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APES Exam Final

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 2hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
This comes from the decay of uranium in underlying bedrock and can cause cancer
a)
radon
b)
lead
c)
copper
d)
iron
2.
Sushi containing fish higher in the food chain (tuna, grouper, sea bass, etc.) could cause health risks due to bioaccumulation of
a)
lead
b)
radon
c)
mercury
d)
asbestos
3.
Which region would you expect to contain the most methane hydrates that could contribute to global climate change?
a)
Anything near the arctic
b)
Central America
c)
Australia and New Zealand
d)
Near the editerranian
4.
Which region of the world has exported the most petroleum over the last few decades?
a)
Middle east 
b)
USA
c)
China
d)
United Kingdom
5.
Anthropogenic climate change has resulted in the largest average annual temperature change in 
a)
arctic regions
b)
desert regions
c)
savannas 
d)
tropical rainforests
6.
Seafloor spreading creates new crust at
a)
a divergent plate boundary (usually middle of the ocean)
b)
convergent plate boundary
c)
fault line
d)
all of these
7.
Phytoplankton live near the surface of the water because
a)
they eat krill which only are abundant near the surface of the water
b)
there are less predators near the surface of the ocean
c)
sunlight cannot reach great depths and they need it for photosynthesis
d)
they are blown there from the land and end up floating on the surface of the water until they are consumed
8.
Catalytic converters were added to cars in the 70s to reduce which pollutant?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
carbon monoxide 
c)
particulate matter
d)
methane
9.
A hybrid vehicle uses _______________ while a fuel cell vehicle uses __________________.
a)
an internal combustion engine and battery, hydrogen to generate electricity
b)
hydrogen to generate electricity, an internal combustion engine and battery
c)
ethanol, hydrogen to generate electricity
d)
an internal combustion engine and battery, methane or natural gas
10.
Which type of soil would be used for the liner of a landfill?
a)
soil high in gravel
b)
soil high in sand
c)
soil high in clay
d)
soil high in silt
11.
Which would be classified as "loam"?
a)
Sand: 40, Silt: 40, Clay: 20
b)
Sand: 60, Silt: 10, Clay: 30
c)
Sand: 20, Silt: 50, Clay: 30
d)
Sand: 50, Silt: 10, Clay: 40
12.
LA and Mexico City frequently experience smog partly because they sit in a valley and are more prone to 
a)
thermal inversions
b)
theory of island biogeography
c)
having a lower albedo
d)
using higher concentration of CFCs
13.
The Ogallala aquifer is located ___________ and is at risk of _______________.
a)
Eastern Europe, completely drying out due to diverting water for agriculture
b)
Midwest United States, depletion from over consumption
c)
Fiji islands, saltwater intrusion due to pumping artesian wells too rapidly
d)
Sub Saharan Africa, depletion from climate change 
14.
The juniper tree only thrives in the cold, dry conditions of China. Global climate change is likely
a)
to kill all of the juniper trees immediately
b)
to decrease the numbers, but also force juniper trees to grow north toward Russia
c)
allow juniper trees to increase their total population and extend their range south toward Indonesia 
d)
all of these are equally likely if the global temperatures increase 
15.
Which is the best explanation of a Hadley cell?
a)
