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Worksheets

Final Exam Review

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 31hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cells need to be able to divide to...

a)

Reproduce the next generation

b)

Be able to grow

c)

Replace old, dead, or inefficient cells

d)

All of the above

2.

In the image shown (see screen for larger image), what is A?

a)

Nucleosome

b)

Chromatin

c)

Chromosome

d)

Histone

e)

Gene

3.

In the image shown (see screen for larger image), what is B?

a)

Nucleosome

b)

Chromatin

c)

Chromosome

d)

Histone

e)

Gene

4.

In the image shown (see screen for larger image), what is C?

a)

Nucleosome

b)

Chromatin

c)

Chromosome

d)

Histone

e)

Gene

5.

In the image shown (see screen for larger image), what is D?

a)

Nucleosome

b)

Chromatin

c)

Chromosome

d)

Histone

e)

Gene

6.

In the image shown (see screen for larger image), what is F?

a)

Nucleosome

b)

Chromatin

c)

Chromosome

d)

Histone

e)

Gene

7.

In the image shown (see screen for larger view), what are the arrows pointing to for A and B? There are TWO correct answers.

a)

Sister chromatids

b)

Non-identical chromatids

c)

1 chromosome total

d)

2 chromosomes total

8.

In the image shown (see screen for larger view), what are the arrows pointing to for C? There are TWO correct answers.

a)

Sister chromatids

b)

Non-identical chromatids

c)

1 chromosome total

d)

2 chromosomes total

9.

In the image shown (see screen for larger view), could E and F be identified as the SAME thing?

a)

Yes: they could each be called "1 homologous pair of chromosomes"

b)

No: E is "1 homologous pair of chromosomes" but F is "2 homologous pairs of chromosomes"

10.

Somatic cells...

a)

Include our eggs or sperm

b)

Include all our body cells except eggs or sperm

c)

Include ALL cells: body cells and eggs or sperm

11.

Sex cells...

a)

Include our eggs or sperm

b)

Include all our body cells except eggs or sperm

c)

Include ALL cells: body cells and eggs or sperm

12.

Sex cells have...

a)

Half a genome

b)

1 complete genome

c)

2 complete genomes

13.

Body cells have...

a)

Half a genome

b)

1 complete genome

c)

2 complete genomes

14.

Human somatic cells...

a)

Have 23 pairs of chromosomes (46 total)

b)

Have 24 pairs of chromosomes (48 total)

c)

Have 46 pairs of chromosomes (92 total)

d)

Have 13 pairs of chromosomes (26 total)

15.

When will a cell have characteristic "X" shaped chromosomes?

a)

All the time-- it is how chromosomes are normally stored.

b)

Only when a cell is not expressing the genes on a chromosome.

c)

Only when a cell is preparing to divide.

d)

Only in sex cells.

16.

During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

M phase

b)

S phase

c)

G1 phase

d)

G0 phase

17.

During which phase of the cell cycle does mitosis occur?

a)

M phase

b)

S phase

c)

G1 phase

d)

G0 phase

18.

During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell actually divide?

a)

M phase

b)

S phase

c)

G1 phase

d)

G0 phase

19.

A cell will spend most of its lifetime in which two phases of the cell cycle?

a)

G0 or Mitosis

b)

G0 or Interphase

c)

Mitosis or Interphase

20.

The correct order of the steps of mitosis is:

a)

Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase

b)

Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Metaphase, Telophase, Prophase, Anaphase

21.

During this step of mitosis, the chromosomes get pulled away to opposite poles of a cell.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

22.

What IS separated during mitosis, anyway?

a)

Homologous pairs

b)

Sister chromatids

23.

During this step of mitosis, the chromosomes are condensing into the characteristic X shape we know (and love, right?)

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

24.

During this step of mitosis, the chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

25.

During this step of mitosis, new nuclear envelopes form.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

26.

True or False? The cell divides into two during the Telophase step of mitosis.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

True or False? Just like us, prokaryotes (like bacteria) also undergo mitosis in order to divide.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What does a cell have that allows it to stop and "ask" itself if it is ready to divide?

a)

Cell stop points

b)

Cell division pause points

c)

Cell genome review points

d)

Cell cycle checkpoints

29.

True or False? If a cell is undergoing apoptosis, it is never a good thing.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

What can result if a cell loses control of its cell cycle checkpoints? (The checkpoints no longer function as they should?)

a)

Increased errors/mistakes, leading to cancer potential

b)

Increased dwarfism due to increase in recessive alleles

c)

Decreased cell growth

d)

Decreased cell division

31.

