosis?
a)
muscle cells
b)
skin cells
c)
sperm cells
d)
blood cells
21.
Which cellular process is shown?
a)
meiosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
mitosis
d)
phagocytosis
22.
Which best describes the process shown?
a)
mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is ltered
b)
segregation of sister chromatids
c)
condensation and segregation of the alleles
d)
crossing-over which alleles are exchanged
23.
What is a tetrad?
a)
4 chromosmes
b)
4 chromatids
c)
2 chromatids
d)
6 chromosomes
24.
What is one advantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
offspring are identical to parents
b)
offspring are resistant to viruses
c)
offspring are born live, rather thna from eggs
d)
offspring inherit a wider variety of genetic information
25.
When two haploid sex fuse together during fertilization they become ______________ 
a)
haploid cells
b)
meiosis
c)
mitochondria
d)
diploid cells
26.
Term for homozygous organisms that display two dominant phenotypes at the same time
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
linked genes
27.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a polygenic trait? 
a)
Human height
b)
Fur color in dogs
c)
Flower color in pea plants
d)
Eye color
28.

Before the cell divides by mitosis, what process needs to happen to DNA?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

d)

protein synthesis

29.

The process of making mRNA from DNA is called.

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

protein synthesis

30.

Where in the cell does transcription take place?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

cytoplasm

d)

smooth ER

31.

In DNA which is a correct base pairing?

a)

A with G

b)

G with T

c)

A with U

d)

A with T

32.

RNA is different from DNA in what way? (two answers selectable)

a)

RNA is single stranded

b)

RNA has thymine

c)

RNA has the sugar ribose

d)

RNA is found in the nucleus; DNA in the cytoplasm

33.

mRNA stands for

a)

my RNA

b)

messenger RNA

c)

mitosis RNA

d)

mutated RNA

34.

The five carbon sugar found in DNA

a)

ribose

b)

deoxyribose

c)

glucose

d)

dextrose

35.

What are the 3 basic components of a DNA molecule?

a)

Sugar, Base, H2 Bond

b)

Ribose, Base, Phosphate

c)

Deoxyribose, Base, Phosphate

d)

Sugar, Phosphate, Base pair

36.

In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of adenine present is always equal to the amount of

a)

cytosine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

37.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
38.

This process is _____

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

duplication

39.

This process is _______

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

d)

duplication

40.

These 2 scientists won the Nobel prize for determining the structure of DNA.

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Franklin and Darwin

c)

Einstein and Newton

d)

Degrasse and Tyson

41.

This type of mutation occurs when a nitrogen base is added into a sequence and drastically changes the resulting protein.

a)

point mutation

b)

insertion mutation

c)

deletion mutation

d)

chromosome mutation

42.

The twisted ladder shape of a DNA molecule is referred to as a

a)

extension ladder

b)

twisted helix

c)

single ladder

d)

double helix

43.

In RNA, Adenine pairs up with _____.

a)

uracil

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

cytosine

44.
Three nucleotide bases on a strand of mRNA are a(n) ____.
a)
mutation
b)
karyotype
c)
codon
d)
anticodon
45.
Which amino acid is made from the RNA codon GUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Leucine
c)
Serine
d)
Valine
46.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

substitution

b)

deletion

c)

insertion

d)

inversion

47.

What are the building blocks of proteins called?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

ribosomes

d)

amino Acids

48.

Whom does this X-ray crystolography photo belong to?

a)

Rosey Greer

b)

Dr. Roselind Franklin

c)

Dr. Maurice Wilkins

d)

Watson and Crick

49.
Analysis of the DNA of an organism reveals that it is composed of 20% T (thymine). Based on this information, what would you predict the % C (cytosine) to be?
a)
60%
b)
30%
c)
20%
d)
10%
50.

What does a promoter do?

a)

it allows a gene to be transcribed

b)

it creates a DNA segment

c)

it is another word for ribosomes

d)

it is another word for RNA

51.

An illustration of two insects is shown. Which of the paired statements could be used to distinguish the insects, using a dichotomous key?

a)

six legs, eight legs

b)

large hind legs, small hind legs

c)

two pairs of spots on wing cover, three pairs of spots on wing cover

d)

antennae absent, antennae present

52.

A dichotomous key for insects is shown. To what order does an insect with two pairs of scaly wings belong?

a)

Coleoptera

b)

Diptera

c)

Heteroptera

d)

Lepidoptera

53.

