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Worksheets

FINAL

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Blood vessels, nerves, ureters, and lymphatic vessels all enter/exit the kidney at the __________.

a)

renal capsule

b)

nephron

c)

renal pyramid

d)

hilum

2.

One renal pyramid and its overlying cortex constitute one __________.

a)

lobule

b)

lobe

c)

capsule

d)

 

glomerulus

3.

The __________ carries blood directly into the glomerulus.

a)

afferent arteriole

b)

renal artery

c)

cortical radiate artery

d)

efferent arteriole

4.

A renal pyramid voids urine into the __________.

a)

major calyx

b)

renal papilla

c)

minor calyx

d)

ureter

5.

The _____________ are blood vessels that surround the renal tubules.

a)

peritubular capillaries

b)

radiate arteries

c)

renal arteries

d)

radiate arteries

6.

Blood plasma is filtered in the __________.

a)

 

renal tubule

b)

renal column

c)

renal corpuscle

d)

minor calyx

7.

Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the __________.

a)

renal corpuscle

b)

proximal convoluted tubule

c)

glomerular capillaries

d)

collecting duct

8.

In a healthy kidney, very little __________is filtered by the glomerulus.

a)

vitamins

b)

protein

c)

electrolytes

d)

amino acids

9.

Which of the following would reduce the glomerular filtration rate?

a)

Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole

b)

Stretching the afferent arteriole

c)

Sympathetic stimulation

d)

An increase in osmotic pressure in the glomerular capsule

10.

In response to a drop in overall hydrostatic blood pressure, __________ stimulates constriction of the glomerular inlet and even greater constriction of the outlet.

a)

sodium chloride

b)

angiotensin II

c)

calcitrol

d)

cortisol

11.

Renin converts angiotensinogen, released from the __________, into angiotensin I.

a)

lungs

b)

liver

c)

heart

d)

spleen

12.

The __________ are primarily responsible for maintaining the salinity of the renal medulla versus the renal cortex.

a)

corpuscles

b)

collecting ducts

c)

distal convoluted tubules

d)

nephron loops

13.

Which of the following is a direct result of antidiuretic hormone?

a)

Increased urine acidity

b)

Decreased urine volume

c)

Increased urine volume

d)

Increased urine

salinity

14.

Hormones secreted by the heart, called __________, act to increase the excretion of salt and water in the urine, which decreases blood volume and pressure.

a)

aldosterone

b)

natriuretic peptides

c)

angiotensin I

d)

angiotensinII

15.

Which renal structure is responsible for producing hypertonic urine by reabsorbing water while allowing metabolic wastes and NaCl to pass through?

a)

Collecting duct

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Proximal convoluted tubule

d)

Glomerulus

 

16.

The urine is most likely to be hypotonic when _________.

a)

a person is lost and deprived of drinking water

b)

the body's water volume is high

c)

the body's pH is slow

d)

the output of natriuretic peptides is high

17.

A drop in blood pressure stimulates the kidneys to secrete___________.

a)

aldosterone

b)

antidiuretic hormone

c)

renin

d)

angiotensin II

18.

The average adult produces approximately __________ of urine per day.

a)

1 to 2 L

b)

500 to 1000mL

c)

8 to 10 L

d)

5 L

19.

Excessive urine output is called _________

a)

oliguria

b)

diuresis

c)

hematuria

d)

 

uremia

20.

Contraction of the __________ stimulates voiding of the urine.

a)

diaphragm

b)

detrusor

c)

urethra

d)

ureter

21.

Backflow of urine from the urinary bladder into the ureters is prevented by __________.

a)

the ureteral muscles

b)

valves

c)

the urethra

d)

the detrusor muscle

22.

The ___________ reflex stimulates the voiding of urine.

a)

micturition

b)

urination

c)

tendon

d)

ureteral

23.

Water output is significantly controlled through variations in ____________.

a)

metabolic water

b)

urine volume

c)

drinking habits

d)

sweating

24.

When blood volume and pressure are too high ____________.

a)

ADH release is inhibited

b)

the kidneys produce less urine

c)

renal tubules reabsorb more sodium

d)

 

ADH release is stimulated

25.