True or False? Sexual reproduction, compared to asexual reproduction, requires TWO cells in order to reproduce.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

How many of our pairs of chromosomes are considered "autosomes"?

a)

1 pair

b)

All 23 pairs

c)

11 pairs

d)

22 pairs

33.

Our body cells have TWO complete copies of the genome (one entire copy from mom, one entire copy from dad). What can we call these types of cells?

a)

Diploid

b)

Haploid

c)

Monoploid

d)

Triploid

34.

We can think of haploid cells as having "half" the usual number of chromosomes. But, they do NOT have half a genome. Why not?

a)

Haploid cells still have two full copies of the genome.

b)

Haploid cells still have one full copy of the genome.

c)

Haploid cells still have 46 total chromosomes.

35.

An egg and sperm come together during fertilization to create a zygote. Which components of this process are diploid vs. haploid?

a)

Egg, sperm, and zygote = diploid

b)

Egg, sperm, and zygote = haploid

c)

Egg and sperm = diploid, Zygote = haploid

d)

Egg and sperm = haploid, Zygote = diploid

36.

Unlike mitosis, each completed round of meiosis (including meiosis 1 AND meiosis 2) results in how many cells that are completely UNIQUE?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

37.

What gets separated during Meiosis 1 vs. Meiosis 2?

a)

Meiosis 1: homologous pairs, Meiosis 2: homologous pairs again

b)

Meiosis 1: sister chromatids, Meiosis 2: homologous pairs

c)

Meiosis 1: homologous pairs, Meiosis 2: sister chromatids

d)

Meiosis 1: sister chromatids, Meiosis 2: sister chromatids again

38.

How many rounds of cell division does a cell undergo for mitosis? What about meiosis?

a)

Mitosis: 1 round, Meiosis: 1 round

b)

Mitosis: 1 round, Meiosis: 2 rounds

c)

Mitosis: 2 rounds, Meiosis: 1 round

d)

Mitosis: 2 rounds, Meiosis: 2 rounds

39.

When homologous pairs closely associate in Meiosis, what unique event allows parts of the replicated chromosome from mom to exchange/swap information back and forth with the replicated chromosome from dad?

a)

Independent assortment

b)

Crossing over

40.

Independent assortment describes...

a)

A unique event in which homologous pairs swap information with one another during Meiosis

b)

A common event in Meiosis where DNA is replicated and then separated equally into identical cells

c)

A common event in which mom's chromosomes get copied a little more often than dad's chromosomes, just enough to be considered statistically significant.

d)

A unique event in which mom's chromosome sometimes lines up on the left but sometimes dad's lines up on the left for all 23 pairs of chromosomes, resulting in random separation of all 23 homologous pairs during Meiosis.

41.

True or False? Although we still refer to them as "sister" chromatids, they are no longer identical after Meiosis 1.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

True or False? The events of meiosis allow for essentially limitless unique combinations within the resulting egg or sperm cells.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

The genes encoded in your DNA, inherited from your parents, can be called your [what]?

a)

Phenotypes

b)

Genotypes

44.

How genes encoded in your DNA are SEEN by others, or HOW your genes are expressed, can be called your [what]?

a)

Phenotypes

b)

Genotypes

45.

I have a gene that encodes the ability to read people's minds!! It uses the "letter" designations R/r. What are the possible alleles for this gene?

a)

RR, Rr, or rr

b)

R or r

46.

I have a gene that encodes the ability to read people's minds!! It uses the "letter" designations R/r. Reading people's minds is a recessive trait and the gene demonstrates complete dominance. Which genotype(s) will give you the ability to read minds?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

d)

RR or Rr

e)

Rr or rr

47.

I have a gene that encodes the ability to read people's minds!! It uses the "letter" designations R/r. Which genotype(s) is/are considered homozygous?

a)

RR only

b)

Rr only

c)

rr only

d)

RR or rr

e)

RR or Rr

48.

Complete a Punnett square for the following cross: A mother heterozygous for reading minds (Rr) has a child with a father who is homozygous recessive for reading minds (rr). What is the likelihood that they will have a child who also can read minds?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

e)

0%

49.

Complete a Punnett square for the following cross: A mother and father, both heterozygous for reading minds (Rr), have a daughter. What is the likelihood that she will be able to read minds, unlike her parents?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

e)

0%

50.