An analysis of DNA and RNA sequences can be used to classify organisms. An evolutionary tree, such as the one shown here, is based on molecular data. In theory this represents evolutionary relationships within a group of organisms that are hypothesized to have descended from a common ancestor. Which statement is best supported by the information in this evolutionary tree?

a)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to raccoons.

b)

Brown bears are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to sun bears.

c)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to raccoons than they are to giant pandas.

d)

The bear species are all more genetically similar to dogs than they are to giant pandas.

54.
Which of these statements best describes natural selection?
a)
Natural selection changes the traits of individuals.
b)
Natural selection prevents changes in the members of a species.
c)
Natural selection prevents changes in the traits of individuals.
d)
Natural selection changes populations
55.

Theoretically, what does the fossil record show about the history of species of Earth?

a)

Species stay the same over time.

b)

Species evolve from one form to another.

c)

Modern species have no relationship to ancient species.

d)

No species have become extinct in the last 2 million years.

56.
The field of biology that deals with classifying organisms is
a)
phylogeny
b)
genetics
c)
taxonomy
d)
embryology
57.

The standardized system for naming organism is known as binomial nomenclature. What two pieces of information are used to name and identify organisms using this system?

a)

genus and species

b)

class and genus

c)

class and species

d)

domain and kingdom

58.
Similar features that originated in a shared ancestor are described as
a)
differentiated features
b)
heterozygous structures
c)
homologous structures
59.
The major idea behind Darwin's "The Origin of the Species" is that
a)
species change over time by natural selection
b)
organisms are unable to adapt to their environment
c)
Galapagos finches had no recent common ancestry
60.
Which naturalist believed that organisms can wish for a trait and that trait will then be passed on?
a)
Lamarck
b)
Darwin
61.

Which naturalist believed that animals that have variation that are not well suited for an environment will not have children and will not pass those variations on to their children?

a)

Lamarck

b)

Darwin

c)

Lyell

62.
What can be determined by measuring the amount of a specific radioactive isotope in fossil bones?
a)
the age of the fossil bones
b)
the common ancestor
c)
their geographic isolation
63.

Unused structures such as the pelvic bone in whales and snakes and the tailbone in humans are an example of

a)

homologous structures

b)

vestigial structures

c)

analogous structures

64.

Fossils can be found in

a)

amber (the fossilized sap of trees)

b)

moving water

c)

sedimentary rock

d)

fresh dirt

65.

The idea that organisms best suited to their environment reproduce more successfully than other organisms is the definition of

a)

population

b)

natural selection

c)

acquired traits

d)

survival of the weakest

66.
What islands did Charles Darwin draw from for the theory of evolution?
a)
Canary Islands
b)
Galapagos Islands
c)
Pacific Islands
d)
Marshall Islands
67.

Who organized living things by creating binomial nomenclature?

a)

Carolus Linnaeus

b)

Robert Hooke

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Charles Darwin

68.
What are the 8 levels of classification of living things from most general to most specific?
a)
domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
b)
domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genius, species
c)
domain, kingdom, phamily, class, order, family, genus, species
d)
domain, king, phillip, class, order, family, genus, species
69.

Which kingdom is autotrophic AND has a cell wall?

a)

bacteria

b)

fungi

c)

plantae

d)

protista

70.

You would find mushrooms in which kingdom?

a)

plantae

b)

protists

c)

fungi

d)

animalia

71.

Members of this kingdom are multicellular and heterotrophic

a)

plantae

b)

protista

c)

animalia

d)

achaebacteria

72.
Cells that do not have a true nucleus are called....
a)
eukaryote
b)
prokaryote
c)
unicellular
d)
multicellular
73.

Which domain contains organisms that are unicellular, prokaryotic, and can cause illness yet also make food such as yogurt.

a)

eukarya

b)

archaea

c)

bacteria

74.

A lion is called Panthera leo. leo is the...

a)

kingdom

b)

phylum

c)

genus

d)

species

75.

A(n) _____ is a virus that enters a bacterial cell.

a)

endospore

b)

decomposer

c)

plasmid

d)

bacteriophage

76.
Cell in which a virus reproduces
a)
endospore
b)
host cell
c)
bacteriophage
d)
plasmid
77.

Nonliving particle that can reproduce within a living cell

a)

endospore

b)

virus

c)

vacuole

d)

nucleus

78.

