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Cell Structure and Function Quiz

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the basic unit of structure and function in the body?

a)

Tissue

b)

Organ

c)

Cell

d)

Molecule

2.

protons, neutrons, and electrons that make up cells

a)

Subatomic particles

b)

molecule

c)

Atom

d)

macromolecule

3.

tiny particles that make chemical (hydrogen, carbon)

a)

atom

b)

cell

c)

molecule

d)

macromolecule

4.

group of organs with common functions (digestive system)

a)

organs

b)

tissue

c)

organ system

d)

organism

5.

large particles consisting of molecules (DNA, protein)

a)

molecule

b)

subatomic particle

c)

macromolecule

d)

tissue

6.

layer or mass of cells with specific function (adipose or epithelial)

a)

tissue

b)

organ

c)

organelle

d)

organ system

7.

group of different tissues with a function

a)

organ

b)

tissue

c)

organ system

d)

molecule

8.

What is the maintenance of constant internal environment

(a)  

9.

Cells that have developed specialized characteristics are said to be:

a)

Divided

b)

Differentiated

c)

Multiplied

d)

Mutated

10.

increase in cell number and size and increase in body size

a)

reproduction

b)

growth

c)

responsiveness

d)

movement

11.

Which of the following is NOT a major part of a composite cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Cell (plasma) membrane

d)

Mitochondria

12.

What is the function of the cell (plasma) membrane?

a)

Produces energy for the cell

b)

Maintains cell integrity and controls entry and exit of substances

c)

Stores genetic material

d)

Synthesizes proteins

13.

Which property allows the cell membrane to regulate the entry and exit of substances?

a)

Flexibility

b)

Selective permeability

c)

Elasticity

d)

Signal transduction

14.

particles consisting of atoms joined together (water, glucose)

a)

subatomic particles

b)

macromolecule

c)

tissue

d)

molecule

15.

Why is the cell membrane described as "selectively permeable"?

a)

It allows all substances to pass freely.

b)

It blocks all substances from entering or leaving.

c)

It regulates which substances can enter or exit the cell.

d)

It only allows water to pass through.

16.

Explain how the structure of the cell membrane contributes to its function of maintaining cell integrity and controlling entry and exit of substances.

a)

The cell membrane is rigid and impermeable, preventing all movement.

b)

The cell membrane is made of carbohydrates only, which block substances.

c)

The cell membrane is flexible, thin, elastic, and selectively permeable, allowing it to regulate the movement of substances while maintaining integrity.

d)

The cell membrane is a solid wall that does not interact with the environment.

17.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between cell structure and function?

a)

All cells have the same structure and function.

b)

Cell structure and function are unrelated.

c)

Cells vary in size and shape; structure and function are inter-related.

d)

Only the size of the cell determines its function.

18.

Which part of the composite cell contains genetic material and directs cell activities?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Mitochondria

19.

What is the main function of signal transduction in the cell membrane?

a)

To store energy

b)

To permit the cell to receive and respond to messages

c)

To produce proteins

d)

To divide the cell

20.

Which component of the cell membrane helps stabilize the membrane and makes it less permeable to water-soluble substances?

a)

Phospholipids

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Proteins

21.

What is the main function of membrane proteins classified as "receptors"?

a)

Establish self

b)

Respond to extracellular signals

c)

Enable cells to stick to each other

d)

Catalyze chemical reactions

22.

Which part of the phospholipid bilayer is hydrophilic?

a)

The tails

b)

The heads

c)

The cholesterol molecules

d)

The membrane proteins

23.

Which of the following is a function of carbohydrates in the cell membrane?

a)

Catalyze chemical reactions

b)

Stabilize the membrane

c)

Cell recognition and interaction

d)

Transport small molecules

24.

Mutations in which type of ion channel are associated with cystic fibrosis?

a)

Sodium (Na+) channels

b)

Potassium (K+) channels

c)

Chloride (Cl-) channels

d)

Calcium (Ca2+) channels

25.

Which of the following best describes the function of cellular adhesion molecules (CAMs)?

a)

Respond to extracellular signals

b)

Enable cells to stick to each other

c)

Catalyze chemical reactions

d)

Transport small molecules and ions

26.

How do selectins, a type of CAM, assist white blood cells?

a)

By catalyzing chemical reactions

b)

By providing friction to anchor them to capillary walls

c)

By transporting ions across the membrane

d)

By stabilizing the cell membrane

27.

Why is the cell membrane described as having "fluid mosaic" properties?

a)

Because it is made only of lipids

b)

Because some lipids and proteins can move within the membrane

c)

Because it is completely rigid

d)

Because it contains only carbohydrates

28.

Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins?

a)

Forming pores and channels

b)

Acting as enzymes

c)

Storing genetic information

d)

Acting as receptors

29.

A patient has a mutation in potassium (K+) channels. Which of the following symptoms might they experience?

a)

Difficulty breathing and salty sweat

b)

Disrupted heart rhythm and impaired hearing

c)

Increased cell recognition

d)

Enhanced cell adhesion

30.

What is the main function of ribosomes in the cell?

a)

Store genetic information

b)

Provide structural support and enzyme activity to link amino acids in protein synthesis

c)

Conduct lipid synthesis

d)

Refine and package proteins

31.

Which of the following best describes the cytoplasm?

a)

Only the fluid portion inside the nucleus

b)

The network of membranes and organelles suspended in cytosol

c)

The outer membrane of the cell

d)

Only the organelles inside the cell

32.

What distinguishes rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) from smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?

a)

RER contains ribosomes and conducts protein synthesis, while SER does not have ribosomes and conducts lipid synthesis

b)

RER stores genetic material, while SER stores proteins

c)

RER is found outside the cell, while SER is found inside the nucleus

d)

RER is responsible for cell division, while SER is responsible for energy production

33.

Which organelle is responsible for refining, packaging, and delivering proteins made on the rough ER?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Vesicle

d)

Cytoskeleton

34.

What is an example of organelle interaction mentioned in the material?

a)

Photosynthesis in chloroplasts

b)

Milk secretion involving rough and smooth ER, Golgi apparatus, and transport vesicles

c)

DNA replication in the nucleus

d)

Cellular respiration in mitochondria

35.

Why is the cytoskeleton important in the cytoplasm?

a)

It stores genetic information

b)

It is a supporting framework of protein rods and tubules

c)

It produces energy for the cell

d)

It synthesizes proteins

36.

How do vesicles function within the cell?

a)

They synthesize proteins

b)

They store or transport substances

c)

They provide energy for the cell

d)

They replicate DNA

37.

Which structure is depicted in Figure 3.7 and what is its primary function?

a)

Mitochondria; energy production

b)

Cellular Adhesion Molecules (CAMs); mediating cell-to-cell interactions

c)

Ribosomes; protein synthesis

d)

Nucleus; storing genetic material

38.

What does Figure 3.8 illustrate about the relationship between ribosomes and the endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Ribosomes are only found in the nucleus

b)

Ribosomes are attached to the rough ER, facilitating protein synthesis

c)

Ribosomes are responsible for lipid synthesis on the smooth ER

d)

Ribosomes transport substances across the cell membrane

39.

According to Figure 3.9, what is the role of the Golgi apparatus in relation to vesicles?

a)

The Golgi apparatus breaks down vesicles

b)

The Golgi apparatus refines, packages, and delivers proteins to vesicles for transport

c)

The Golgi apparatus synthesizes DNA for vesicles

d)

The Golgi apparatus stores energy for vesicles

40.

Which organelle is known as the "powerhouse of the cell" because it is the site of ATP synthesis?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Peroxisomes

d)

Nucleus

41.

What is the primary function of lysosomes in a cell?

a)

Digest proteins, carbohydrates, nucleic acids, bacteria, debris, and worn out cell parts

b)

Produce ATP through cellular respiration

c)

Support the nuclear envelope

d)

Maintain cell shape

42.

Which of the following best describes the function of peroxisomes?

a)

Contain enzymes that digest lipids, alcohol, and hydrogen peroxide

b)

Produce ribosomes for protein synthesis

c)

Store genetic information

d)

Transport proteins throughout the cell

43.

Which cytoskeletal structure has the smallest diameter and is composed of actin?

a)

Microfilaments

b)

Microtubules

c)

Intermediate filaments

d)

Centrioles

44.

What is the main role of microtubules in the cytoskeleton?

a)

Maintain cell shape and help move organelles

b)

Digest cellular debris

c)

Produce ATP

d)

Store calcium ions

45.

Intermediate filaments are primarily responsible for which of the following?

a)

Supporting the nuclear envelope

b)

Producing energy

c)

Digesting worn out cell parts

d)

Synthesizing proteins

46.

A scientist observes a cell structure that is a small membranous sac containing digestive enzymes. Which organelle is being observed?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Peroxisome

d)

Ribosome

47.

Which process is illustrated by the interaction of organelles in the milk secretion diagram?

a)

Coordination of organelles to produce and secrete milk components

b)

Photosynthesis in plant cells

c)

DNA replication in the nucleus

d)

Cell division by mitosis

48.

