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A&P II Exam 2

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 4hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Pacemaker potential is characterized as

a)

Na+ channels open and Na+ influx causes interior to
become more positive

b)

Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ influx causes rising phase of
action potential

c)

K+ channels open and K+ efflux causes interior to become
negative again

d)

Na+ channels open and Na+ efflux causes interior to become more negative

2.

Depolarization is characterized as

a)

Na+ channels open and Na+ influx causes interior to
become more positive

b)

Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ influx causes rising phase of
action potential

c)

K+ channels open and K+ efflux causes interior to become
negative again

d)

Na+ channels open and Na+ efflux causes interior to become more negative

3.

Repolarization is characterized as

a)

Na+ channels open and Na+ influx causes interior to
become more positive

b)

Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ influx causes rising phase of
action potential

c)

K+ channels open and K+ efflux causes interior to become
negative again

d)

Na+ channels open and Na+ efflux causes interior to become more negative

4.

The Intrinsic Conduction System begins where?

a)

the AV node

b)

the AV bundle

c)

the SA node

d)

the Purkinje fibers

5.

If the SA node is damaged, the heart can function adequately with which of the following?

a)

the AV node

b)

the AV bundle

c)

the SA node

d)

the Purkinje fibers

6.

How is the SA node and AV node different from each other?

a)

AV nodes are smaller in diameter with fewer gap junctions

b)

SA node generates impulses about 75x/min

c)

AV nodes generate impulses about 50x/min without the SA node's input

d)

both SA and AV nodes generate the same impulse

7.

What is the AV bundle?

a)

the only electrical connection between the atrial and ventricles

b)

nonconducting fibrous cardiac skeleton insulates rest of AV junction

c)

Complete pathway through interventricular septum into apex and ventricular walls

d)

depolarizes only about 30x/min in absence of AV node

8.

What is the Purkinje fibers?

a)

the only electrical connection between the atrial and ventricles

b)

more elaborate in the left ventricle

c)

Complete pathway through interventricular septum into apex and ventricular walls

d)

depolarizes only about 30x/min in absence of AV node

9.

How does the Sympathetic Nervous System affect the heart?

a)

Cardioacceleratory center

b)

increase force and rate

c)

Cardioinhibitory center

d)

Stimulates SA and AV
nodes, heart muscle, and
coronary arteries

10.

How does the Parasympathetic Nervous System affect the heart?

a)

Cardioacceleratory center

b)

inhibits SA and AV nodes
via vagus nerves

c)

Cardioinhibitory center

d)

increase rate

11.

Which brain region affects the heart's force and/or rate?

a)

Cerebral cortex

b)

Adrenal medulla

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Pons

12.

How is the cardiac contractile cells' action potential similar to the pacemaker cells' action potential?

a)

it follows the same ion movement (Na influx, Ca influx, K efflux)

b)

the action potential graph is the same

c)

both have a resting period

d)

both are similar to skeletal muscle cells

13.

What are the steps for the cardiac contractile cells' action potential?

a)

plateau

b)

depolarization

c)

repolarization

d)

pacemaker potential

14.

What is the name for the pacemaker cells' action potential?

a)

plateau

b)

depolarization

c)

repolarization

d)

pacemaker potential

15.

How are contractile cells different than skeletal muscle cells?

a)

plateau happens in the contractile cells

b)

contractile cells have longer refractory period

c)

contractile cells have longer AP and contraction

d)

contractile cells are stimulated by cardiac cells instead of neurons

16.

The ECG/EKG is used for which of the following?

a)

detect electrical currents generated by skeletal muscle

b)

detect electrical currents generated by the heart

c)

detect the conductivity of a specific body part

d)

separates the composition of the blood

17.

What is detected in the ECG graph?

a)

P waves, or atrial depolarization

b)

P waves, or atrial repolarization

c)

QRS complex, or ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization

d)

QRS complex, or ventricular repolarization and depolarization

e)

T waves, or ventricular repolarization

18.

The intervals between the waves are:

a)

P-R interval

b)

Q-T interval

c)

R-R interval

d)

Q-S interval

19.

The segments in the ECG are

a)

P-R segment

b)

S-T segment

c)

T-P segment

d)

R-R segment

20.

Which of the following graphs represents an junctional rhythm?

a)

b)

c)

d)

21.

Which of the following graphs represents a normal sinus rhythm?

a)

b)

c)

d)

22.

