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Unit 4- Evolution and diversity of life

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Traits that increase the chance that an individual survives and reproduce.

a)

Adaptations

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Evolution

2.

The environment exerts a strong influence on which individuals survive and which die.

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Artificial Selection

c)

Random Processes

3.

What are the 3 ways of how evolution occurs?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Artificial Selection

c)

Random Processes

d)

Adaptations

4.

Charles Darwin introduced evolution in ____ in his book, "_________"

a)

1859, "On the Origin of Species"

b)

1859, "Natural Selection"

c)

1869, "Theory of Evolution"

5.

Is a way humans influence evolution.

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Artificial Selection

c)

Random Processes

6.

Primary source of genetic diversity.

Caused by radiation.

a)

Mutation

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Bottleneck Effects

d)

Founder Effect

7.

A change in the genetic composition of a population over time as a result of random mating.

Cross-breed.

a)

Mutation

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Bottleneck Effects

d)

Founder Effect

8.

Reduction in the genetic diversity of a population caused by a reduction in its size.

(Ex: Increased risk of disease, low fertility to extinction)

a)

Mutation

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Bottleneck Effects

d)

Founder Effect

9.

Few individuals from a population start a new population.

Island population that has a generic composition very different from the original population.

a)

Mutation

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Bottleneck Effects

d)

Founder Effect

10.

Is a group of individuals capable of interbreeding to produce fertile offspring.

a)

Species

b)

Population

c)

Organisms

11.

The formation of new and distinct species in the course of evolution.

Splitting of a single lineage.

a)

Speciation

b)

Extinction

c)

Resistance

12.

What are the 2 Kinds of Speciation?

a)

Allopatric Speciation

b)

Sympatric Speciation

c)

Allopatry Speciation

d)

Sympathetic Speciation

13.

How do fossils support the theory of common descent?

a)

They are a record of some intermediate types of organisms that document the process of evolution

b)

They can be easily and precisely dated by comparing the rock layers where they are found

c)

They are found equally all over the world, so they explain all our questions about biogeography

d)

They contain complete DNA genomes, so they can be compared to modern organisms

14.

True or false: Evolution is a very controversial idea among scientists.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

After observing different finch species on different islands in the Caribbean, a scientist notices that finches on islands with big seeds have bigger beaks. This is an example of:

a)

adaptation

b)

homology

c)

transitional species

d)

vestigial traits

16.

Which of the following was NOT one of the four observations that led Charles Darwin to propose the theory of natural selection?

a)

Populations of organisms produce more than enough offspring to survive

b)

There is variation among the individuals of a population

c)

Some individual variation can be inherited by offspring

d)

Survival and reproduction are random

17.

After a rapid change in climate, one population of bird quickly adapts to the change and most of the birds have thicker feathers after several generations. Another population in the area does not. What could you conclude about the quickly adapting population?

a)

They had a greater need to evolve than the other population

b)

They already had some alleles in their genome that could improve fitness in the new environment

c)

They reproduced more slowly than the non-adapting population

d)

They had a higher rate of mutation than the other population

18.

One population of flies mates early in the morning while another mates in the evening. The populations are morphologically similar and each utilize the same resources.


Which reproductive barrier is best shown here?

a)

Temporal isolation

b)

Gametic isolation

c)

Habitat isolation

d)

Mechanical isolation

19.

when speciation happens in the same environment it is referred to as....

a)

Sympatric speciation

b)

Allopatric speciation

c)

Fusion

d)

Stability

20.

At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, there is no...

a)

Mutations

b)

Gene flow

c)

Genetic drift

d)

All of the above

21.

Which of the following is a precondition for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

Random mating

b)

Sexual selection

c)

Migration

d)

Low amount of mutations

22.

What is q?

a)

Homozygous phenotype

b)

Heterozygous phenotype

c)

Recessive allele frequency

d)

Dominant allele frequency

23.

The evolution rate at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is.....

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

None

d)

Negative

24.

If p= 0.6

What is the frequency of the recessive phenotype?

a)

0.36

b)

0.40

c)

0.16

d)

0.48

25.