What does the micrograph with red and green filaments primarily illustrate?

a)

The organization of microfilaments and microtubules in the cytoskeleton

b)

The process of protein synthesis

c)

The structure of the cell membrane

d)

The replication of DNA

49.

Which of the following statements best explains the importance of the cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells?

a)

It provides structural support, enables cellular movement, and organizes organelles within the cell.

b)

It stores genetic information for the cell.

c)

It produces energy through cellular respiration.

d)

It digests cellular waste and debris.

50.

What is the main function of centrioles during cell division?

a)

They produce spindle fibers that distribute chromosomes to daughter cells.

b)

They synthesize proteins for the cell.

c)

They store genetic information.

d)

They generate energy for the cell.

51.

Where are centrosomes typically located within a cell?

a)

In the cytoplasm, near the nucleus

b)

Inside the mitochondria

c)

On the cell membrane

d)

In the endoplasmic reticulum

52.

Which of the following best describes the structure of centrioles?

a)

Cylindrical and composed of microtubules

b)

Spherical and composed of actin

c)

Flat and composed of lipids

d)

Irregular and composed of DNA

53.

Which cellular structure is shown in Figure 3.15 and what is its primary role?

a)

Centrosome; organizes microtubules and aids in cell division

b)

Nucleus; stores genetic material

c)

Mitochondrion; produces energy

d)

Ribosome; synthesizes proteins

54.

Which of the following statements about cilia is correct?

a)

Cilia are mobile extensions of the cell membrane that beat back and forth in a coordinated manner.

b)

Cilia are immobile and only found in plant cells.

c)

Cilia are responsible for energy production in the cell.

d)

Cilia store genetic information.

55.

What is the main difference between cilia and flagella in human cells?

a)

Flagella are much longer than cilia and each human cell has only one flagellum.

b)

Cilia are longer than flagella and each cell has many flagella.

c)

Flagella are found only in plant cells.

d)

Cilia are responsible for cell division, while flagella are not.

56.

What is the function of cilia in the respiratory tract?

a)

Propel mucus toward the uterus

b)

Absorb nutrients from food

c)

Store fat for energy

d)

Produce spindle fibers

57.

Which of the following best describes microvilli?

a)

Tiny extensions of the cell membrane that increase surface area for absorption

b)

Large organelles that store water

c)

Structures that produce energy for the cell

d)

Extensions that help the cell move

58.

What are inclusions in the context of cytoplasmic structures?

a)

Chemicals not necessary for survival, present only in some types of cells

b)

Essential organelles for cell survival

c)

Structures that produce proteins

d)

Extensions that help the cell divide

59.

Which of the following is an example of an inclusion found in cells?

a)

Melanin granules in epidermal cells

b)

Ribosomes in the cytoplasm

c)

Mitochondria in muscle cells

d)

Nuclei in red blood cells

60.

Which disease is caused by a mutant gene in the DNA of mitochondria, resulting in the inability to extract maximum energy from nutrients?

a)

Melas

b)

Krabbe Disease

c)

Adrenoleukodystrophy (ADL)

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

61.

What is the primary function of the nuclear envelope in a cell?

a)

Surrounds the nucleus with a double-layered membrane and separates nucleoplasm from cytoplasm

b)

Produces ribosomes for protein synthesis

c)

Stores genetic information in chromosomes

d)

Synthesizes myelin for nerve cells

62.

Which structure within the nucleus is responsible for the production of ribosomes?

a)

Nucleolus

b)

Chromatin

c)

Nuclear envelope

d)

Mitochondria

63.

What is the main cause of Krabbe Disease at the organelle level?

a)

Inability to produce one lysosomal enzyme

b)

Fatty acid buildup in peroxisomes

c)

Mutant gene in mitochondrial DNA

d)

Lack of protein in the nuclear envelope

64.

Which part of the cell nucleus is responsible for storing information for protein synthesis?

a)

Chromatin

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Nuclear envelope

d)

Mitochondria

65.

Which of the following is NOT a physical (passive) mechanism for movement across cell membranes?

a)

Active transport

b)

Diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Facilitated diffusion

66.

What happens when a sugar cube dissolves in water, according to the concept of diffusion?

a)

Sugar molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration

b)

Water molecules move from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration

c)

Sugar molecules are actively transported into the water

d)

Water molecules are converted into sugar molecules

67.

What does the process illustrated in the beakers demonstrate?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Filtration

d)

Active transport

68.

What is the final result when both water and solute can diffuse across a membrane?

a)

Concentrations of water and solute become equal in both compartments

b)

Only water moves to the other side

c)

Only solute moves to the other side

d)

No movement occurs

69.