Hypernatremia tends to cause all of the following except __________.

a)

a reduction in plasma volume

b)

interstitial fluid accumulation

c)

edema

d)

hypertension

26.

The mechanism of stabilizing the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) based on the tendency of smooth muscle to contract when stretched is known as __________.

a)

renal autoregulation

b)

sympathetic control

c)

the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism

27.

The major chemical buffers of the body are ___________.

a)

bicarbonate, phosphates, and proteins

b)

bicarbonate, nucleic acids, and proteins

c)

urinary and respiratory

d)

urinary and digestive

28.

Angiotensin-converting enzyme is found only in the kidneys and converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.

a)

true

b)

false

29.

The ureters pass anterior to the bladder and enter it from below.

a)

true

b)

false

30.

It is normal to find some glucose in the urine.

a)

true

b)

false

31.

Aldosterone increases salt retention, which causes water retention.

a)

true

b)

false

32.

Glomerular filtration occurs when blood plasma leaves the glomerulus and enters the glomerular capsule.

a)

true

b)

false

33.

The __________ is a muscular tube that carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.

a)

major calyx

b)

renal pelvis

c)

ureter

d)

urethra

34.

Which of the following is true of antidiuretic hormone?

a)

DH stimulate shypothalamic osmoreceptors.

b)

ADH targets the cerebral cortex.

c)

ADH inhibits salivation and thirst.

d)

 

ADH promotes water conservation.

35.

Which of the following is true regarding aldosterone?

a)

Aldosterone reduces Na + reabsorption and K + secretion.

b)

Aldosterone causes the urine to be more diluted.

c)

Aldosterone increases Na + reabsorption and K + secretion.

d)

Aldosterone increases both Na + and K + reabsorption.

36.

The process of separating wastes from the body fluids and eliminating them is called __________.

a)

excretion

b)

regulation

c)

salivation

d)

diuresis

37.

The ability to maintain internal stability is called

a)

reproduction.

b)

homeostasis.

c)

development.

d)

thermodynamics.

38.

The study of the structure and function of the hormone-producing glands is called

a)

comparative physiology.

b)

endocrinology.

c)

 

exploratory physiology.

d)

pathology.

39.

When writing his/her notes, a doctor mistakenly misspells the intended word "ileum" as "ilium", stating "examine the ilium further". What is the possible outcome of this mistake?

 

a)

The next practitioner may mistakenly examine the hip when he/she should have been examining the intestines.

b)

The practitioner may mistakenly examine the knee when he/she should have been examining the lungs.

c)

It's just a spelling error, and it's obvious what the doctor meant.

d)

The practitioner may mistakenly examine the lungs when he/she should have been examining the knee.

40.

When examining a patient, a nurse notices that the right kidney is not in its usual location. This most likely means

a)

the patient definitely has a kidney pathology.

b)

the patient may simply have an anatomical variation.

c)

the nurse is not good at palpation.

d)

the patient is faking an injury.

41.

When a woman is giving birth, the head of the baby pushes against her cervix and stimulates release of the hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin travels in the blood and stimulates the uterus to contract. Labor contractions become more and more intense until the baby is expelled. This is an example of

a)

positive feedback.

b)

integration control.

c)

negative feedback

d)

dynamic equilibrium.

42.

On average the resting heart rate of a healthy, normal adult human is between 70 and 80 beats per minute (bpm). A marathon runner may have a resting heart rate of 55 bpm. This is an example of

a)

an exercise-induced physiological variation.

b)

a pathological physiological variation.

c)

a normal anatomical variation.

d)

a pathological anatomical variation.

43.

Blood glucose concentration rises after a meal and stimulates release of the hormone insulin. Insulin travels in the blood and stimulates body cells to uptake glucose from the bloodstream. This reduces blood glucose concentration. This is an example of

a)

negative feedback.

b)

dynamic equilibrium.

c)

positive feedback.

d)

set point adjustment.

44.