A dad has spiky hair and a mom has spiky hair. They have a son with straight hair. Which trait is dominant and which is recessive?

a)

Dominant: Spiky hair, Recessive: Straight hair

b)

Dominant: Straight hair, Recessive: Spiky hair

c)

It depends on the individuals

51.

Do you remember how to cross TWO traits at a time? Here's your reminder to make sure you do. Let's practice on the board really quick (if this is AFTER our review session, make sure you can still get the correct answer now on your OWN!!) Complete the following cross: BBYY x BbYy. How many possibilities, out of 16, will lead to a homozygous dominant B/b gene and a heterozygous Y/y gene?

a)

BB = 16/16, Yy = 0/16

b)

BB = 3/16, Yy = 8/16

c)

BB = 8/16, Yy = 8/16

d)

BB = 8/16, Yy = 3/16

52.

When a trait is dominant...

a)

You need to inherit BOTH copies (one from each parent) in order to express the trait.

b)

You need to inherit at least ONE copy (one from either parent) in order to express the trait.

c)

You cannot inherit ANY copies (from either parent) in order to express the trait.

53.

For genes showing complete dominance, how many alleles will you have for each gene?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

54.

Purple flowers are dominant to white flowers, and flower color demonstrates complete dominance. A purple flower and a white flower are crossed and produce a purple flowering plant. What would be the genotype of the purple flowering plant based on its parent plants? (Flower color uses the alleles P/p.)

a)

PP

b)

Pp

c)

pp

d)

PP or Pp, we don't really know for sure

55.

A herd of goats are preparing for the winter. They have nice thick coats that are either dark brown, white, or a light brown intermediate. Luckily, the color of the coat doesn't make the goats any less able to get warm. Brown coat goats have the genotype DD, light brown Dd, and white dd. What kind of inheritance pattern does the goat's coat color demonstrate?

a)

Complete dominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Codominance

d)

Pleiotropy

56.

If the herd of goats is white, their eyes lack pigment as well. This means that we will not know what eye color genes the goats have because they are hidden by the lack of pigment. What is this an example of?

a)

Complete dominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Codominance

d)

Pleiotropy

e)

Epistasis

57.

If instead the herd of goats had brown fur (DD), white fur (dd), or fur that contains splotches of both brown AND white (Dd), what kind of inheritance would this demonstrate?

a)

Complete dominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Codominance

d)

Pleiotropy

e)

Epistasis

58.

If instead the herd of goats had brown fur (DD), white fur (dd), or fur that contains splotches of both brown AND white (Dd), what kind of inheritance would this demonstrate?

a)

Complete dominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Codominance

d)

Pleiotropy

e)

Epistasis

59.

Traits whose expression is determined by MORE than one gene are very common. What do we call this kind of trait?

a)

Simple

b)

Stereotypical

c)

Classical

d)

Complex

60.

A is showing the [1] for a gene while B is showing the [2] for a gene.

a)

(1) Chromosome; (2) Alleles

b)

(1) Alleles; (2) Locus

c)

(1) Locus; (2) Chromosome

d)

(1) Chromosome; (2) Locus

61.

What sex genotype do males and females have?

a)

Males: XX, Females: XY

b)

Males: XY, Females: XY

c)

Males: XX, Females, XX

d)

Males: XY, Females: XX

62.

The sex determining region of the Y gene is also called what?

a)

Male-development gene

b)

Sex recognition of the Y gene

c)

Male-determination gene

d)

SRY gene

63.

True or False? In each of a female's somatic cells, an entire X chromosome gets inactivated and only the genes on one of her X chromosomes are expressed.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

When someone has an abnormal number of chromosomes, it is called:

a)

Aneuploidy

b)

Polyploidy

65.

When someone has an abnormal number of genomes, it is called:

a)

Aneuploidy

b)

Polyploidy

66.

True or False? We actually have a small number of genes encoded ELSEWHERE in our cells OTHER THAN the nucleus.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Which scientist(s) helped determine the STRUCTURE of DNA?

a)

Griffin

b)

Chargaff

c)

Watson, Crick, Wilkins, Franklin

68.

Which scientist(s) helped determine that DNA is the genetic material that gets passed down, NOT protein as previously thought?

a)

Griffin

b)

Chargaff

c)

Watson, Crick, Wilkins, Franklin

69.