A virus can be classified by its type of

a)

mitochondria

b)

chromosomes

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrates

79.

Which of the following is one important difference between a virus and a bacterial cell?

a)

a virus is much larger in size than a bacterial cell

b)

a virus always causes more severe disease than a bacterial cell

c)

a virus can never reproduce on its own, but a bacterial cell can

d)

a virus does not contain genetic material, but a bacterial cell does

80.
Virus attaches
a)
a
b)
b
c)
c
d)
d
81.
New viruses assembled
a)
b
b)
c
c)
d
d)
e
82.
Host cell breaks open
a)
a
b)
c
c)
d
d)
e
83.
Bacteria are...
a)
producers
b)
consumers
c)
decomposers
d)
all of these are correct
84.

Archeabacteria...

a)

are eukaryotic

b)

live in extreme environments

c)

are non-living

d)

live in the soil

85.
Which of the following is not a bacterial shape?
a)
rod
b)
spiral
c)
Y-shape
d)
round
86.
Bacteria are used to make which of the following foods?
a)
yogurt
b)
bread
c)
sauerkraut
d)
all of these are correct
87.
Bacteria reproduce by
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
binary fission
d)
photosynthesis
88.
Where is Eubacteria found?
a)
In hot places
b)
In salty places
c)
In the U.S.A only
d)
Everywhere
89.
The bacteria seen in the picture is
a)
bacillus
b)
coccus
c)
spirilla
90.
This technique relies on extreme temperatures or chemical action to destroy bacteria.
a)
disinfectant
b)
irradiation
c)
sterilization
d)
sanitation
91.
Bacteria can be helpful by:
a)
activating the liver
b)
digesting food in your intestines
c)
destroying viruses
d)
keeping you company
92.
Name this bacteria shape
a)
bacillus
b)
coccus
c)
spirillum
93.
Name this bacteria shape
a)
coccus
b)
bacillus
c)
spirillum
94.
Gram positive bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan and stains the color
a)
pink
b)
red
c)
green
d)
purple
95.

All protists are __________________________.

a)

prokaryotic

b)

eukaryotic

c)

unicellular

d)

multicellular

96.

The image shows a paramecium. What structure is utilized by the paramecium for movement?

a)

cilia

b)

flagella

c)

pseudopods

d)

pili

97.

Which of the following would be examples of fungi-like protists?

a)

slime molds & water molds

b)

euglena & algae

c)

amoeba & paramecium

d)

stentor & diatoms

98.

Which protist organelle, seen in the image of a paramecium, removes excess water from the organism/cell?

a)

contractile vacuole

b)

macronucleus

c)

cilia

d)

food vacuole

99.

What is the function of the eyespot, seen in the diagram of a euglena?

a)

detects light

b)

removes excess water

c)

movement

d)

photosynthesis

100.

Which protist makes up between 50% and 80% of the world's oxygen?

a)
b)
c)
d)
101.

Which protist causes malaria?

a)

water mold

b)

amoeba

c)

plasmodium

d)

algae

102.

How do phylum ciliophora move?

a)

they have hairlike projections to propel them

b)

they have pseudopods (false feet)

c)

they have no special structures for

d)

they move using flagella

103.

How do the phylum mastigophora move?

a)

using flagella

b)

using pseudopods (false feet)

c)

using hairlike projections

d)

mastigophora never move

104.

These are the largest colonies of algae, with some species growing over 100 feet long and having air bladders.

a)

red tuna moss

b)

kelp

c)

agar

d)

fire algae

105.

This mastigophora, Trypanosomes, is parasitic and transmitted by Tetse flies, causing this disease in humans.

a)

Leprosy

b)

Malaria

c)

African sleeping sickness

d)

Dengue fever

106.

Which protists are autotrophic?

a)

euglena and volvox

b)

amoeba and euglena

c)

volvox and amoeba

d)

paramecium only

107.

Which protists are heterotrophic?

a)

amoeba and volvox

b)

euglena and paramecium

c)

paramecium and amoeba

d)

euglena and volvox

108.

If this protist encounters an impact, it triggers a chemical reaction that ends in a burst of light.

a)

dinoflagellate

b)

sarcodine

c)

euglenoid

d)

water mold

109.