Which of the following graphs represents a second-degree heart block?

a)

b)

c)

d)

23.

Which of the following graphs represents a ventricular fibrilation?

a)

b)

c)

d)

24.

Atrial systole means that...

a)
the atria of the heart contract
b)
the ventricles of the heart contract
c)
the heart is at rest
d)
the heart stops beating
25.

Ventricular diastole means that...

a)
the ventricles are contracting and pushing blood out
b)
the ventricles are empty and not receiving blood
c)
the ventricles are in a state of paralysis
d)
the ventricles are relaxed and filling with blood
26.

The mechanical events that happen in the heart are...

a)

ventricular filling

b)

isovolumetric contraction

c)

ventricular ejection

d)

isovolumetric relaxation

27.

What occurs in the ventricular filling phase?

a)

80% of the blood fills the ventricles due to gravity (passive)

b)

atrial repolarization causes the remaining 20% to be pushed into the ventricles

c)

80% of the blood is forcefully pushed into the ventricles

d)

right before the ventricles contract, end diastolic volume occurs can be measured

28.

What occurs during the isovolumetric contraction phase?

a)

atria relaxes; ventricle begins to contract

b)

falling pressure in atria causes closure of AV valves

c)

at one point, both chambers are closed, so the volume will remain constant

d)

rising pressure in ventricles causes SL valves to open

29.

Which mechanical event has the most pressure in the aorta?

a)

Ventricular ejection

b)

Isovolumetric contraction

c)

Isovolumetric relaxation

d)

Ventricular filling

30.

When pressure in the ventricular chambers exceed the pressure in the arteries, which of the following phases will occur afterwards?

a)

Ventricular ejection

b)

Isovolumetric contraction

c)

Isovolumetric relaxation

d)

Ventricular filling

31.

Which event has the least pressure in the ventricle?

a)

Isovolumetric contraction

b)

Isovolumetric relaxation

c)

Ventricular filling

d)

Ventricular ejection

32.

In a split second, all valves are open and pressure is constant. What event am I talking about?

a)

Isovolumetric contraction

b)

Isovolumetric relaxation

c)

Ventricular filling

d)

Ventricular ejection

33.

Which event follows P Waves?

a)

Isovolumetric contraction

b)

Isovolumetric relaxation

c)

Ventricular filling

d)

Ventricular ejection

34.

Which event follows T Waves?

a)

Isovolumetric contraction

b)

Isovolumetric relaxation

c)

Ventricular filling

d)

Ventricular ejection

35.

Which events follows QRS Waves?

a)

Isovolumetric contraction

b)

Isovolumetric relaxation

c)

Ventricular filling

d)

Ventricular ejection

36.

Which of the following creates the "lub-dup" sound?

a)

S1 is the closing of AV valves

b)

S1 is the closing of SL valves

c)

S2 is the closing of AV valves

d)

S2 is the closing of SL valves

37.

S1 is associated with ventricular filling to isovolumetric contraction. Is this true; if not, what is the correct events?

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Isovolumetric contraction to beginning of ventricular ejection

d)

Ventricular contraction to isovolumetric relaxation

38.

In an ECG test, S2 is associated with which waves?

a)

T waves

b)

P waves

c)

QRS complex

d)

R interval

39.

If S2 is associated with isovolumetric relaxation, then what is its' ventricular volume level?

a)

ESV

b)

EDV

c)

SV

d)

mid point

40.

The amount of blood pumped in each ventricle in 1 minute is

a)

systole

b)

diastole

c)

ventricular output

d)

cardiac output

41.

What is the relationship between Cardiac Output, Heart Rate, and Stroke Volume?

a)

CO = SVHR\frac{SV}{HR}

b)

CO = HRSV\frac{HR}{SV}

c)

CO = HR x SV

d)

They are not related to each other at all

42.

____ ____ can be used to explain why during fight or flight, a person's CO is increased, but after the fight or flight experience, their CO is lowered.

a)

cardiac output

b)

stroke volume

c)

cardiac reserve

d)

preload

43.

Which of the following regulates stroke volume?

a)

preload

b)

afterload

c)

load

d)

contractility

44.

The major intrinsic factor of stroke volume is which of the following terms?

a)
afterload
b)
preload
c)
contractility
d)
heart rate
45.

An increase in preload means stroke volume will be ____?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

46.

An increase in contractility means stroke volume will be ____?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

47.