Which scientist(s) helped determine that the number of guanines in DNA are about EQUAL to the number of cytosines, and the number of adenines are about EQUAL to the number of thymines?

a)

Griffin

b)

Chargaff

c)

Watson, Crick, Wilkins, Franklin

70.

When DNA gets replicated, what kind of replication is performed?

a)

Conservative

b)

Semi-conservative

c)

Dispersive

d)

None of the above

71.

Where does DNA replication begin?

a)

At the start codon

b)

At origins of replication sites

c)

At the promoter region

72.

When DNA starts replicating itself with DNA polymerase, which direction does replication proceed at a replication bubble?

a)

In one direction: downstream only

b)

In both directions

c)

In one direction: upstream only

73.

At a replication fork, which enzymes are involved in the replication process? (Select ALL answers that apply.)

a)

Helicase & Topoisomerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Binding proteins

e)

Primase

74.

At a replication fork, which enzymes are responsible for unzipping the DNA strands from one another and keeping the DNA from getting too super coiled?

a)

Helicase & Topoisomerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Binding proteins

e)

Primase

75.

At a replication fork, which enzymes are responsible for gluing together any gaps that are present in the DNA?

a)

Helicase & Topoisomerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Binding proteins

e)

Primase

76.

At a replication fork, which enzymes are responsible for KEEPING the two strands unzipped once they have been separated?

a)

Helicase & Topoisomerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Binding proteins

e)

Primase

77.

At a replication fork, which enzymes are responsible for actually building the complimentary DNA strands?

a)

Helicase & Topoisomerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Binding proteins

e)

Primase

78.

In DNA replication, the type of primers that get added are (1) and the type of polymerase used is (2).

a)

(1) DNA primers; (2) DNA polymerase

b)

(1) RNA primers; (2) DNA polymerase

c)

(1) DNA primers; (2) RNA polymerase

d)

(1) RNA primers; (2) RNA polymerase

79.

Why must primers be laid down before DNA polymerase can begin copying the DNA?

a)

Primers give DNA polymerase a place to bind and start

b)

Primers give DNA polymerase its "stop" signal

c)

Primers give helicase a place to bind and start unzipping the DNA

d)

Primers give DNA binding proteins a place to bind

80.

Okazaki fragments are named after the scientist who discovered them. Which strand in DNA replication creates Okazaki fragments?

a)

The template strand

b)

The leading strand

c)

The lagging strand

d)

All of the above

81.

At a replication fork, THIS enzyme proofreads the DNA as it is being built.

a)

Helicase & Topoisomerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Binding proteins

e)

Primase

82.

Which direction does DNA polymerase BUILD DNA?

a)

3' --> 5'

b)

3' --> 3'

c)

5' --> 5'

d)

5' --> 3'

83.

Which of the following is the correct order for the central dogma of biology?

a)

RNA --> DNA --> protein

b)

Protein --> DNA --> RNA

c)

DNA --> Protein --> RNA

d)

DNA --> RNA --> Protein

84.

The process of RNA --> protein is called:

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

85.

The process of DNA --> DNA is called:

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

86.

The process of DNA --> RNA is called:

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

87.

A DNA strand shows 3' GGCTAAT 5'
What would the resulting RNA sequence be?

a)

5' GGCTAAT 3'

b)

5' CCGATTA 3'

c)

5' CCGAUUA 3'

d)

3' CCGAUUA 5'

88.

The monomer for DNA and RNA are:

a)

Amino acids

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Both

d)

Neither

89.

The monomer for proteins are:

a)

Amino acids

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Both

d)

Neither

90.

How many nucleotides are present in a single codon?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

91.

You have the mRNA sequence 5' AAG AUG GCG AAG UGA AAA 3'

What is the appropriate amino acid sequence?

a)

Lys - Met - Ala - Lys

b)

Lys - Met - Ala - Lys - Trp- Lys

c)

Met - Ala - Lys

d)

Lys - Met - Ala - Lys - Trp

92.

When we say a gene is turned on or "expressed" what are we saying?

a)

The protein encoded by that gene has been produced.

b)

The protein encoded by that gene has been inhibited.

c)

The RNA encoded by that gene has been produced.

d)

The DNA encoding that gene has been replicated.

93.

Which steps of the central dogma occur within the NUCLEUS of a cell?

Select ALL that apply.

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

None of the above

94.

In transcription, what polymerase is used to build an RNA transcript?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

95.