Which one of the following is not in the correct anatomical position?

a)

Face and eyes facing forward

b)

Palms facing posteriorly

c)

 

Feet flat on the floor

d)

Arms at sides

45.

The right shoulder is ______ and __________ to the umbilical region.

a)

superior; lateral

b)

inferior; medial

c)

inferior; lateral

d)

posterior; lateral

46.

The most superior segment of the upper limb is called

a)

the brachial region.

b)

the manual region.

c)

the antebrachial region.

d)

the digits.

47.

The trachea is _____ to the esophagus.

a)

posterior

b)

anterior

c)

dorsal

d)

inferior

48.

The plane that passes vertically through the body or an organ and divides it into anterior and posterior portions is called the _____ plane.

a)

median

b)

frontal

c)

transverse

d)

oblique

49.

This system breaks down food and absorbs nutrients.

a)

Digestive

b)

Circulatory

c)

Lymphatic

d)

Urinary

50.

The ________ is an organ directly associated with both the _____ systems.

a)

pancreas; digestive and endocrine

b)

small intestine; digestive and integumentary

c)

stomach; digestive and reproductive

d)

 

testis; male reproductive and urinary

51.

This system provides protection, water retention, thermoregulation, and vitamin D production

a)

Integumentary system

b)

Muscular system

c)

Excretory system

d)

 

Skeletal system

52.

This system regulates blood volume and pressure, stimulates red blood cell formation, and controls fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance.

a)

Circulatory system

b)

Urinary system

c)

Reproductive system

d)

Digestive system

53.

The abdominopelvic cavity contains a moist serous membrane called the

a)

meninges.

b)

mediastinum.

c)

peritoneum.

d)

pleura.

54.

The brain and the spinal cord are protected by

a)

mucous membranes.

b)

the meninges.

c)

a visceral layer.

d)

a parietal layer.

55.

The _______ cavity contains the lungs, which are enfolded in the _____.

a)

thoracic; pleurae

b)

thoracic; peritoneum

c)

abdominopelvic; pleurae

d)

abdominopelvic; peritoneum

56.

Which of the following lists examples of body structures from the simplest to the most complex?

a)

protein, mitochondrion, adipocyte (fat cell), connective tissue, stomach

b)

mitochondrion, connective tissue, stomach, protein, adipocyte (fat cell)

c)

protein, adipocyte (fat cell), stomach, connective tissue, mitochondrion

d)

protein, stomach, connective tissue, adipocyte (fat cell), mitochondrion

57.

A(n) _____________ is a group of similar cells and their intercellular materials in a discrete region of an organ performing a specific function.

a)

tissue

b)

organism

c)

organelle

d)

organ system

58.

_________________ are the simplest body structures considered alive.

a)

Cells

b)

Organelles

c)

Organs

d)

 

Molecules

59.

The heart occupies a space called the pleural cavity.

a)

true

b)

false

60.

Histology is the study of structures that can be observed without a magnifying lens.

a)

true

b)

false

61.

Negative feedback is a self-amplifying chain of events that tend to produce rapid change in the body.

a)

true

b)

false

62.

Blood has a pH ranging from 7.35 to 7.45. Slight deviations from this can cause major problems oreven death. You are doing an intense workout, and your skeletal muscle cells are producing metabolic acids such as lactic acid. Your blood pH does not drop significantly in spite of the metabolic acids released into the blood. You maintain a constant blood pH because

a)

the body contains chemicals called buffers that resist changes in pH.

b)

metabolic acids are neutralized in muscle cells before being released into the blood.

c)

endothelial cells secrete excess H + to prevent a decrease in pH.

d)

metabolic bases are produced at the same rate by muscle cells to neutralize the acids.

63.

Consider oxygen, which has an atomic number of 8 and an atomic mass of 16. How many valence electrons does it have?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

2

d)

4

64.

Glucose is broken down in most of your cells to form carbon dioxide, oxygen, and the energy currency of the cell called ATP. This type of reaction is both _________ and ___________.

a)

catabolic; endergonic

b)

anabolic; endergonic

c)

catabolic; exergonic

d)

anabolic; exergonic

65.