A hypertensive adult is experiencing afterload. What is happening to their ESV and SV?

a)

ESV increases

b)

ESV decreases

c)

SV increases

d)

SV decreases

48.

What are the factors that regulate heart rate?

a)

autonomic nervous system

b)

chemicals

c)

other factors

d)

the force

49.

When norepinephrine binds to the heart, what happens to the heart on a cellular level?

a)

Pacemaker cells fire more rapidly -- increases heart rate

b)

pacemaker cells fire more slowly --- decreases heart rate

c)

increases contractility

d)

decreases contractility

e)

SV remains unchanged

50.

How does the parasympathetic nervous system affect the heart?

a)

slows the HR; opposes the autonomic nervous system

b)

little affect to contractility

c)

dominant influence on heart rate

d)

both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system causes the same results in the heart

51.

What are the hormones that affect the heart rate and how does it affect the heart?

a)

epinephrine and norepinephrine increases HR and contractility

b)

thyroid hormone increases heart rate

c)

oxytocin decreases heart rate

d)

gonadal hormones increases the heart rate

52.

Which ions may affect the heart?

a)

Ca ions may cause arrhythmia

b)

K ions may stop the heart

c)

Fe ions will make the heart more red

d)

P ions may turn the heart bananas

53.

What other factors may contribute to our heart rate?

a)

gender

b)

age

c)

exercise

d)

body temperature

54.

Congestive heart failure occurs when the heart---

a)

is an inefficient pump

b)

weakened myocardium

c)

CO is so low

d)

got stolen

55.

A patient is feeling a sharp pain in their heart. Taking a look inside shows that they have a clogged coronary artery. What is the cause of this?

a)

peripheral atherosclerosis

b)

coronary atherosclerosis

c)

persistent high blood pressure

d)

multiple myocardial infarcts

e)

dilated cardiomyopathy

56.

Which of these terms is best defined as: the aortic pressure exceeds 90 mm Hg. Prolonged high aortic pressure will cause the cardiac cells to weaken as it exerts more force.

a)

peripheral atherosclerosis

b)

coronary atherosclerosis

c)

persistent high blood pressure

d)

multiple myocardial infarcts

e)

dilated cardiomyopathy

57.

A patient unfortunately suffered from many heart attacks and has a build up of scarred tissues in their heart. What term best describes what the patient has?

a)

peripheral atherosclerosis

b)

coronary atherosclerosis

c)

persistent high blood pressure

d)

multiple myocardial infarcts

e)

dilated cardiomyopathy

58.

What is it called when ventricles stretch and become flabby, and the
myocardium deteriorates

a)

peripheral atherosclerosis

b)

coronary atherosclerosis

c)

persistent high blood pressure

d)

multiple myocardial infarcts

e)

dilated cardiomyopathy

59.

Failure on the right side of the heart results in

a)

Peripheral congestion

b)
Increased blood flow to the brain
c)
Decreased blood flow to the body's veins
d)

Fluid pools far from the heart (like limbs)

60.

Failure on the left side of the heart results in

a)

Pulmonary congestion

b)
Increased blood flow to the brain
c)
Decreased blood flow to the body's veins
d)

Fluid accumulation in the lungs therefore difficulty in gas exchange

61.

As a fetus, which two structures were created to bypass the lungs?

a)

fossa ovalis - from right atrium to left atrium

b)

foramen ovale - from right atrium to left atrium

c)

ductus arteriosus - from pulmonary trunk to aortic arch

d)

ligamentum arteriosum - from pulmonary trunk to aortic arch

62.

What age-related changes can affect the heart?

a)

Sclerosis

b)

Decline in cardiac reserve

c)

Fibrosis

d)

Atherosclerosis

e)

Exercise and diet

63.

A blood vessel that contains tight junctions, an endothelium, and the innermost tunica is called?

a)
Veinule
b)
Arteriole
c)
Venule
d)
Capillary
64.

A blood vessel does NOT contain lumen is called?

a)

None of them

b)
Vein
c)

Artery

d)

All of them

65.

A blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood away from the heart. Except for the pulmonary and fetal circulation. Is called?

a)
vein
b)
capillary
c)
artery
d)
bronchus
66.

A blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood towards from the heart. Except for the pulmonary and fetal circulation. Is called?

a)
Capillary
b)
Vein
c)
Artery
d)
Lymphatic vessel
67.

