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Human Bodies 1 Final

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a factor that influences blood pressure?

a)

blood volume

b)

strength of heart contractions

c)

coronary resistance

d)

peripheral resistance

2.

Which type of drug promotes water loss by increasing urine output?

a)

beta-blockers

b)

statins

c)

diuretics

d)

antiplatelets

3.

Which type of RNA is formed with a double-stranded DNA molecule separates/ unwinds?

(Hint: occurs during transcription)

a)

messenger RNA (mRNA)

b)

ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

c)

deoxy RNA

(dRNA)

d)

transfer RNA

(tRNA)

4.

_________ describes any force that acts against the flow of blood in a blood vessel

a)

peripheral resistance

b)

blood viscosity

c)

perfusion

d)

stroke volume

5.

_________ is plasma minus its clotting factors

a)

platelets

b)

serum

c)

proteins

d)

water

6.

Which of the following white blood cell is agranular (no stained granules in cytoplasm)?

a)

neutrophils

b)

eosinophils

c)

basophils

d)

monocytes

7.

The outer layer of the pericardium is called the

a)

endocardium

b)

epicardium

c)

parietal pericardium

d)

visceral pericardium

8.

Any pericardial fluid, pus, or blood that may accumulate in the space between the two pericardial layers and impair the pumping action of the heart is called

a)

pericardial effusion

b)

pleuritis

c)

endocarditis

d)

thrombus

9.

Contraction of the heart is also called

a)

circulation

b)

murmur

c)

systole

d)

diastole

10.

_________ is the pressure, or "push" of blood as it flows through the cardiovascular system

a)

vasomotor mechanism

b)

blood pressure

c)

peripheral resistance

d)

hemodynamics

11.

a condition affecting left AV valve in which the flaps extend back into the left atrium, causing incompetence of the valve

a)

mitral valve prolapse

b)

stenosed valve

c)

rheumatic heart disease

d)

hypertension

12.

Smooth muscle is located in which layer of blood vessels?

a)

tunica intima

b)

endothelium

c)

tunica media

d)

tunica externa

13.

When an iron (Fe) atom attracts an oxygen molecule to unite with hemoglobin, _________ is formed

a)

irohemoglobin

b)

carbamino-

hemoglobin

c)

oxyhemoglobin

d)

none of the choices

14.

Which part of the cell life cycle involves cell growth, replication of chromosomes, and cell not actively dividing?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

interphase

15.

Which vessel(s) carries oxygen-poor blood from the heart to the lungs?

a)

capillaries

b)

aorta

c)

pulmonary artery

d)

pulmonary veins

16.

abnormal heart sounds are also called

a)

emboli

b)

dysrhythmias

c)

heart murmurs

d)

atherosclerosis

17.

The delivery of oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle and return of oxygen-poor blood to the venous system is called

a)

systemic circulation

b)

pulmonary circulation

c)

hepatic portal circulation

d)

coronary circulation

18.

The inferior vena cava brings deoxygenated blood to the right atrium from where?

a)

head

b)

lower extremities

c)

upper extremities

d)

neck

19.

hardening of the arteries from lipids and other substances that build up on the inside walls of blood vessels is called

a)

catheterization

b)

atherosclerosis

c)

blood clotting

d)

hypertension

20.

Each complete heart beat, which includes the contraction and relaxation of atria and ventricles is called

a)

stroke volume

b)

cardiac output

c)

heart rate

d)

cardiac cycle

21.

Oxygen-poor blood in the coronary circulatory system will flow from coronary veins to the ________ before entering the right atrium

a)

superior vena cava

b)

inferior vena cava

c)

pulmonary artery

d)

coronary sinus

22.

The volume of blood pumped by one ventricle per minute

a)

heart rate

b)

stroke volume

c)

cardiac output

d)

cardiac cycle

23.

Which of the following is not a type of active transport?

a)

dialysis

b)

ion pump

c)

phagocytosis

d)

pinocytosis

24.

