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Spring Exam Review

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Process of copying a nucleotide sequence of DNA to form a complementary strand of mRNA

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Synthesis

2.

Carries copies of DNA's genetic material from the nucleus to ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

a)

messenger RNA (mRNA)

b)

transfer RNA (tRNA)

c)

ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

d)

Ribosome

3.

Brings amino acids to ribosomes during protein synthesis

a)

messenger RNA (mRNA)

b)

ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

c)

transfer RNA (tRNA)

d)

RNA Polymerase

4.

Sequence of 3 consecutive nucleotides that code for one amino acid

a)

Anti-codon

b)

Protein

c)

Bases

d)

Codon

5.

Process by which mRNA is decoded and a protein is produced

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Synthesis

6.

In RNA, the base Thymine is replaced with this base that will bond Adenine instead in RNA.

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Uracil

d)

Ribose

7.

Organelle that is the site of protein synthesis

a)

ribosomes

b)

Golgi body

c)

cell membrane

d)

chloroplasts

8.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

9.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

10.

During translation, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for delivering amino acids to help make a protein.

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

dRNA

11.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

12.
Which of the following is not a nitrogen base found in DNA?
a)
Thymine
b)
Uracil 
c)
Guanine
d)
Adenine
13.
The process where DNA is transcribed to mRNA happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
14.
The process where mRNA is translated into amino acids happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
15.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

16.

What happens during translation?

a)

DNA is replicated

b)

proteins are made using information from the mRNA

c)

mRNA is made using the DNA template strand

d)

mRNA is used to make tRNA

17.

Transcription produces which molecule?

a)

Amino Acid

b)

RNA

c)

Glucose

d)

Protein

18.

What do we call something that alters genetic material?

a)

mutagen

b)

translation

c)

amino acids

d)

protein

19.

Which of these takes place in the cytoplasm?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

20.

mRNA is made in the . . .

a)

cytoplasm

b)

ribosome

c)

nucleus

d)

nucleolus

21.

Protein synthesis occurs in the . . .

a)

cytoplasm

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleolus

22.

Which are found in both DNA and RNA. Select all correct answers.

a)

guanine

b)

cytosine

c)

ribose

d)

phosphate group

e)

thymine

23.

mRNA has which job?

a)

It makes ribosomes

b)

it carries information from the cytoplasm to the nucleus

c)

it carries information from DNA to the cytoplasm

d)

it carries amino acids to the ribosome

24.
RNA is read in sections called:
a)
Triplets
b)
Genes
c)
Codons
d)
Genes
25.

the sequence of 3 bases that code for amino acids.

a)

codon 

b)

anti-codon

26.

The addition, removal, or replacement of a single nucleotide nitrogen base

a)

Cell Mutation

b)

Chromosome Mutation

c)

Point Mutation

d)

Other Outcome

27.

Which phase of the cell cycle has the chromosomes lining up in the middle of the cell?

a)

prophase

b)

interphase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

28.

___________ is the first stage of mitosis

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

interphase

d)

anaphase

29.

Why are cells small?

a)

Larger cells struggle moving needed materials in and waste products out.

b)

So they can store needed materials and waste products.

c)

Because they keep dividing

d)

They aren't small

30.

What is the orange area called?

a)

sister chromatid

b)

centromere

c)

chromosomes

d)

centrosomes

31.

What do plant cells have during cell division that animal cells do not?

a)

cell plate

b)

chromatin

c)

centosomes

d)

cell barrier

32.

Cell division is

a)

the process by which two cells become one cell

b)

the process by which the number of chromosomes is cut in half

c)

the process by which the number of chromosomes is doubled

d)

The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells

33.

What helps separate the chromosomes during mitosis?

a)

nuclear membrane

b)

mitochondria

c)

cytoplasma

d)

spindle fibers

34.

If a parent cell has 38 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will the daughter cell have after cell division?

a)

38

b)

74

c)

19

d)

none

35.

Disadvantages of sexual reproduction are . . . (select all correct answers)

a)

lack of genetic diversity

b)

finding a mate

c)

genetic diversity

d)

takes time for offspring to develop

36.

Which are in the correct order?

a)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase

d)

interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

37.

Advantages of asexual reproduction are . . . (select all correct answers)

a)

simple

b)

genetic diversity

c)

two parents

d)

fast

38.

Together what makes up the blue area?

a)

sister chromatids

b)

centromere

c)

spindles

d)

centrosomes

39.

Sister chromatids are not exact copies of each other.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Sexual reproduction increases genetic diversity.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

What is the result of cell division?

a)

cell gets bigger

b)

harder for cell to get rid of waste

c)

cell can't get enough oxygen

d)

daughter cell gets copy of parent cells DNA

42.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
43.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
44.

having two of the same genes for the trait .

a)

homozygous

b)

hetrozygous

c)

protein

d)

chromosome

45.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
46.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
47.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
48.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
49.
In pea plants, the tall allele is dominant to the short allele. What key would demonstrate this?
a)
Tall = T
Short = S
b)
Tall = T
Short = t
c)
Tall = t
Short = T
d)
Tall = TT
Short = tt
50.

Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?

a)

Yy

b)

yY

c)

yy

d)

YY

51.

What are the phenotype percentages of the offspring?

(A-Brown fur color; a-white fur color)

a)

50 % Brown fur and 50% White fur

b)

25 % Brown fur and 75% White fur

c)

75 % Brown fur and 25% White fur

d)

0% Brown fur and 100% White fur

52.
If you cross a black guinea pig with a white guinea pig and the offspring are gray, what type of dominant trait would that be.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
codependant
d)
cooperative
53.
In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). If a rabbit has brown fur, what can you conclude about its genotype?
a)
It is BB.
b)
It is Bb
c)
It is brown
d)
It is bb.
54.

This Punnett square shows a cross between

a)

A heterozygous parent and a Homozygous parent

b)

A heterozygous parent and a heterozygous parent

c)

Two homozygous parents

d)

Two heterozygous Parents

55.
This is an example of
a)
Complete dominance
b)
Mendelian Genetics
c)
Codominance
d)
Incomplete Dominance
56.
Why are there no white rabbit babies?
a)
The white gene is not present in any of the babies.
b)
It takes two recessive genes to show the trait.
c)
Grey is a better color.
d)
Baby five will be white.
57.

Who is considered the "father" of modern genetics?

a)

Einstein

b)

Mendel

c)

Disney

d)

Washington

58.
What is the yellow seed genotype?
a)
aa
b)
Aa
c)
AA
d)
AA or Aa
59.

A dominant allele will

a)

always be expressed when present

b)

never be expressed when present

c)

will sometimes be expressed when present

d)

be represented by a lowercase letter

60.

What is the probability that a baby will be born male?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

61.

Which alleles are homozygous recessive?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

62.

In Siamese cats coat color is affected by temperature. This is an example of

a)

environmental affects on genetic traits

b)

Dominant traits

c)

Recessive traits

d)

Polygenetic traits

63.

When one gene is not completely dominant over another it is called

a)

multiple alleles

b)

polygenic inheritance

c)

incomplete dominance

d)

homozygous

64.

A single gene has 3 or more alleles. These are called

a)

multiple genes

b)

multiple alleles

c)

codominance

d)

polygenic traits

65.

What kind of traits are found on sex chromosomes?

a)

codominance

b)

autosomal

c)

sex-linked

d)

pedigree

66.

A heterozygous round, yellow seed parent is crossed with a heterozygous round, yellow seed parent. Both parents are heterozygous for both traits. What are the parents' genotypes?

a)

RrYy and RrYy

b)

RRYY and RrYy

c)

RrYY and RrYy

d)

rrYy and RRYY

67.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
68.

When the phenotype with the highest fitness is in the middle of the curve the result is

a)

genetic drift

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

stabilizing selection

69.
What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?
a)
To look different from other species.
b)
To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.
c)
To protect itself against predators.
d)
To protect itself against prey.
70.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
71.
Where humans have bred organisms together based on traits we like.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction 
d)
Artificial Selection
72.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
73.
A fossil of an extinct dinosaur is found and the anatomy of the fossil shows similarities to that of a bird. What could this mean?
a)
This is purely by chance and isn't significant
b)
The extinct dinosaur and modern bird share a common ancestor
c)
All dinosaurs evolved into birds and that's why there aren't any dinosaurs alive today
d)
Dinosaurs choose to fly, and evolved into birds to escape predation and capture food
74.
This scientist came up with the idea of natural selection.
a)
Jean Baptiste Lamarck
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Thomas Malthus
75.

There are red, white, and pink beans in Ben's garden. The chipmunks are eating the pink beans while the white and red beans are untouched. This is an example of what?

a)

genetic drift

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

directional selection

76.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection
77.

What do we call a change in a species over time?

a)

Adaptation

b)

Evolution

c)

Extinction

d)

Environmental influences

78.

What most likely caused the finches on the Galapagos Islands to have beaks that were different from the finches on the mainland?

a)

There were different types of predators on the island.

b)

There were different types of food available on the island.

c)

The finches had no water to drink.

d)

The finches on the mainland could not fly high enough.

79.

When individuals at one end of the curve have phenotypes with high fitness you have .................... ...................

a)

genetic drift

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

directional selection

d)

disruptive selection

80.

This structure could be leftover from an ancestor that had used the structure, and thus could provide evidence of divergent evolution

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Vestigial

81.

One example of ___ is how moths that couldn't blend in with their environments as well as others died out over time.

a)

mutation

b)

natural selection

c)

extinction

82.