In a population of 1000 dragonfly, 80% alleles are dominant. What is the frequency of recessive allele?

a)

0.8

b)

0.2

c)

20%

d)

80%

26.

There are 3 T alleles and 7 t alleles in a population. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele.

a)

30%

b)

70%

c)

10%

d)

4%

27.

In a population, the frequency of alleles (p) in homozygous dominant individuals is 0.7, and the frequency of alleles (q) in homozygous recessive individuals is 0.3. What is the population's predicted frequency of homozygous recessive alleles if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

0.09

b)

0.49

c)

0.21

d)

0.42

28.

A population consists of 200 diploid organisms. There are 44 recessive alleles from the total alleles in the population. Find the dominant allele frequency?

a)

0.11

b)

0.22

c)

0.78

d)

   0.89

29.

In a pea plant population, R controls the flower colour purple and r controls the flower colour white. In an isolated pea population, there are 36 white flowers and 64 purple flowers. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the value of q for this population?

a)

0.36

b)

0.80

c)

0.64

d)

 0.60

30.

A large population of a particular animal has been allowed to breed randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 16% of the animals display a recessive trait. What is the frequency of the recessive allele?

a)

0.40

b)

0.25

c)

0.16

d)

0.50

31.

It is a system of organizing things based on shared characteristics.

a)

Taxonomy

b)

Systematics

c)

Phylogenetics

d)

Classification

32.

It is the classification of biological diversity through the use of shared ancestry.

a)

Taxonomy

b)

Systematics

c)

Phylogenetics

d)

Classification

33.
What is the purpose of a dichotomous key?
a)
to find a common ancestor
b)
to show the evolution of organisms
c)
to show relationships between organisms
d)
to identify organisms
34.
A dichotomous key for trees is provided. Hikers found a tree that has large brown cones and single sharp needles. What species of tree have the hikers found?
a)
Juniper
b)
Pine
c)
Spruce
d)
Fir
35.

Using the cladogram below, what is the shared characteristic of lizards, pigeons, mice, and chimps

a)

Feathers

b)

Claws/Nails

c)

Mammary gland

d)

Fur

36.
These moths are all the same species. The differences between their wings is an example of ________________
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Variation
c)
Homeostasis
d)
Extinction
37.

What kind of diagram is this?

(a)  

38.
a)
Homologous
b)
Vestigial
c)
Analogous
39.

Which phrase best describes the Linnaean classification system?

a)

The taxa are interchangeable

b)

There is only one kingdom

c)

Each level includes the more specific levels below.

d)

Each genus contains one species.

40.
What is a dichotomous key used for in science?
a)
To organize biomes
b)
Classify organisms
c)
Identify bacteria only
d)
None of these
41.

Kingdom classification containing complex, multicellular organisms that lack a cell wall.

a)

Eubacteria

b)

Animalia

c)

Protista

d)

Plantae

42.

Domain made up of prokaryotes that are distinguished from other prokaryotes by difference in their genetics and in the makeup of their cell wall.

a)

Archaea

b)

Protista

c)

Bacteria

d)

Plantae

43.

A system for giving each organism a two-word scientific name that consists of the genus name followed by the species name.

a)

taxonomy

b)

phylogenetics

c)

binomial nomenclature

d)

cladogram

44.

A taxonomic grouping that includes only a single ancestor and all of its descendants.

a)

clade

b)

cladogram

c)

cladistics

d)

phylogenetic diagram

45.

A taxonomic category containing Orders with common characteristics.

a)

Genus

b)

Class

c)

Order

d)

Family

46.

A feature that evolved only within a particular taxonomic group.

a)

division

b)

phylogenetics

c)

derived character

d)

derived shared character

47.

In a taxonomic system based on rRNA analysis, one of the three broad groups that all living things fall into

a)

Domain

b)

Bacteria

c)

Archaea

d)

Eukarya

48.

A Domain made up of all eukaryotes.

a)

Archaea

b)

Animalia

c)

Eukarya

d)

Bacteria

49.