Warm air rises at the equator, cools, sinks at 30 degrees and warms back up to create deserts
b)
cool air rises at the equator, gains moisture, and falls back down to earth around 30 degrees to create rain forests
c)
cool air rises at 30 degrees, loses moisture, then falls back down to earth at 60 degrees and creates Boreal forests
d)
none of these
16.
Why are there higher rates of extinction on smaller, isolated islands compared to larger islands closer to the mainland?
a)
smaller islands have less predators than larger islands
b)
smaller islands have less available resources
c)
smaller islands further away from the mainland usually receive less human activity/disruption
d)
larger islands create more space between organisms and they sometimes can't find each other to mate
17.
Most organisms experience logistic growth. The point where the growth levels off is called
a)
density independent factor line
b)
carrying capacity
c)
exponential growth model
d)
line of best fit
18.
N2 is taken from the atmosphere and converted to ammonium ______ by bacteria on the roots of legumes, converted to _____ and _____ before being denitrified back into N2.
a)
NH4, NO2, NO3
b)
NO2, NO3, NH4
c)
NH4, N2, NH3
d)
NH3, N2, NO2
19.
What is one concern with genetically modified crops?
a)
they could lead to decreased genetic diversity
b)
they could increase yield and require less land to grow the same amount of food
c)
GM crops are only able to grow in the perfect soil conditions
d)
Runoff from GM crops can pollute water systems with increased levels of nitrogen and pesticides
20.
Amphibians are often affected more by chemicals such as pesticides because
a)
amphibians often eat chemicals and mistake them for food
b)
the chemicals act as endocrine disruptors and can get into their porous skin
c)
amphibians reproduce very slowly and their young are easily affected
d)
amphibians live in the water and are more prone to the runoff than fish
21.
All of the following are disadvantages of nuclear power EXCEPT
a)
no CO2 is emitted
b)
nuclear power plants are expensive to build
c)
radioactive waste is produced and difficult to dispose of properly
d)
uranium is unlimited and a renewable resource
22.
Adding ____________ to soil can help neutralize a lower pH.
a)
limestone
b)
gravel
c)
water
d)
fertilizer
23.
El Nino conditions
a)
prevent upwelling of colder waters along the west coast of S. America which prevents fish from coming closer to the surface as well
b)
sends warm weather patterns from the eastern United States to western Europe
c)
is directly causing most of the ice in the arctic regions to melt at extremely fast rates
d)
can easily be predicted
24.
Why is the open ocean considered one of the most productive areas for biodiveristy?
a)
phytoplankton and other smaller organisms are abundant and feed entire foodchains
b)
there is little to no competition between species
c)
open oceans are not susceptible to things like climate change or pollution at all
d)
none of these
25.
Which is most likely the reason that Darwin's finches were similar genetically, but had different beak sizes and shapes?
a)
each bird chose which type of beak would be best suited for its environment 
b)
the birds had different beaks to begin with and just traveled to the island that made the best use of their beak
c)
selective pressure was placed on the birds by the environment and the types of foods readily available on each island
d)
none of these
26.