The intentional destruction of heart muscle in a specific location to treat atrial fibrillation by eliminating the pathway of abnormal electrical signals

a)

automatic external defibrillator

b)

implantable cardioverter defibrillator

c)

ablation

d)

angioplasty

25.

All of the following are arteries located in the upper extremity, except:

a)

celiac

b)

axillary

c)

brachial

d)

radial

26.

Which organelle's primary function is digesting / breaking apart large molecules?

a)

centriole

b)

lysosome

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleolus

27.

The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system increases heart rate by releasing which neurotransmitter?

a)

dopamine

b)

norepinephrine

c)

serotonin

d)

acetylcholine

28.

________ is the application of an electric shock to force cardiac muscle fibers to once again contract in rhythm

a)

artificial pacemaker

b)

defibrillator

c)

ablation

d)

angioplasty

29.

All of the following blood vessels exist in the human body, except:

a)

right brachiocephalic artery

b)

left brachiocephalic artery

c)

right brachiocephalic vein

d)

left brachiocephalic vein

30.

The pulmonary and aortic valves are examples of this type valve

a)

semilunar

b)

atrioventricular

c)

coronary

d)

lymphatic

31.

lung disorders that obstruct normal pulmonary blood flow and thus overload the right side of the heart result in a heart condition called

a)

cardiomyopathy

b)

congestive heart failure

c)

cor pulmonale

d)

dysrhythmia

32.

The inner layer of blood vessels are called the

a)

tunica adventitia

b)

tunica intima

c)

tunica media

d)

tunica externa

33.

Another name for tunica intima is

a)

endothelium

b)

epithelium

c)

capillaries

d)

plaque

34.

Precapillary sphincters are smooth muscle fibers located where?

a)

veins

b)

venules

c)

arteries

d)

arterioles

35.

On an ECG/EKG, the ventricle depolarization is represented by the

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

T wave

d)

U wave

36.

A type of passive transport which involves water molecules when some solutes cannot cross membrane

a)

filtration

b)

dialysis

c)

osmosis

d)

diffusion

37.

The middle layer of the heart, composed of heart tissue, is called

a)

endocardium

b)

myocardium

c)

epicardium

d)

auricle

38.

A passive transport process where movement of particles through a membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration (down concentration gradient) is

a)

diffusion

b)

filtration

c)

osmosis

d)

dialysis

39.

This process occurs when cells are placed in a hypertonic (0.9%<) solution

a)

cell lysis

b)

cell crenation

c)

filtration

d)

phagocytosis

40.

A small lymphoid organ located in the mediastinum, very important in maturation of the T lymphocytes

a)

tonsil

b)

thymus

c)

spleen

d)

kidney

41.

The complement cascade of our immune system is an example of

a)

cell lysis

b)

cell crenation

c)

filtration

d)

osmosis

42.

Which organelle synthesizes adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and is called the 'power plant' of the cell?

a)

ribosomes

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

mitochondria

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

43.

A substance that can stimulate the body to make antibodies is called

a)

blood typing

b)

agglutinate

c)

antigen

d)

anemia

44.

These valves leak, allowing some blood to flow back into the chamber from which it came

a)

rheumatic

b)

prolapsed valves

c)

incompetent valves

d)

stenosed valves

45.

These tiny vessels of the lymphatic system permit excess tissue fluid along with other substances to leave the tissue spaces

a)

lymphatic nodes

b)

lymphatic arterioles

c)

lymphatic venules

d)

lymphatic capillaries

46.

The movement of solute particles from an area of low concentration to one of high concentration (up concentration gradient) by means of a carrier protein is called

a)

phagocytosis

b)

pinocytosis

c)

ion pump

d)

filtration

47.

In complementary base pairing, which DNA molecule will always bind with guanine?

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

cytosine

d)

uracil

48.

The valve that separates the right atrium and right ventricle is the _______ valve.

a)

aortic

b)

pulmonary

c)

bicuspid

d)

tricuspid

49.

DNA and RNA molecules are made up of many smaller units which consist of a sugar, phosphate, and base component and are called

a)

nucleolus

b)

ribosomes

c)

nucleotides

d)

codon

50.