The taxonomic category below the order and above the genus.

a)

Class

b)

Species

c)

Phylum

d)

Family

50.

Kingdom classification made up of nongreen, eukaryotic organisms that get food by breaking down organic matter. Detritivores

a)

Fungi

b)

Plantae

c)

Archaebacteria

d)

Protista

51.

The level of classification that comes after family and that contains similar species.

a)

Species

b)

Order

c)

Class

d)

Genus

52.

Kingdom classification made up of eukaryotic, multicellular organisms tha have cell walls made mostly of cellulose.

a)

Eubacteria

b)

Plantae

c)

Protista

d)

Archaebacteria

53.

Kingdom classification of mostly one-celled eukaryotic organisms that are different from plants, animals, and fungi.

a)

Eubacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Protista

d)

Archaebacteria

54.

A group of organisms that are closely related and can mate to produce fertile offspring.

a)

Species

b)

Animalia

c)

Family

d)

clade

55.

Any particular group within a taxonomic system.

a)

taxon

b)

species

c)

clade

d)

Domain

56.

What is the shape of this bacteria?

a)

Bacillus

b)

Coccus

c)

Spirillum

57.

What is the shape of this bacteria?

a)

Bacillus

b)

Coccus

c)

Spirillum

58.

What is the shape of this bacteria?

a)

Bacillus

b)

Coccus

c)

Spirillum

59.

Bacteria do not have a nucleus.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

How did bacteria make complex life on Earth possible?

a)

By releasing oxygen into the atmosphere

b)

By destroying life-inhibiting volcanoes

c)

By evolving rapidly into multi-celled organisms

d)

All of the above

61.

What might happen if you didn't have bacteria in your digestive tract?

a)

Your intestines would shut down

b)

Your body couldn't break down certain types of food

c)

You would never get sick

d)

You wouldn't be able to eat vegetables

62.
A collective mass of hyphae are referred to as ------------
a)
Parasitic
b)
Fruiting
c)
Mycelium
d)
Spores
63.

Are fungi autotrophs or heterotrophs?

a)

Autotrophs

b)

Heterotrophs

64.
What do fungi use to reproduce?
a)
Hyphae
b)
Branches
c)
Spores
d)
They split apart
65.

Fungi are NOT classified as plants because

a)

They do not have cell wall

b)

They produce asexual spores

c)

They do not produce flowers

d)

They do not have chlorophyll

66.

Which of the following is the mode of digestion for fungi?

a)

Photosynthetic

b)

Chemotrophic

c)

Saprophytic

d)

Holozoic

67.

Non-vascular plants belongs to which group?

a)

pteridophytes

b)

bryophytes

c)

gymnosperms

d)

angiosperms

68.

Which of the following is the unique characteristics for Kingdom Plantae

a)

cell wall consist of peptidoplycan

b)

carbohydrate storage is glycogen

c)

has alternation of generation

d)

motile

69.

Mosses and liverworts are called non-vascular plant because

a)

they lack motile sperm

b)

they lack seed

c)

they lack vascular tissue

d)

they lack true roots, stems and leaves

70.

Alternation of generations in plants refers to the alternation of

a)

diploid and haploid stages

b)

male and female stages

c)

meiotic and mitotic stages

d)

spore and seed stages

71.
Plants that produce seeds in cones are known as _____, while flower producing plants are known as _____.
a)
Angiosperms; Gymnosperms
b)
Nonvascular plants; Vascular plants
c)
Vascular plants; Nonvascular plants
d)
Gymnosperms; Angiosperms
72.

Usual mode of reproduction: Sexual

Type of fertilization: External

Embryology: Blastopore contributes to the formation of anus; cleavage is radial

Symmetry: Immature form is bilateral; mature form is five-part radial

Body cavity: Lined with tissue derived from mesoderm

Segmentation: No evidence

Skeleton: Spiny exoskeleton secreted by the dermis and covered with a thin epidermis

Habitat: marine


Into what phylum should this organism be placed?

a)

Chordata

b)

Echinodermata

c)

Mollusca

d)

Nematoda

73.