A couple replaces their 4 gallon-per-minute showerhead with a 2 gallon-per-minute one. If they each take an average 10 minute shower daily, how much water would they save in a month?

a)

1200 gallons

b)

600 gallons

c)

250 gallons

d)

1000 gallons

27.
What is hydraulic fracturing (fracking)?
a)
pumping water and chemicals underground to create pathways to release oil and gas
b)
thumper trucks smash into the ground to create a controlled earthquake and release methane deposits that can be collected and used for fuel
c)
the capture of volatile organic compounds from smokestacks and tailpipes to reduce greenhouse gas emissions
d)
a process to treat and remove acid deposition from abandoned mine sites by adding neutralizing chemicals
28.
Which describes a country's change in demographics as it begins to transition from a preindustrial to to industrial state?
a)
pop decreases rapidly, birth rate declines, death rate increases
b)
pop increases rapidly, birth rate remains high, death rate increases rapidly
c)
pop increases rapidly, birth rate remains high, death rate decrease
d)
pop decreases, birth rate remains high, death rate increases dramatically
29.
All of the following would be considered negative externalities EXCEPT
a)
developing an upper respiratory infection from living in a densely populated city  
b)
insects pollinating fruits and vegetables
c)
increased release of methane as a result of raising beef cattle
d)
higher levels of E. coli in drinking water reservoirs after periods of increased rainfall
30.
Algal blooms and eutrophication are usually caused by
a)
increased N and P from agricultural runoff from fertilizers
b)
the average increase in temperature globally
c)
the thermohaline circulation 
d)
CO2 emissions from burning fossil fuels
31.
A LD50 study on the impact of mercury on the health of mice was conducted. Which of the following is true of the setup of the study?
a)
in the control group, mercury is given to sunflowers instead of mice
b)
the independent variable is the concentration of mercury
c)
the dependent variable is the number of mice that die
d)
independent and dependent variables are both correct
32.
A major downside to solar energy is that
a)
it cannot reliably produce as much electricity on cloudy days
b)
it is relatively cheap to manufacture and maintain
c)
solar energy releases much more particulate matter than any other energy source
d)
it can only be used for large scale businesses and buildings
33.
All of the following are anthropogenic sources of nitrogen pollution EXCEPT
a)
discharge of sewage into surface waters
b)
commercial fertilizers
c)
vehicle exhaust and industrial air pollution
d)
disposal of refrigeration units including air conditioners
34.
Burning one gallon of gasoline releases approximately 10 pounds of CO2. What is the difference in CO2 emissions if two cars both travel 20,000 miles, but car 1 gets 40 mpg and car 2 get 20 mpg?
a)
10,000-5,000 = 5,000 pound difference
b)
10,000+5,000= 15,000 pound difference
c)
1,000-500 (2) = 1,000 pound difference
d)
400-200 (20,000) = 4 million pound difference
35.
Which would promote fertility above replacement level for a country currently below 2.1 children per woman?
a)
increased education and availability of birth control, especially for teenagers
b)
tax breaks for families with more than 2 children
c)
a two-child policy
d)
tax breaks and incentives for families with less than 2 children
36.
E. coli (fecal coliform bacteria) 
a)
exists naturally in the intestine of animals, but is an indicator that there might be human or animal waste in the substance being tested 
b)
can cause death if ingested directly
c)
only exist in extreme environments, such as volcanic vents deep underwater
d)
is an indicator that oil and gas might be polluting a body of water
37.
Mercury most likely enters the environment via
a)
coal-burning emissions
b)
medical waste incinerators
c)
organic fertilizers
d)
municipal solid waste
38.
Eutrophication can result in death for certain fish due to
a)
lack of dissolved oxygen in the water 
b)
extremely high levels of dissolved oxygen in the water 
c)
toxic levels of lead in the water from nearby farms
d)
pH well above the range of tolerance that many fish species can survive 
39.
Which is an example of a "carbon sink"?
a)
organic matter deposited on the deep ocean floor
b)
clear-cutting rainforests
c)
burning fossil fuels and releasing ancient and stored carbon into the atmosphere
d)
release of particulate matter that ends up on reflective surfaces over time
40.
Hydraulic fracturing (fracking) is most likely to result in which of the following environmental problems?
a)
ozone depletion
b)
contamination of groundwater by fracking chemicals
c)
deforestation 
d)
eutrophication of rivers and streams due to the fracking chemicals
41.
A farmer suspects that his cattle grazing in fields next to his farm might be helping prevent an invasive weed from growing. How could he conduct an experiment to prove this?
a)
count the number of weeds that each cattle eats on a daily basis
b)
compare weed survivorship in fields where his cattle graze vs where they don't
c)
put tracking devices on the cattle to monitor where they eat vs where they sleep
d)
introduce another species of weed to the cattle field and see if the population increases or decreases over a year
42.
K-selected species 
a)
produce few offspring, but with high levels of parental care
b)
produce many offspring, but with low levels of parental care
c)
have medium levels of offspring produced as well as parental care
d)
none of these
43.
60 % of MSW in the United States could be composted. Every American generates 2kg of MSW daily. After 1 month, how many kgs could be composted by the average American?
a)
36 kg
b)
60 kg
c)
8.4 kg
d)
27.3 kg
44.
Which place would experience 24 hours of daylight on December 21?
a)
Greenland and Iceland
b)
Antarctica 
c)
Ecuador (0 degrees latitude)
d)
Russia
45.
Bioaccumulation 
a)
happens exclusively in marine mammals and is the reason that the Marine Mammal Protection Act was passed
b)
is the transfer of persistent pollutants from one generation to the next
c)
can only happen with water soluble chemicals such as mercury  
d)
is when the absorption of a substance happens at a greater rate than the elimination of the same substance in an organism
46.
What is tragedy of the commons?
a)
when chemicals travel up the food chain and pile up in the fatty tissue of larger mammals
b)
when people over harvest an area that is not privately owned and tend to take more than the environment can successfully replace on its own 
c)
when there is a global problem, but everyone sees it as "everyone else's problem"
d)
people tend to feel a greater responsibility to protect land or sea that belongs to everyone compared to if it belongs to an individual or company 
47.