All of the genetic information found in a population

a)

population

b)

genetic drift

c)

evolution

d)

gene pool

83.
Individuals that are better able to cope with the challenges of their environment tend to  
a)
Decrease in population over time.
b)
Leave more offspring than those less suited to the environment.
c)
Leave fewer offspring than those less suited to the environment.
84.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment 
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
 fitness
85.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Mutation
86.
The numbers in the diagram represent the first three months of spring in a grassland environment. The bird is carnivorous and eats mice for survival, and the mice depend on the seeds from the grasses.Which explanation best describes what is happening in the diagram?
a)
A disease affecting the carnivorous bird population results in the decreasing numbers of birds and the increasing numbers of mice.
b)
A disease reaches epidemic proportions resulting in a decrease in the mice population in the grassland.
c)
The dark phenotypic variation of the mice makes the dark-colored mice more visible to their predators so they are more likely to be eaten.
d)
The dark phenotypic variation of the mice provides an advantage that allows the dark-colored mice to survive and reproduce.
87.

The scientific theory of evolution is supported by different types of evidence. The diagram shows the skeletons of three different animal species. How does comparing the skeletons of these animals provide support for the scientific theory of evolution?

a)

It provides information about the organisms' habitats.

b)

It provides information to determine the organisms' ages.

c)

It shows possible common ancestry between organisms.

d)

It shows possible chromosomal similarities between organisms.

88.

Which of the following occurs because of "chance"?

a)

natural selection

b)

genetic drift

89.

Genes contain instructions for assembling

a)

operons

b)

mutagens

c)

proteins

d)

nucleosomes

90.

Genetic Drift tends to occur in ecosystems that are

a)

old

b)

big

c)

small

d)

moving

91.

What could cause a population size to decrease?

a)

death rate lower than birth rate

b)

death rate higher than birthrate

c)

death rate equal to birth rate

d)

birthrate higher than death rate

92.

Trophic levels show

a)

a food chain

b)

transfer of energy

c)

populations

d)

abiotic factors

93.

The process that forms four genetically different cells

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

genetic drift

d)

synthesis

94.

Meiosis 1 produces 2 _________ daughter cells

a)

diploid

b)

interphase

c)

sister

d)

haploid

95.

Organisms at the beginning of a food chain are

a)

primary producers

b)

primary consumers

c)

decomposers

d)

apex predators

96.

The total amount of living things in an ecosystem make up its

a)

abiotic factors

b)

energy

c)

biomass

d)

population

97.

A symbiotic relationship where one organism benefits while harming the other is called

a)

parasitism

b)

mutualism

c)

commensalism

d)

prey

98.

What would happen if the snake population decreased?

a)

The hawk population would increase

b)

The mouse and hawk would compete for food

c)

The plant population would increase

d)

The mouse population would increase

99.

Ecology is

a)

the study of how organisms change over time

b)

the study of interactions among organisms and between organisms in their environment

c)

the study of genetics and how traits are passed from parents to offspring

d)

the study of cells, mitosis, and meiosis

100.

Omnivores eat

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

fungi

d)

plants and animals

101.

Coyote live in the desert. The desert is their

a)

habitat

b)

biotic factor

c)

niche

d)

biosphere

102.

How is a food web different from a food chain?

a)

A food web is more specific

b)

A food web shows more possible feeding interactions

c)

A food web is simpler

d)

They are the same

103.

Secondary succession (select all correct answers)

a)

begins with lichen to create topsoil

b)

begins on soil

c)

occurs on new earth

d)

happens after a disruption in the ecosystem

104.

Primary succession (select all correct answers)

a)

occurs on newly formed earth

b)

starts with lichen to create soil

c)

occurs after a disaster

d)

starts with primary consumers

105.

If a species' resources such as food and shelter become less available what will happen to that species' population?

a)

it will increase slowly

b)

it will decrease quickly

c)

it will experience exponential growth

d)

it reaches carrying capacity

106.

Gametes are formed in which process?

a)

meiosis

b)

mutations

c)

mitosis

d)

translation

107.

A lion hunts, kills, and feeds on a gazelle. The lion is considered ___

a)

prey

b)

a symbiotic relationship

c)

a predator

d)

a parasite

108.

Select the terms in the correct order from smallest to largest in number

a)

population, species, community

b)

community, population,

species

c)

community, population, biotic

d)

species, population, community

109.

herbivores and carnivores both

a)

convert sunlight to energy

b)

are consumers

c)

are autotrophs

d)

consume producers

110.

Abiotic factors include (select all correct answers)

a)

sunlight

b)

water

c)

birds

d)

rock

111.

Biotic factors include (select all correct answers)

a)

trees

b)

leaves

c)

roots

d)

water

112.

This graph shows

a)

logistic grwoth

b)

carrying capacity

c)

adaptive radiation

d)

exponential growth

113.

a relationship in which both species benefits is

a)

predator-prey

b)

mutualism

c)

community

d)

commensalism

114.

What percentage of energy is passed on to the next trophic level?

a)

10

b)

90

c)

50

d)

1

115.

What happens to the energy that was not passed on to the next trophic level in an ecosystem?

a)

it is stored

b)

it is eaten

c)

it disappears

d)

it is eliminated as heat

116.

autotroph is to producer as

heterotroph is to ______

a)

herbivore

b)

consumer

c)

plant

d)

broccoli

117.

In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

M

b)

G

c)

R

d)

S

118.

A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits and the other is unaffected is called

a)

predator - prey

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

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