This blood vessel directly interacts with tissues.

a)
Capillaries
b)
Lymphatic vessel
c)
Vein
d)
Artery
68.

Which tunic contains the endothelium and a subendothelial layer?

a)
Tunica intima
b)
Tunica adventitia
c)
Tunica media
d)
Tunica externa
69.

Does the tunica media contain smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, and/or elastin fibers?

a)

it contains smooth muscles

b)

it contains cardiac muscles

c)

it contains elastin fibers

d)

it contains skeletal muscles

70.

This tunic has collagen fibers and its function is to protect and reinforce the wall and anchor the structure.

a)
Tunica adventitia
b)
Tunica intima
c)
Tunica externa
d)
Tunica media
71.

The veins lack these structures that are seen in the arteries.

a)

internal elastic membrane

b)

external elastic membrane

c)

vasa vasorum

d)

collagen fibers

72.

This type of artery has the most elastin fibers, substantial amount of smooth muscles, act as pressure reservoirs for continuous flow.

a)

Elastic Arteries aka conducting arteries

b)
Veins
c)
Capillaries
d)
Muscular Arteries
73.

This type of artery delivers blood to the organs and has the thickest tunica media. It's also active in vasoconstriction

a)
Capillary
b)
Elastic artery
c)

Muscular artery aka distributing artery

d)
Vein
74.

This type of artery leads to the capillaries and controls the flow into the capillaries to make sure it doesn't rupture.

a)
Capillary
b)

Arteriole aka resistance artery

c)
Venule
d)
Vein
75.

This type of capillary is abundant in the skin, muscles, and CNS. It helps form the blood-brain barrier.

a)

Continuous capillary

b)
Lymphatic capillary
c)
Fenestrated capillary
d)
Sinusoidal capillary
76.

This type of capillary has endothelium with pores for increased permeability. These blood vessels can be seen kidneys, intestines, or endocrine organs.

a)
Continuous capillaries
b)
Sinusoidal capillaries
c)
Arterioles
d)
Fenestrated capillaries
77.

This type of capillary has few tight junctions, larger intercellular clefts, and incomplete basement membrane. They have larger lumens and can be seen in liver, bone marrow, spleen, and adrenal medulla.

a)
Fenestrated capillaries
b)
Continuous capillaries
c)
Arterioles
d)
Sinusoidal capillaries
78.

What are the structures that make up capillary beds?

a)

Terminal arterioles

b)

Capillaries

c)

Postcapillary venules

d)

Arterioles

79.

What structure do capillaries drain into?

a)

Postcapillary venule

b)
Lymphatic vessels
c)
Arteries
d)

Venule

80.

What are the adaptations that make up the veins?

a)

large lumens & thin walls = blood reservoir

b)

large diameter = little resistance

c)

venous valves = prevents blood from pooling downwards due to gravity

d)

no valves = even less resistance

81.

Pick all of the correct anastomoses:

a)

Vascular anastomoses - special interconnections of vessels

b)

Arterial anastomoses - provide alternate pathways (collateral channels) for continuous flow

c)

Venous anastomoses - very abundant

d)

Shunts - can be diverted into other areas

e)

Portal system - blood flows through two capillary beds separated by portal veins

82.

What is the term that means the volume of blood passing through a vessel, organ or entire body. May be associated with cardiac output.

a)

blood flow

b)

blood pressure

c)

resistance

83.

What is the term that means the force per unit exerted on the walls of a blood vessel? Usually refers to systemic arterial pressure and goes down the pressure gradient.

a)

blood flow

b)

blood pressure

c)

resistance

84.

What is the term that means the amount of friction blood encounters as it passes through vessels? The most impactful influence of this is the diameter of the blood vessel.

a)

blood flow

b)

blood pressure

c)

resistance

85.

What is the correlation between blood flow, blood pressure, and resistance?

a)

blood flow is directly proportional to blood pressure

b)

blood flow is inversely proportional to resistance

c)

blood pressure is directly proportional to resistance

d)

blood pressure is inversely proportional to resistance

86.

Identify the pulse points.

a)

superficial temporal artery

b)

facial artery

c)

common carotid artery

d)

brachial artery

e)

femoral artery

87.

What is the formula to calculate MAP?

a)

diastolic pressure + pulse pressure3\frac{pulse\ pressure}{3}

b)

arterial pressure - pulse pressure3\frac{pulse\ pressure}{3}

c)

diastolic pressure - pulse pressure3\frac{pulse\ pressure}{3}

d)

systolic pressure + pulse pressure3\frac{pulse\ pressure}{3}

88.