Which of the following best describes the movement of atoms, molecules, or ions during diffusion?

a)

From a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration

b)

From a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration

c)

Randomly in all directions with no net movement

d)

Only through active transport mechanisms

70.

Which of the following best describes facilitated diffusion?

a)

Movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane

b)

Diffusion across the cell membrane through membrane proteins, such as ion channels or transporters

c)

Active transport requiring ATP

d)

Movement of gases only across the membrane

71.

Which substances are typically transported by facilitated diffusion?

a)

Lipid-soluble substances

b)

Water-soluble substances like Na+, K+, Cl-, glucose, and amino acids

c)

Only oxygen and carbon dioxide

d)

Only large proteins

72.

What is the main difference between osmosis and simple diffusion?

a)

Osmosis involves the movement of solutes, while diffusion involves water

b)

Osmosis involves the movement of water, while diffusion involves solutes

c)

Both involve the movement of water only

d)

Both require ATP to occur

73.

Which statement about osmosis is correct?

a)

Osmosis requires ATP to move water across the membrane

b)

Water moves from a region of lower solute concentration to higher solute concentration

c)

Water moves from a region of higher solute concentration to lower solute concentration

d)

Osmosis only occurs in plant cells

74.

What is the function of aquaporins in the cell membrane?

a)

They transport ions across the membrane

b)

They allow water to move through the membrane

c)

They synthesize ATP

d)

They break down proteins

75.

Based on the diagram, what is the direction of oxygen and carbon dioxide movement between blood and cells?

a)

Oxygen moves from cells to blood; carbon dioxide moves from blood to cells

b)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide both move from blood to cells

c)

Oxygen moves from blood to cells; carbon dioxide moves from cells to blood

d)

Both gases move in both directions equally

76.

Why are carrier molecules or channels necessary for facilitated diffusion?

a)

They provide energy for transport

b)

They allow lipid-soluble substances to pass through

c)

They help water-soluble substances cross the selectively permeable membrane

d)

They block all substances from entering the cell

77.

What happens to water movement when a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution?

a)

Water moves into the cell, causing it to swell

b)

Water moves out of the cell, causing it to shrink

c)

There is no net movement of water

d)

Water moves equally in both directions

78.

Which of the following best defines isotonic solution?

a)

Solution with higher osmotic pressure than the cell

b)

Solution with lower osmotic pressure than the cell

c)

Solution with the same osmotic pressure as the cell; no net gain or loss of water

d)

Solution that causes the cell to burst

79.

How does osmotic pressure change as the concentration of impermeant solutes increases in a solution?

a)

Osmotic pressure decreases

b)

Osmotic pressure remains the same

c)

Osmotic pressure increases

d)

Osmotic pressure fluctuates randomly

80.

What happens to a red blood cell when it is placed in a hypotonic solution?

a)

The cell shrinks due to water loss.

b)

The cell remains unchanged.

c)

The cell swells as water enters by osmosis.

d)

The cell divides into two.

81.

Which of the following best describes the process of filtration in biological systems?

a)

Movement of molecules against a concentration gradient using ATP.

b)

Movement of molecules through membranes by exerting pressure.

c)

Movement of water only through a membrane.

d)

Movement of molecules by carrier proteins only.

82.

Which of the following is NOT an active mechanism for moving substances across the cell membrane?

a)

Filtration

b)

Active transport

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Exocytosis

83.

Which statement about active transport is correct?

a)

It is a passive process that does not require ATP.

b)

It moves substances from high to low concentration.

c)

It uses carrier molecules called "pumps" and requires ATP.

d)

It only transports water molecules.

84.

In secondary active transport, what is used to transport another substance across a cell membrane?

a)

ATP directly

b)

A Na+ gradient

c)

Simple diffusion

d)

Filtration pressure

85.

Why are large plasma proteins and blood cells not filtered out of capillaries during filtration?

a)

They are too small to be retained.

b)

They are actively transported out.

c)

They are too large to pass through the membrane.

d)

They dissolve in water and pass through easily.

86.

Which of the following processes requires cellular energy in the form of ATP?

a)

Filtration

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

d)

Simple diffusion

87.

Which process involves the movement of a substance into the cell inside a vesicle?

a)

Exocytosis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Diffusion

d)

Osmosis

88.

What is the main function of the Na+-K+ ATPase pump?

a)

To transport glucose into the cell

b)

To move sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell using ATP

c)

To allow water to move freely across the membrane

d)

To engulf solid particles

89.

Which type of endocytosis involves the membrane engulfing droplets of liquid?