Coelomate, exoskeleton and jointed appendages are characteristics of

a)

Annelida

b)

Arthropoda

c)

Mollusca

d)

Chordata

74.

Pharyngeal slits, endoskeleton derived from mesoderm and ventral heart are characteristics for

a)

Annelida

b)

Chordata

c)

Cnidaria

d)

Nematoda

75.

Of which Phylum are you a member?

a)

Mammalia

b)

Chordata

c)

Osteicthyes

d)

Echinodermata

76.
Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all have similar arm bones. What is the reason for this?
a)
The function of these bones is the same in all animals
b)
They live in similar environments
c)
They have a common ancestor
d)
All organisms resemble humans
77.
Bird wings and butterfly wings are an example of
a)
Homologous structure
b)
Analogous structure
c)
Mimicry
d)
Camoflague
78.
Structures that are inherited from a common ancestor are homologous.
a)
True
b)
False
79.

What happens to new traits that HELP organisms survive over time?

a)

Nothing

b)

That trait becomes MORE COMMON in the population

c)

That trait becomes LESS COMMON in a population

d)

Equally common

80.

What type of evidence are shown in the picture above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Embryology

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

Vestigial Structures

81.
A fossil of an extinct dinosaur is found and the anatomy of the fossil shows similarities to that of a bird. What could this mean?
a)
This is purely by chance and isn't significant
b)
The extinct dinosaur and modern bird share a common ancestor
c)
All dinosaurs evolved into birds and that's why there aren't any dinosaurs alive today
d)
Dinosaurs choose to fly, and evolved into birds to escape predation and capture food
82.

Ostriches have wings, but do not fly. Humans have an appendix with no apparent function. Whales contain bones for rear legs.    Each of these are evidence of evolution and are known as

a)

homologous structures

b)

vestigial structures

c)

analogous structures

d)

natural selection

83.
The first part of a scientific name is an organism's _______________ and the second part is its ________________.
a)
species, genus
b)
phylum, order
c)
class, spices
d)
genus, species
84.

 Genetic Drift is more likely to happen in... 

a)

aquatic populations

b)

small populations

c)

terrestrial populations

d)

older populations

85.

All of the genetic information found in a population

a)

population

b)

genetic drift

c)

evolution

d)

gene pool

86.

Yellow toucan birds seek out one another to make babies together and tend to avoid the green toucan birds.

a)

Nonrandom mating

b)

gene flow

c)

mutation

d)

natural selection

87.

Ten years ago, in a small population of ducks, two sizes of eyes were observed, large and small. Three ducks have large eyes and 7 have small.  2 of the large-eyed ducks are randomly hit by cars and killed. Today, no large-eyed ducks are present in the population.

a)

gene flow

b)

bottleneck

c)

mutation

d)

founders

88.

Sharks (fish) and dolphins (mammals) have independently evolved streamlined bodies to move more quickly through the water, which is an example of...

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

convergent evolution

c)

vestigial structures

d)

homologous structures

89.

Lighter-colored oysters are camouflage against the rocks and darker-colored oysters are camouflaged in rock shadows. This leads to few oysters with intermediate colors. This is an example of...

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

sexual selection

90.

Small lizards have difficulty defending territories, while larger lizards are more likely to be eaten by owl predators. Medium sized lizards are most likely to survive, resulting in...

a)

sexual selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

directional selection

d)

stabilizing selection

91.

Frogs with more complex calls are able to get more female mates than those that have simple calls, leading to more complex calls in the population. This is and example of...

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

sexual selection

c)

genetic drift

d)

disruptive selection

92.

In the desert, little rain has caused many plants to develop water storage adaptations. The lack of rain can be considered a(n)...

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

selective pressure

c)

genetic drift

d)

adaptation

93.

Having longer tongues to reach nectar in deeper flowers helps bats obtain more energy to produce more offspring, thereby increasing the bats...

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

mutation

c)

allele frequency

d)

fitness

94.