This action occurs when the double stranded DNA molecule unwinds and becomes a template to form mRNA, thus making a copy

a)

transplant

b)

translation

c)

transcription

d)

transaminase

51.

What term is used to describe the synthesis of a protein by ribosomes?

(hint: this step is required when replicating genetic code)

a)

transplant

b)

translation

c)

transcription

d)

transaminase

52.

During what part of the cell life cycle does the chromatin condense into visible chromosomes, spindle fibers appear, and nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

53.

When looking at an ECG/EKG, the P wave represents

a)

ventricle depolarization

b)

ventricle repolarization

c)

atrial depolarization

d)

atrial repolarization

54.

What part of the cell life cycle involves the spindle fibers attaching to each chromatid and chromosomes aligning across the center of the cell?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

55.

What type of epithelial tissue is made up of many layers of flattened cells?

(hint: our epithelium is made up of this type of tissue)

a)

simple squamous

b)

simple columnar

c)

stratified squamous

d)

stratified columnar

56.

Stratified transitional epithelium is most often associated with which region of the body?

a)

brain

b)

bladder

c)

bones

d)

blood

57.

This is an abnormal condition in which tissues exhibit swelling because of the accumulation of lymph

a)

lymphedema

b)

lymphangitis

c)

elephantiasis

d)

lymphadenitis

58.

What type of protein is located in extracellular matrix and primarily responsible for a tissue's ability to stretch and rebound easily?

a)

reticular fibers

b)

proteoglycans

c)

collagen

d)

elastin

59.

This type of epithelium consists of a single layer of thin, flattened cells

(Hint: our capillaries are made of this type of tissue)

a)

simple squamous

b)

simple cuboidal

c)

stratified squamous

d)

pseudostratified

60.

This procedure is used to relieve severely restricted coronary blood flow; veins are taken from other parts of the body and then reattached where needed to bypass the partial blockage

a)

coronary angiography

b)

coronary angioplasty

c)

coronary bypass surgery

d)

coronary sinus

61.

Which of the following structures are not unique to fetal blood circulation?

a)

ductus arteriosus

b)

superior vena cava

c)

ductus venosus

d)

foramen ovale

62.

The universal recipient blood is

a)

AB+

b)

AB-

c)

O+

d)

O-

63.

Which types of veins carry highly oxygenated blood?

a)

pulmonary and hepatic

b)

pulmonary and coronary

c)

pulmonary and umbilical

d)

pulmonary and lymphatic

64.

The hepatic portal vein diverts the veins from some abdominal organs and delivers them to the liver. What important nutrient is absorbed and stored in this process?

a)

nitrogen

b)

chloride

c)

sodium

d)

glucose

65.

Phlebitis refers to

a)

artery inflammation

b)

vein inflammation

c)

capillary inflammation

d)

lymphatic inflammation

66.

A type of hormone secreted by the thymus which influences the development of T cells (T lymphocytes)

a)

thyroxine

b)

glucagon

c)

thymosin

d)

renin

67.

Which artery supplies the stomach, spleen, and liver?

a)

small mesenteric

b)

renal

c)

celiac

d)

internal iliac

68.

What structure(s) regulate the amount of blood that flows into a capillary bed?

a)

arteries

b)

precapillary sphincters

c)

venous valves

d)

lymphatic system

69.

The formation of new blood cells is called

a)

hemoptysis

b)

hematology

c)

hematopoiesis

d)

homeostasis

70.

Erythroblastosis fetalis, an Rh incompatibility between fetus and mother, is an example of

a)

allergy

b)

autoimmunity

c)

alloimmunity

d)

anaphylactic shock

71.

The unique chemical properties of this reddish pigment allows RBCs to carry oxygen throughout the body

a)

hemoglobin

b)

hematocrit

c)

hemostasis

d)

erythrocytes

72.

Lymph enters the lymph node through which type of vessel?

a)

venule

b)

arteriole

c)

afferent lymphatic vessel

d)

efferent lymphatic vessel

73.