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Pinocytosis

c)

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

d)

Exocytosis

90.

What distinguishes receptor-mediated endocytosis from other types of endocytosis?

a)

It engulfs solid particles

b)

It engulfs droplets of liquid

c)

It involves specific substances binding to receptor proteins on the membrane

d)

It releases substances from the cell

91.

Which process is described as the release of substances or particles from the cell by vesicles fusing with the cell membrane?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Pinocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Phagocytosis

92.

Transcytosis is best described as:

a)

The engulfing of solid particles by the membrane

b)

The movement of water across a membrane

c)

The transport of substances across barriers formed by tightly connected cells

d)

The release of neurotransmitters from nerve cells

93.

Which of the following is an example of exocytosis?

a)

Transport of HIV across the lining of the anus or vagina

b)

Release of neurotransmitters from nerve cells

c)

Engulfing of bacteria by white blood cells

d)

Movement of glucose into the cell

94.

How does secondary active transport differ from primary active transport?

a)

Secondary active transport uses ATP directly, while primary does not

b)

Primary active transport uses ATP directly, while secondary uses the energy from an ion gradient

c)

Both use ATP directly

d)

Neither uses ATP

95.

Which type of endocytosis is responsible for engulfing solid particles?

a)

Pinocytosis

b)

Phagocytosis

c)

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

d)

Exocytosis

96.

What is the main role of vesicles in exocytosis?

a)

To engulf bacteria

b)

To transport substances into the cell

c)

To fuse with the cell membrane and release contents outside the cell

d)

To bind to receptor proteins

97.

What is the main function of mitosis in the cell cycle?

a)

Growth of the cell

b)

Division of the nucleus

c)

Replication of DNA

d)

Division of the cytoplasm

98.

During which phase of interphase is DNA replicated?

a)

G₁ phase

b)

G₂ phase

c)

S phase

d)

M phase

99.

Which of the following best describes cytokinesis?

a)

Division of the nucleus

b)

Growth of the cell

c)

Division of the cytoplasm

d)

Replication of DNA

100.

Which phase of mitosis involves chromosomes aligning at the cell's equator?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

101.

What happens during prophase of mitosis?

a)

Chromosomes align at the center of the cell

b)

Chromosomes condense, centrioles move to opposite sides, and the nuclear envelope disperses

c)

Chromosomes separate and move to opposite directions

d)

Nuclear envelope reforms around chromosomes

102.

Why is interphase important in the cell cycle?

a)

It is when the cell divides into two daughter cells

b)

It is when the cell grows and prepares for division by replicating DNA and duplicating organelles

c)

It is when chromosomes condense and spindle fibers form

d)

It is when the nuclear envelope reforms

103.

Which of the following is NOT a phase of mitosis?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Telophase

104.

A scientist observes a cell with chromosomes moving toward opposite centrioles as spindle fibers shorten. Which phase of mitosis is being observed?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

105.

Which process is illustrated by vesicles fusing with the plasma membrane to release their contents outside the cell?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Pinocytosis

106.

What is the main purpose of transcytosis in cells?

a)

To divide the nucleus

b)

To move substances across a cell using vesicles

c)

To replicate DNA

d)

To condense chromosomes

107.

Which stage of the cell cycle involves the division of the cytoplasm?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

S phase

108.

Which stage of mitosis involves chromosomes condensing into chromosomes, centrioles moving to opposite sides of the cytoplasm, and the nuclear envelope and nucleolus dispersing?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

109.

During which stage of mitosis do spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of the sister chromatids and chromosomes align midway between the centrioles?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

110.

The study of the structure/morphology of the human body parts and its part (derived from Greek for cutting up)

a)

Anatomy

b)

Physiology

111.

The study of the functions of the human body and its part (derived from Greek for "relationship to nature"

a)

Anatomy

b)

Physiology

112.

Clinical Application High frequency sound waves that provide images of soft internal structures; used to obtain sonogram of fetus in uterus

a)

Ultrasound

b)

Magnetic Resonance Scan (MR)

113.

The sum of all chemical reactions in a living system, energy production and nutrient cycling

a)

Excretion

b)

Circulation

c)

Metabolism

d)

repiration

114.

making energy, most organisms do it by taking in oxygen and giving off carbon dioxide

a)

digestion

b)

excertion

c)

respiration

115.

moving chemicals and cells through the body fluids

a)

Circulation

b)

Digestive

c)

Excretion

d)

metabloism

116.

removing waste products

a)

excretion

b)

digestion

c)

metabolism

117.

What is the most abundant substances in body

a)

water

b)

food

c)

oxygen