True or False: We are thought to be currently in the 6th mass extinction.

a)

False

b)

True

95.

What is the name of flower part #2 ?

a)

stigma

b)

style

c)

anther

d)

sepal

96.

What is the name of flower part #3 ?

a)

sepal

b)

pistil

c)

stamen

d)

petal

97.

What is the name of flower part #4 ?

a)

stamen

b)

ovary

c)

peduncle

d)

ovule

98.

What is the name of flower part #5 ?

a)

anther

b)

style

c)

stigma

d)

filament

99.

What is the name of flower part #6 ?

a)

pollen tube

b)

style

c)

receptacle

d)

anther

100.

What is the name of flower part #8 ?

a)

stigma

b)

receptacle

c)

ovule

d)

ovary

101.

What is the name of flower part #10 ?

a)

sepal

b)

pollen tube

c)

filament

d)

stigma

102.

What is the name of flower part #12 ?

a)

style

b)

ovule

c)

stamen

d)

pistil

103.

This contains the male parts of the flower?

a)

stamen

b)

pistil

c)

sepal

d)

style

104.

This contains all the female parts of the flower?

a)

pistil

b)

stamen

c)

stigma

d)

sepal

105.

Pistil

a)

Contains one or more ovules

b)

contains: Stigma, Style, and Ovary

c)

Transfers pollen from stigma to ovule

d)

contains: Filament, and Pollen

106.
a)
Vascular
b)
Nonvascular
107.

Which of these helps land plants maintain moisture?

a)

Stomata

b)

apical meristems

c)

waxy cuticle

d)

vascular tissue

108.
If the xylem in a young tree is damaged, which process is first affected?
a)
performing photosynthesis
b)
transporting sugar to the roots
c)
 transporting water to the leaves
d)
absorbing water from the soil
109.
Plant cells that are specialized for cell division are most likely found in what part of the plant? 
a)
root tips
b)
leaf epidermis
c)
stem epidermis
d)
vascular tissue
110.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the roots?

a)

Store carbs

b)

Absorb water and minerals

c)

Anchor plant to the ground

d)

Photosynthesis

111.

What type of cells transport water UP the stem?

a)

Xylem cells

b)

Phloem Cells

c)

Epidermal Cells

d)

Root Cells

112.

What type of selection is depicted in the picture?

a)

stabilizing

b)

directional

c)

disruptive

113.

Which of the following is TRUE about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria?

a)

It consists of multiple layers of peptidoglycan

b)

It is thicker than that associated with gram-negative bacteria

c)

It contains teichoic acids

d)

All of the above

114.

The process of bacteria reproducing and doubling is called:

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

fragmentation

c)

regeneration

d)

binary fission

115.

What do budding, binary fission and spore formation have in common ?

a)

They require two parents

b)

They require only one parent cell

c)

They produce only one daughter cell

d)

They are all forms of sexual reproduction

116.

Select two options that describe this scenario

Lyrebirds mate from June-July and peacock mate from Feb-August.

For this reason they do not interbreed.

a)

there is pre-zygotic isolation

b)

there is post-zygotic isolation

c)

there is mechanical isolation

d)

there is temporal isolation

e)

there is gamete isolation

117.

Hybrid unviability results in organism that are unable to develop into mature individuals. For example, goat and sheep zygotes die in early developmental stage before birth.

This scenario is an example of

a)

post-zygotic isolation

b)

pre-zygotic isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

gamete isolation

118.

Peacock spiders and rainbow spiders are capable of interbreeding however do not due to differences in mating rituals.

this is an example of

a)

temporal isolation

b)

behavioural isolation

c)

gamete isolation

d)

mechanical isolation

119.

What is evolution?

a)

study of living things

b)

change over time

c)

study of non-living things

120.

What molecular evidence do we have that supports that all life is related?

a)

All life on Earth has the same set of mutations in its genes

b)

All life on Earth has DNA

c)

All life on Earth has the same number of DNA base pairs

d)

All life on Earth stores its genetic material inside the nuclei of its cells

e)

Any of these

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