What protist is abundant in the warmer regions of the oceans and secrete shells of calcium carbonate (CaCO3)?

a)

heliozoans

b)

amoebas

c)

foraminiferans

110.

The plantlike protists that are the cause of red tides are ____.

a)

red algae

b)

dinoflagellates

c)

brown algae

d)

blue-green algae

111.

Term used for the life cycle of organisms that have a haploid stage followed by a diploid stage.

a)

spore

b)

gametophyte

c)

alternation of generations

d)

fragmentation

112.

The diploid form of an ulva that develops from a zygote and produces spores.

a)

gametophyte

b)

protozoan

c)

sporophyte

d)

ciliate

113.

Which Japanese food is made from algae?

a)

tomato soup

b)

rice cakes

c)

nori for sushi

d)

pudding

114.

What is the reason Algal Blooms happen in the world?

a)

depletion of nutrients

b)

sewage and fertilizer run off

c)

excess sunlight along coastal waters

d)

bacterial growth

115.

Many species of dinoflagellates are luminescent. What causes the sudden burst of light?

a)

volcanic activity on tropical islands

b)

sewage and fertilizer

c)

agitation of sudden movements in the water

d)

fishing coastal waters

116.

A fungus is an organism whose cells have

a)

no nuclei

b)

no cell walls

c)

chlorophyll

d)

chitin

117.

_________________ are fungi that that produce the gas that makes bread rise.

a)

Mushrooms

b)

Athletes' foot

c)

Blue Cheese

d)

Yeast

118.
Like bacteria, fungi play an important role in breaking down the 
a)
bodies of bugs
b)
bodies of dead organisms
c)
animal waste
d)
bacteria
119.

An antibiotic made from a species of thread-like fungus.

a)

lichen

b)

mold

c)

penicillin

d)

aspirin

120.
A mass of hyphae is called a(n)
a)
spore
b)
mycelium
c)
sporangium
d)
conidiospore
121.
Lichens are a _______ relationship between _____ and a fungus.
a)
commenalistic; animal
b)
mutualistic; plant
c)
parasitistic; fungus
d)
mutualistic; root
122.
Athlete's foot would be considered
a)
commercialistic
b)
mutualistic
c)
parasitic
123.
Most fungi reproduce by using . . . 
a)
Budding
b)
Eggs
c)
Spores
d)
Zoanthropy
124.
Fungi produce spores in
a)
Hyphae
b)
Orange peels
c)
Fruiting bodies
d)
Sigotrophs
125.

How do fungi feed?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Saprotrophic nutrition (external digestion)

c)

Decomposers

d)

Consumers (internal digestion)

126.

What is unique about the Cordyceps fungus.

a)

It can control the movement of muscles in its insect prey.

b)

In some people it plays a role in the development of dandruff.

c)

It feeds primarily on nematode worms and can be grown easily in the laboratory.

d)

It grows inside the bodies of newly emerged cicadas and causes their abdomens to fall off.

127.
What is the name for a form of asexual reproduction used in fungi like yeast?
a)
budding
b)
fruiting body
c)
sporing
d)
pinching
128.
Which group of fungi are mostly terrestrial and live in soil or on dead or decaying plant material. These usually have fuzzy reproductive structures.
a)
Sac Fungi
b)
Imperfect Fungi
c)
Zygote Fungi
d)
Club Fungi
129.
What is it called when a fungus and an algae (or sometimes bacteria) live n a mutually beneficial relationship?
a)
lichen
b)
mycorrhizae
c)
moss
d)
mold
130.

What is it called when a fungus lives in a mutually beneficial relationship with plant roots?

a)

lichen

b)

mycorrhizae

c)

mycelium

d)

hyphae

131.

Structure A is named as

a)

rhizoid

b)

sporangium

c)

hyphae

d)

septum

132.

This fungi is classified under

a)

Phylum Basidiomycota

b)

Phylum Ascomycota

c)

Phylum Zygomycota

d)

Phylum Protista

133.

Which of the following is matched INCORRECTLY?

a)

Basidiomycota – club fungi

b)

Ascomycota – sac fungi

c)

Ascomycota – yeast

d)

Zygomycota – lichens

134.

Fungi are not classified as plants because

a)

they do not have cell walls

b)

they produce asexual spores

c)

they do not produce flowers

d)

they do not have chlorophyll

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