Cell-mediated immunity is a primary function of which type of cell?

a)

B cell /

lymphocyte

b)

T cell /

lymphocyte

c)

natural killer cell

d)

stem cell

74.

The complete blood count (CBC) includes a component that provides information about the volume of RBCs in a blood sample. This is the

a)

hemoglobin

b)

hematocrit

c)

homeostasis

d)

buffy coat

75.

The type of immunity which a fetus receives from the placenta, or which a baby receives through breast milk, is:

a)

natural active immunity

b)

natural passive immunity

c)

artificial active immunity

d)

artificial passive immunity

76.

Which type of circulation involves a structure which lies between two capillary beds?

a)

systemic

b)

pulmonary

c)

hepatic portal

d)

fetal/ umbilical

77.

An inappropriate or excessive response of the immune system

a)

hypersensitivity

b)

hypochondria

c)

hysteria

d)

allergy

78.

The universal blood donor type is

a)

type AB+

b)

type AB-

c)

type O+

d)

type O-

79.

What structure attaches muscles to bones?

a)

intercalated discs

b)

bursae

c)

ligaments

d)

tendons

80.

Which of the following is not an example of innate / nonspecific immunity?

a)

immunization

b)

skin and mucus membranes

c)

inflammation

d)

secretions

81.

All Rh-negative mothers who carry Rh-positive offspring should be treated with this immunoglobulin antibody serum, brand name:

a)

Plavix

b)

Lovenox

c)

RhoGAM

d)

Bufferin

82.

Which of the following is not a type of muscular tissue?

a)

cardiac

b)

smooth

c)

nervous

d)

skeletal

83.

The hypersensitivity of the immune system to relatively harmless environmental antigens

a)

anaphylactic shock

b)

allergy

c)

autoimmunity

d)

alloimmunity

84.

Degenerative joint disease is also called

a)

rheumatoid arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

gouty arthritis

d)

psoriatic arthritis

85.

Ulnar deviation is most often seen in which type of arthritis?

a)

rheumatoid arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

gouty arthritis

d)

psoriatic arthritis

86.

Which type of compound produces an excess of H+ ions?

a)

salts

b)

bases

c)

acids

d)

buffers

87.

The muscle cell is also called

a)

actin

b)

muscle fiber

c)

myosin

d)

myoglobin

88.

The higher the amount of H+ a substance has the ______ the substance will be on the pH scale

a)

higher

b)

lower

c)

shorter

d)

longer

89.

Shoulder abduction / adduction are examples of which plane of movement?

a)

sagittal

b)

coronal (frontal)

c)

transverse (horizontal)

d)

oblique

90.

What is the excess fluid left behind by capillary exchange that drains from the tissue spaces via the lymphatic system?

a)

blood

b)

lymph

c)

pus

d)

water

91.

Which lymphatic duct collects and drains three-fourths of the body's lymph?

a)

thoracic

b)

abdominal

c)

right lymphatic

d)

left lymphatic

92.

Swollen lymph nodes

a)

lymphedema

b)

lymphangitis

c)

elephantiasis

d)

lymphadenitis

93.

All of the following are considered lymphoid organs because they contain lymphoid tissue, except

a)

thymus

b)

spleen

c)

liver

d)

tonsils

94.

Lymph exits the lymph node through this type of vessel

a)

venule

b)

arteriole

c)

efferent lymphatic vessel

d)

capillary

95.

Which protein is located in extracellular matrix and primarily responsible for giving tissues flexible strength?

a)

reticular fibers

b)

proteoglycans

c)

collagen

d)

elastin

96.

All of the following are a type of tonsil, except:

a)

palatine tonsil

b)

pharyngeal tonsil

c)

lingual tonsil

d)

nares tonsil

97.

Surgical removal of the spleen

a)

splenotomy

b)

splenomegaly

c)

splenitis

d)

splenectomy

98.

The type of immunity that we are born with, which does not require prior exposure to a harmful substance or organism

a)

innate/ nonspecific

b)

adaptive/ specific

c)

neural / plastic

d)

lymph / lymphoid

99.