In an acre of grassland, net primary productivity is best measured as

a)

carbon taken up by plants in sunlight plus carbon released by plants in the dark

b)

carbon taken up by plants in sunlight

c)

aboveground biomass of plants

d)

aboveground and belowground biomass of plants

e)

carbon taken up by plants in sunlight minus carbon released by plants in the dark

48.

Ocean acidification represents a key component of the

a)

nitrogen cycle

b)

hydrologic cycle

c)

phosphorus cycle

d)

carbon cycle

e)

sulfur cycle

49.

Which is most likely to be the replacement-level fertility for a developing nation in the third phase of demographic transition?

a)

1.8

b)

2.0

c)

2.2

d)

3.5

e)

5

50.

A population with an age distribution shaped like a pyramid

I. exhibits a stable population size.

II. is likely to exhibit high population momentum.

III. has a high crude birth rate.

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II

d)

I and III

e)

II and III

51.

Which of the following is NOT an outcome of a prescribed fire burn?

a)

Dead biomass is retained in the forest.

b)

Nutrients in dead material are liberated for primary producers.

c)

The risk of larger forest fires is minimized.

d)

Habitat is provided for early-succession species.

e)

The burning of the forest can stimulate the growth of other plant species.

52.

Which will NOT result in energy savings?

a)

Increasing insulation of walls and ceilings in a residence

b)

Replacing LED bulbs with CFL bulbs

c)

Using a passive solar design in the construction of a new building

d)

Installing sensors to turn off lights when a room is vacant

e)

Implementing a financial incentive to encourage the replacement of old household appliances

53.

Which environment is characterized by frequent fires?

a)

Desert

b)

Grassland

c)

Temperate Forest

d)

Tundra

54.

Catalytic converters reduce which of the following pairs of pollutants from car exhaust?

a)

Carbon dioxide and Ozone

b)

Carbon dioxide and Particulates

c)

Carbon Monoxide and Hydrocarbons

d)

Lead and Mercury

55.

All of the following are considered household hazardous waste except

a)

batteries

b)

bug spray

c)

motor oil

d)

food scraps

56.

Brown pelicans eat fish, as a result of El Nino, the population in southern California of brown pelicans as declined. Which of the following best explains the relationship between El Nino event and the population decline?

a)

Warmer ocean temps can cause fish to move to colder water away from pelican nests

b)

Lower surface heights can result in nest sites being isolated too far from food supply

c)

Male pelicans get disoriented due to the lack of moisture and fail to return to the nest with food

d)

Predatory seal populations increase dramatically due to decreased rainfall

57.

Storm water runoff from a new development into a nearby creek will likely lead to which of the following?

a)

Biomagnification of mercury in birds of prey such as eagles and osprey

b)

Improved recreational opportunities for swimmers and boaters

c)

Destruction of fish habitats by high levels of suspended solids and sediments

d)

Increased incidence of waterborne diseases such as malaria

58.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of recent blooms of blue-green algae in Lake Erie?

a)

Increased recreation in the lake

b)

Cooler than average summer temps

c)

Phosphorus contained in agricultural runoff

d)

Carbon in wastewater from fracking operations

59.
The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....
a)
Convergent Boundary
b)
Divergent Boundary
c)
Transform Boundary
d)
Plate Boundary
60.
What type of plate boundary is this?
a)
Plate
b)
Divergent
c)
Convergent
d)
Transform
61.
Which of the following causes Earth's tectonic plates to move?
a)
Energy from the Sun
b)
Magnetic Pole Reversal
c)
Convection currents in the mantle
d)
Faults in Mountain Ranges
62.
Why are there global winds?
a)
because the cold air sinkes from the poles to the equator
b)
because the earth is rotating from east to west
c)
because the sun heats the air at the equator more than anywhere else on earth
63.
In the Northern Hemisphere, hurricane winds blow
a)
harder than in the Southern Hemisphere
b)
counterclockwise
c)
clockwise
d)
less than in the Southern Hemisphere
64.
What do you call heat getting trapped in the ozone layer?
a)
Coriolis Effect
b)
Temperature Inversion 
c)
Greenhouse Effect 
d)
El Nino 
65.
What was the purpose of the formation of the Kyoto protocol?
a)
To limit carbon emissions world wide 
b)
To increase world trade 
c)
To increase world food production
d)
To decrease world population number
66.