Which direction does RNA polymerase BUILD RNA?

a)

3' --> 5'

b)

3' --> 3'

c)

5' --> 5'

d)

5' --> 3'

96.

In this part of the central dogma, a 5' cap is added, a polyA tail is added, and splicing occurs.

a)

DNA processing

b)

RNA processing

c)

Protein processing

d)

All of the above

97.

Which part of a pre-mRNA transcript is considered the non-coding region?

a)

Exons

b)

Introns

c)

Both

d)

Neither

98.

Which part of a pre-mRNA transcript is cut out and removed during splicing?

a)

Exons

b)

Introns

c)

Both

d)

Neither

99.

Which end of a protein is the C-terminus?

a)

The beginning of the protein

b)

The end of the protein

c)

It depends on the proteins

100.

The RNA that carries the message interested in being expressed from the DNA is:

a)

rRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

All of the above

101.

The RNA that helps form the peptide bonds during translation is:

a)

rRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

All of the above

102.

The RNA that brings in the appropriate amino acids for the growing polypeptide chain during translation is:

a)

rRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

All of the above

103.

Which type of RNA is MOST IMPORTANT for translation?

a)

rRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

All of the above

104.

Which ribosomal subunit binds to the DNA first when translation is being initiated?

a)

Small subunit

b)

Large subunit

c)

Both bind at the same time

105.

The ribosome has three binding sites for tRNA molecules. Which order do tRNAs travel through these binding sites?

a)

P --> E --> A

b)

A --> E --> P

c)

A --> P --> E

d)

P --> A --> E

106.

The start codon for translation is...

a)

GGA

b)

GUA

c)

UAC

d)

AUG

107.

Which type of RNA contains an anticodon for translation purposes?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

All of the above

108.

New peptide bonds are formed in the [what] site of the ribosome?

a)

A site

b)

P site

c)

E site

109.

Based on the image provided, which direction will translation be going?

a)

From left to right

b)

From right to left

c)

In both directions

d)

It depends on where the ribosome starts

110.

True or False? When a gene is expressed, the process only produces 1 mRNA transcript and 1 polypeptide chain.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

When does a translated polypeptide chain begin to fold into a functional protein?

a)

Immediately after translation completes and it is released from the ribosome

b)

Immediately as it begins exiting the ribosome during translation

c)

Immediately after post-translational modifications are completed

112.

Free ribosomes will translate... (select all that apply)

a)

Proteins that will function within the cytoplasm

b)

Proteins that will function within a membrane

c)

Proteins that will function outside of the cell

113.

Ribosomes bound to the rough ER will translate... (select all that apply)

a)

Proteins that will function within the cytoplasm

b)

Proteins that will function within a membrane

c)

Proteins that will function outside of the cell

114.

How does the ribosome know where the correct "reading frame" is on the mRNA transcript?

a)

Where the 5' cap is

b)

Where the start codon (AUG) is

c)

Where the first non-start codon is

115.

True or False? A mutation in the DNA will always lead to an impairment for the individual.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

Point mutations include... (Select all that apply.)

a)

Substitutions

b)

Insertions

c)

Deletions

117.

What type of mutation occurred if the following change occurred?

Met - Ala - Lys - Trp - Trp - Pro

Met - Ala - Lys - Trp - Gly - Pro

a)

Silent

b)

Missense

c)

Nonsense

118.

What type of mutation occurred if the following change occurred?

Met - Ala - Lys - Trp - Trp - Pro

Met - Ala - Lys - Trp - Trp - Pro

a)

Silent

b)

Missense

c)

Nonsense

119.

What type of mutation occurred if the following change occurred?

Met - Ala - Lys - Trp - Trp - Pro

Met - Ala - Lys

a)

Silent

b)

Missense

c)

Nonsense

120.

These types of mutations can be incredibly damaging because when they occur they can change ALL amino acids that get translated after that mutation during gene expression. (Select all that apply.)

a)

Substitutions

b)

Insertions

c)

Deletions

121.

At what levels can gene expression be regulated? Select ALL that apply.

a)

At the transcription level

b)

At the translation level

c)

At the post-translation level

122.

What type of regulatory molecule could bind to the DNA in order to block gene expression?

a)

An inducer

b)

A blocker

c)

A repressor

d)

An inhibitor

123.

What type of regulatory molecule could bind to a repressor in order to make it fall off the DNA and no longer allow it to block gene expression?

a)

An inducer

b)

A blocker

c)

A repressor

d)

An inhibitor