What are the steps to take blood pressure?

a)

use the auscultatory method via a sphygmomanometer

b)

hear the sounds of Korotkoff

c)

use an automated sphygmomanometer

d)

hear the sounds of the heart

89.

What are the changes in blood pressure in the systemic pathway?

a)

when blood reaches to the arterioles, the pressure drops significantly

b)

greatest pressure is in the arteries

c)

lowest pressure is in the vena cavas

d)

low pressure blood then returns to the right atrium

90.

What are some adaptations that help with venous return?

a)

Muscular Pump - contraction of skeletal muscle milks blood back into heart

b)

Respiratory Pump - pressure changes during breathing move blood to heart

c)
Static posture
d)

Sympathetic Vasoconstriction - tunica media constricts from sympathetic control

91.

The 3 factors that regulate blood pressure are

a)

Cardiac output

b)

Resistance

c)

Blood volume

d)

Hormone levels

92.

An increase in blood volume, CO, or resistance would ____ blood pressure

a)

increase

b)

decrease

93.

How would a neural regulatory control regulate high blood pressure?

a)

baroreceptor receives stimulus

b)

baroreceptor decreases vasomotor center = vasodilation

c)

baroreceptor increases vasomoter center = vasoconstriction

d)

baroreceptor decreases sympathetic impulses

94.

Chemoreceptors detect a high amount of CO2, how would chemoreceptors regulate this?

a)
Decrease the rate and depth of breathing
b)
Activate the sympathetic nervous system
c)

increased blood pressure speeds the return of blood to heart and lungs

d)

activate cardioacceleratory and vasomotor centers

95.

Which hormones increase blood pressure in a short amount of time?

a)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

b)

Angiotensin II stimulates vasoconstriction

c)

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide causes vasodilation

d)

ADH conserves water/vasopressin

96.

Which hormones decreases blood pressure in a long amount of time?

a)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

b)

Angiotensin II stimulates release aldosterone and ADH

c)

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide antagonizes aldosterone

d)

ADH conserves water/vasopressin

97.

What does tissue perfusion mean?

a)
Blood flow through capillaries in tissues
b)
Nerve conduction in tissues
c)
Oxygenation of red blood cells
d)
Blood flow through the lymphatic system
98.

The extrinsic factors for blood flow are? and how do they affect blood flow

a)

parasympathetic

b)

sympathetic

c)

hormones

d)

throughout the entire body

e)

maintain a constant MAP

99.

Intrinsic factors for the rate of blood flow are

a)

Metabolic

b)

Neural

c)

Hormonal

d)

Myogenic

100.

How would metabolic controls autoregulate blood flow?

a)
By constricting blood vessels in response to increased metabolic activity
b)

some tissues may release nitric oxide (powerful vasodilator)

c)

increase tissue chemical reactions stimulate vasodilation = increased blood flow

d)
By increasing blood viscosity in response to increased metabolic activity
101.

How would myogenic controls autoregulate blood flow?

a)

local vascular walls stretch to keep perfusion constant

b)

passive stretch = increased MAP stretches vessel walls more than normally

c)

reduced stretch = decreased MAP means less stretch

d)

the entire body controls all the blood vessels to keep everything organized in one place

102.

Velocity is highest in where?

a)

aorta

b)

arteriole

c)

veins

d)

capillaries

103.

The greatest cross-sectional area is?

a)

veins

b)

capillaries

c)

aorta

d)

venules

104.

Velocity is ____ ____ to cross-sectional area

a)
directly proportional
b)
inversely proportional
105.

Bulk flow is

a)
movement of fluids due to temperature difference
b)
movement of solids due to a pressure gradient
c)
movement of gases due to a concentration gradient
d)

forcing blood out of capillaries and returning to the venule end

106.

A positive NFP means?

a)

Hydrostatic pressure is greater than Colloid Osmotic pressure

b)

Colloid Osmotic pressure is greater than Hydrostatic pressure

c)

more fluids is leaking out

d)

more fluids are getting sucked back into the capillaries

107.

As we age, what happens to our blood vessels?

a)

varicose veins

b)

athersclerosis

c)

increased blood pressure

d)

as infants: ductus venosus drains umbilical vein into inferior vena cave

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