What are the most populous countries, in order from largest to smallest?

a)

China, US, India

b)

India, China, Nigeria

c)

China, India, US

d)

China, India, Nigeria

67.

Which phase of the demographic transition model is exemplified by low death rates, high birth rates, and rapidly growing population?

a)

Post-industrial

b)

Industrial

c)

Transitional

d)

Pre-industrial

68.

Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?

a)

Effluent from a sewage treatment plant

b)

BP refiner in Indiana discharging ammonia in a river.

c)

Runoff of pesticides from regional farms into the Illinois River.

d)

Hot water discharges from a nuclear power plant.

69.

Which of the following are not a water treatment procedures used to disinfect and kill harmful bacteria?

a)

Distillation

b)

Chlorine

c)

UV rays

d)

Ozone

e)

Desalination

70.
What do we call the land area that supplies water to a river system?
a)
runoff
b)
recharge
c)
watershed
d)
valley
71.

Acid deposition forms as a result of

a)

nitrogen oxides and photochemical smog.

b)

carbon monoxide and VOCs.

c)

sulfur dioxide and VOCs.

d)

nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxide.

e)

carbon monoxide and photochemical smog.

72.

Isotopes have the same number of _____, but a different number of __________.

a)

protons; neutrons

b)

protons, electrons

c)

electrons, neutrons

d)

protons; bosons

73.
The step in the nitrogen cycle where bacteria convert ammonia (NH3) to nitrate (NO3-) is:
a)
nitrification
b)
ammonification
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
assimilation
74.
The process where some bacteria remove nitrate from the soil by converting it to nitrogen gas is:
a)
nitrification
b)
nitrogen fixation
c)
denitrification
d)
nitrification
75.
In this Food Web Pyramid Which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Omnivore
d)
Top carnivore
76.
A bird nests in a tree.  The tree does not gain any benefit and is not harmed.  What relationship best describes this:
a)
commensalism
b)
parasitism
c)
mutualism
d)
mimicry
77.
What percentage of energy is passed on to each tropic level in an energy pyramid?
a)
10%
b)
50%
c)
90%
d)
100%
78.
What type of growth model is this?
a)
exponential growth model
b)
logistic growth model
c)
Type I curve
d)
Type III curve
79.
the species that starts life in primary succession
a)
pioneer species 
b)
succession 
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
cellular respiration 
80.

Smart gird is the interconnection of

a)

Power & IT

b)

Power, IT & Communication

c)

IT & Communication

d)

Power & Mechatronics

81.
Nonrenewable resources are natural resources, such as fossil fuels, that will eventually be used up and can never be replaced
a)
True
b)
False
82.
Geothermal energy is
a)
heat energy naturally produced in earthquakes
b)
is heat naturally produced in space
c)
is heat naturally produced within Earth
d)
is heat energy naturally produced in the water
83.
Nuclear Power is a __________ energy resource.
a)
Renewable
b)
Nonrenewable
84.
What soil type is typically found on the top of soil?
a)
Humus because it made up of dead, organic matter
b)
Loam because it is lighter than the other layers
c)
Clay because it is not able to fit through the finer particles
d)
Rock because the other layers are more dense
85.
What was one of the major causes of the Dust Bowl?
a)
Cold and windy weather
b)
Increasing prices and demand for crops
c)
Removal of grasses and overfarming
d)
Sandy soil composition that would not stay in place
86.
Which type of soil is best for growing plants?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
dirt
d)
loam
87.
Deficiencies in key proteins or carbohydrates is scientifically referred to as
a)
undernutrition
b)
overnutrition
c)
malnutrition
d)
hypernutrition
88.
The 3 main grain crops (in any order) grown in the US are:
a)
rice, kale, and corn
b)
wheat, barley, and hops
c)
corn, wheat, and rice
d)
hemp, corn, and rice
89.
The order of soil horizons from top to bottom is
a)
O, E, C, B, A
b)
O, C, A, B, E
c)
O, A, E, B, C
d)
A, B, C, E, O
90.