The most relevant form of energy in human physiology is the energy stored in

a)

the chemical bonds of organic molecules.

b)

radioisotopes.

c)

free radicals with an odd number of electrons.

d)

Van der Waals forces

66.

Enzymes are specific to substrates because of the shape of their

a)

active sites.

b)

terminal amino acids.

c)

alpha chain.

d)

receptors.

67.

Nucleic acids are ______ of ______.

a)

monomers; ATP

b)

polymers; DNA

c)

polymers; nucleotides

d)

molecules; monosaccharides

68.

When ATP breaks down to ADP, potential energy stored in bonds is released. This energy stored in bonds is __________ energy.

a)

kinetic

b)

chemical

c)

heat

d)

electrical

69.

The opposite of a dehydration synthesis is hydrolysis.

a)

true

b)

false

70.

In a synthesis reaction, new covalent bonds are formed between smaller molecules to form a larger molecule.

a)

true

b)

false

71.

What type of bond attracts one water molecule to another?

a)

 

A hydrogen bond

b)

An ionic bond

c)

A peptide bond

d)

A covalent bond

72.

Ionic bonds break apart in water more easily than covalent bonds.

a)

true

b)

false

73.

Any chemical reaction in which an atom gains electrons is called:

a)

reduction.

b)

oxidation.

c)

condensation.

d)

  hydrolysis.

74.

A solution that resists a change in pH when acid or base is added to it is

a)

a buffer.

b)

a colloid.

c)

a reducing agent.

d)

an oxidizing agent

75.

A solution with pH 4 has ______ the H + concentration of a solution with pH 8.

a)

twice

b)

1/10,000

c)

10,000 times

d)

4 times

76.

Blood pH is approximately 7.4, which is slightly acidic.

a)

true

b)

false

77.

Calcitriol is the most active form of _____________.

a)

Phosporus

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Calcium

d)

Vitamin K

78.

The result of calcium and phosphate levels in blood that are too low for normal deposition is a softness of the bones called ___________ in children and ___________ in adults.

a)

Osteomalacia; Rickets

b)

Rickets; Osteomalacia

79.

A decrease in the mineral content of bone can cause the bone to soften.

a)

true

b)

false

80.

___________ gives bone the ability to resist compression, whereas ____________ resists tension.

a)

Calcium; Phosphorus

b)

Minerals; Callagen

c)

Collagen; minerals

d)

Collagen; Matrix

81.

 

_______________ are common in compact bone but rarely seen in spongy bone.

a)

lamellae

b)

Central canals

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Lacunae

82.

The cells that deposit bone matrix are called ______________

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Osteoclasts

d)

Osteons

83.

Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except

a)

Muscle contraction

b)

blood clotting

c)

DNA synthesis

d)

Exocytosis

84.

Due to vertebral compression fractures, osteoporosis often leads to an exaggerated thoracic spinal curvature.

a)

true

b)

false

85.

Intramembranous ossification is common in children, whereas endochondral ossification is typical in adults.

a)

true

b)

false

86.

In endochondral ossification, the precursor connective tissue is _____________, which is replaced by bone

a)

fibrocartilage

b)

soft embryonic connective tissue

c)

hyaline cartilage

d)

transitional epithelium

87.

Intramembranous ossification is responsible for the formation of the

a)

short bones of the ankle

b)

flat bones of the skull

c)

long bones of the limbs

d)

short bones of the wrist

88.

The antagonist for the triceps brachii is the

a)

biceps brachii

b)

supinator

c)

teres minor

d)

anconeus

89.

All of the following are functions of muscles except

a)

stability

b)

secretion

c)

control of openings

d)

respiration

90.

Which of the following activities would increase a muscle's resistance to fatigue?

a)

Bench pressing

b)

Training for a marathon

c)

Driving a golf ball

d)

Sprinting

91.

In skeletal muscle, alternating light and dark bands are termed

a)

strabismus

b)

striations

c)

treppe

d)

myoblasts

92.