This is the type of immunity you receive when you get your flu vaccine

a)

natural active immunity

b)

natural passive immunity

c)

artificial active immunity

d)

artificial passive immunity

100.

This is a protein normally present in the body which has unique regions called combining sites

(Hint: it can combine with a specific antigen)

a)

cytokine

b)

agglutinate

c)

antibody

d)

interleukin

101.

Which of the following is not a primary function of an antibody?

a)

act as an antigen-presenting cell

b)

activate complement cascade

c)

binds antigens together (agglutinate)

d)

create a antigen-antibody complex by binding to antigen

102.

Another name for antibodies is

a)

macrophage

b)

antigen

c)

immunoglobulins

d)

dendritic cell

103.

In the complement cascade process, the foreign /invader cell will eventually

a)

crenate (shrink)

b)

lyse (burst)

c)

be eaten (phagocytosis)

d)

be drunk (pinocytosis)

104.

This type of cell is a lymphocyte that kills many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses. It does NOT need prior exposure to an antigen (and is therefore part of innate immunity)

a)

natural killer cell

b)

T lymphocyte

(T cell)

c)

B lymphocyte

(B cell)

d)

memory cell

105.

Both T and B cells / lymphocytes originate from what type of cell?

a)

osteoblast

b)

chondrocyte

c)

stem cell

d)

epithelial cell

106.

This type of antibody-mediated immunity involves antigens which circulate in the body's fluids

(Hint: B cells)

a)

specific immunity

b)

innate immunity

c)

cell-mediated immunity

d)

humoral immunity

107.

The basic functional, or contractile, unit of skeletal muscle is called

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

sarcomere

d)

myoglobin

108.

An excessive reaction of the immune system to antigens from a different individual of the same species

a)

hypersensitivity

b)

allergy

c)

autoimmunity

d)

alloimmunity

109.

Which term describes a family of many identical cells, all descended from one cell?

a)

memory cell

b)

precursor cell

c)

stem cell

d)

clone cell

110.

During mitosis, our B and T cells will produce 2 types of cells: memory cells and __________

a)

stem cells

b)

clone cells

c)

effector cells

d)

dendritic cells

111.

A hypersensitivity of the immune system to a relatively harmless environmental antigen is called:

a)

allergy

b)

anaphylactic shock

c)

contact dermatitis

d)

allergen

112.

Which term describes a chronic inflammatory disease that affects many tissues of the body; pts may have a 'butterfly' rash on the face?

a)

contact dermatitis

b)

Raynaud phenomenon

c)

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

d)

thrombophlebitis

113.

This type of shock occurs when infectious agents release toxins in the blood

a)

cardiogenic shock

b)

septic shock

c)

neurogenic shock

d)

anaphylactic shock

114.

Chronic diarrhea, vomiting, severe or excessive burns, are all issues most likely to lead to which type of shock?

a)

cardiogenic

b)

neurogenic

c)

septic

d)

hypovolemic

115.

Widespread dilation of the blood vessels are most often seen in which two types of shock?

a)

neurogenic and hypovolemic

b)

neurogenic and cardiogenic

c)

neurogenic and anaphylactic

d)

neurogenic and septic

116.

Someone with a systolic blood pressure (SBP) of 130 would be classified as having:

a)

normal BP

b)

pre-hypertension

c)

stage 1 hypertension

d)

stage 2 hypertension

117.

Stage 1 hypertension is defined as a diastolic blood pressure in which range?

a)

70-79

b)

80-89

c)

90-99

d)

100-109

118.

The central venous pressure refers to the blood pressure in which structure?

a)

right atrium

b)

right ventricle

c)

left atrium

d)

left ventricle

119.

Which pulse point (palpable artery) is located closest to the groin?

a)

radial

b)

femoral

c)

popliteal

d)

posterior tibial

120.

Which pulse point (palpable artery) is located closest to the antecubital region?

a)

radial

b)

popliteal

c)

brachial

d)

carotid