Fifteen hundred acres is closest to ______ hectares (1 hectare = 2.47 acres)

a)

300

b)

6000

c)

60

d)

3000

e)

600

91.

At which stage of the hydrological cycle are conditions most likely to contribute to an algal bloom?

a)

evaporation

b)

precipitation

c)

transpiration

d)

infiltration

e)

runoff

92.

How does an algal bloom affect the oxygen content of the water?

a)

an algal bloom will cause the oxygen content to increase

b)

an algal bloom will cause oxygen to decrease and lead to hypoxic conditions

c)

an algal bloom will have no effect

d)

it will cause the oxygen content to fluctuate rapidly, and vary by the depth of the water

93.

What latitude receives the most direct sunlight throughout the year?

a)

90 North

b)

30-60 N

c)

0

d)

30- 60 S

e)

90 South

94.
Which of these is not an example of a commons?
a)
Aquifers
b)
The ocean
c)
Privately owned farms
d)
Highways
95.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
96.

What is a species that is critical for the overall health of an ecosystem?

a)

endangered species

b)

invasive species

c)

keystone species

d)

native species

97.

When an ecosystem has a greater biodiversity, what does that allow the ecosystem to do?

a)

recover more easily from stresses on the ecosystem

b)

make the area more inviting to non-native predators

c)

support more populations of organisms

d)

attract more species to live there

98.

Coral reefs are endangered by

a)

climate change

b)

overfishing

c)

pollution

d)

all of the above

99.
what is the leading cause of deforestation?
a)
Diseases 
b)
Housing market
c)
Agriculture and Farming
d)
Paper mill
100.
Forests that have trees that appear to be in uniform rows are most likely
a)
second-growth forests
b)
primary forests
c)
tree farms or commercial forests
d)
the result of forest fire
101.

Less than 3% of the water on earth is

a)

salt water

b)

freshwater

c)

ice

d)

polluted

102.

The term subsidence refers to

a)

failure of the groundwater supply

b)

sinking of ground when water has been withdrawn

c)

living on very little money

d)

intrusion of salt water into a freshwater aquifer

e)

money paid by the government to farmers

103.
Rock that forms when minerals form from solutions or sediment from older rocks get pressed and cemented together.
a)
Sedimentary Rock
b)
Metamorphic Rock
c)
Igneous Rock
104.
Reclamation is.....
a)
not required in the US.
b)
a process that causes significant environmental damage.
c)
returning the land back to its original condition after mining
d)
required for every country and every type of mine in the world.
105.
Combines with other pollutants to form acid rain
a)
Nitrogen oxides & sulfur dioxide
b)
Particulate matter & lead
c)
Nitrogen oxides & ground-level ozone
d)
Sulfur dioxide & ground-level ozone
106.
Where you will find the ozone layer.
a)
stratosphere
b)
thermosphere
c)
exosphere
d)
mesosphere
107.
Where weather occurs.
a)
stratosphere
b)
thermosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
mesosphere
108.
Makes up most of the municipal solid waste
a)
paper
b)
plastic
c)
manufacturing waste
d)
leachate
109.

What device reduces SO2 emissions in power plants?

a)

scrubber units

b)

electrostatic precipitators

c)

catalytic converters

d)

afterburners

110.

Which of the following 2 use PASSIVE solar energy?

a)

south-facing room with windows

b)

solar oven

c)

solar panels

d)

photovoltaic cells

111.

Law holding perpetrator liable for clean-up of hazardous waste

a)

RCRA

b)

CERCLA

c)

CWA

d)

ANWR

112.

Differences in __________ SEPARATE the various components of crude OIL.

a)

viscosity

b)

sulfur

c)

solubility

d)

boiling points

113.

Source of energy that causes noise pollution and increase death in birds

a)

wind energy

b)

solar energy

c)

geothermal energy

d)

biomass energy

114.

The majority of emergent infectious diseases arise...

a)

from prion mutations

b)

when people generate resistant bacteria by not completing antibiotic medicine

c)

from sexual contact

d)

when a disease unexpectedly jumps from animals to people

115.

Which is true of invasive species?

a)

They are defined as species that come from other countries

b)

by definition, all exotic species are invasive

c)

all invasive species spread rapidly

d)

invasive species most come from another continent

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