The training regimen of a competitive weight lifter is designed partly to

a)

convert certain parallel muscles into stronger pennate muscles

b)

increase the size of his motor units

c)

lower the threshold for muscle excitation

d)

increase the average number of myofibrils per muscle fiber

93.

The neurotransmitter that is excitatory for skeletal muscles is called

a)

norepinephrine

b)

acetylcholine

c)

acetylcholinesterase

d)

dopamine

94.

The absence or inhibition of acetylcholinesterase at a synapse would lead to which of the following?

a)

Muscle wasting

b)

Tetanus

c)

Flaccid paralysis

d)

Numbness

95.

Which muscle type depends solely on the sarcoplasmic reticulum as its calcium source?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Skeletal and smooth muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Smooth and cardiac muscle

96.

The longest muscle in the human body is the:

a)

iliopsoas

b)

sartorius

c)

semitendinosus

d)

semimembranosus

97.

Release of acetylcholine at a neuromuscular junction

a)

increases permeability of the sarcolemma to Na +

b)

overrides the inhibitory effect of acetylcholinesterase

c)

decreases the positive charge on the sarcolemma

d)

decreases the release of Ca 2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

98.

Which of the following does not contribute to a person's tolerance to prolonged exercise?

a)

The speed with which acetylcholinesterase catalyzes reactions

b)

The number of mitochondria in the muscle cell

c)

Physical conditioning (improving maximal rate of oxygen uptake)

d)

The amount of glucose stored in the muscle

99.

Which muscle(s) can contract without the need for nervous stimulation?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Smooth and cardiac muscle

c)

Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle

d)

Cardiac muscle

100.

To stimulate muscle contraction, acetylcholine is released from the ___________ into the synaptic cleft.

a)

axon terminal

b)

sarcolemma

c)

junctional folds

d)

terminal cisterns

101.

Aerobic respiration produces approximately _____ more ATPs than anaerobic fermentation.

a)

24

b)

100

c)

28

d)

48

102.

Which of the following would be caused by contraction of smooth muscle?

a)

Release of urine from the urinary bladder

b)

Elevating the eyebrows

c)

Deep inspiration

d)

Blinking the eyelids

103.

Michael Jordan was arguably the best player in professional basketball history. Scientifically one would expect him to have highly developed

a)

red muscle

b)

white muscle

c)

slow-twitch fibers

104.

Exposure to Clostridium tetani causes continuous release of acetylcholine. What effect does this have on smooth muscle?

a)

Flaccid paralysis

b)

No effect

c)

Lockjaw

d)

Spastic paralysis

105.

Drugs called calcium channel blockers may be used to lower blood pressure by causing arteries to vasodilate. These drugs

a)

prevent calcium from entering smooth muscle, thus allowing the muscle to relax

b)

prevent calcium from entering the sarcoplasmic reticulum of smooth muscle

c)

prevent calcium from exiting the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle

106.

After taking their wedding vows, a bride and groom often ceremonially kiss using which of the following muscles before walking away from the altar?

a)

Orbicularisoris

b)

Depressor angulioris

c)

Quadricepsfemoris

d)

Platysma

107.

Calcitriol is the most active form of _____________.

a)

Calcium

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Phosporus

108.

Bone cells called ___________ have the greatest number of lysosomes.

a)

Osteoclats

b)

Stem Cells

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Osteocytes

109.

A crista ampullaris is found within each of the ____________.

a)

ampullae of the semicircular ducts

b)

scalae

c)

maculae

d)

vestibules

110.

A patient's blood is found to be abnormally viscous. This could be due to abnormally high ___________ concentration, as this component is the main contributor to blood viscosity.

a)

albumin

b)

erythrocyte

c)

sodium

d)

fibrin

111.

Erythrocytes transport oxygen and

a)

defend the body against pathogens.

b)

transport some carbon dioxide.

c)

initiate blood clotting

d)

regulate erythropoiesis.

112.

Most oxygen is transported bound to

a)

heme groups in hemoglobin

b)

the plasma membrane of erythrocyte

c)

Alpha chains in hemoglobin

d)

delta chains in hemoglobin