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Chapter 1 — The Life of the Cell & Scientific Method

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines biology at its core?

a)

The study of machines and engines

b)

The study of rocks and minerals

c)

The study of life and living systems

d)

The study of planets and stars

2.

Which feature primarily distinguishes eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells?

a)

Lack of ribosomes for protein synthesis

b)

Having cell walls made of peptidoglycan

c)

Ability to perform photosynthesis

d)

Presence of a membrane-bound nucleus

3.

Which type of cell is found in Domain Eukarya?

a)

Cells with only circular chromosomes

b)

Cells lacking genetic material entirely

c)

Prokaryotic cells without a nucleus

d)

Eukaryotic cells with a nucleus

4.

Which equation correctly represents cellular respiration?

a)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP

b)

6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + ATP

c)

C6H12O6 → 6CO2 + 6O2 + sunlight

d)

H2O + CO2 → glucose + ATP + light

5.

Which equation correctly represents photosynthesis?

a)

6CO2 + 6H2O + sunlight → C6H12O6 + 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP

c)

6O2 + glucose → CO2 + H2O + ATP

d)

CO2 + ATP → C6H12O6 + O2 + heat

6.

What does DNA stand for at the molecular level?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

b)

Dideoxyribonucleic Agent

c)

Deoxyadenine Nucleic Acid

d)

Dinucleotide Ribose Acid

7.

What does RNA stand for in genetics?

a)

Ribose Nucleotide Array

b)

Ribosomal Nuclear Agent

c)

Reactive Nucleic Acid

d)

Ribonucleic Acid

8.

Which term refers to naming and classifying organisms?

a)

Morphology

b)

Ecology

c)

Taxonomy

d)

Physiology

9.

Arrange the scientific method steps in the standard sequence.

a)

Observation → Question → Hypothesis → Experiment → Results → Conclusion

b)

Experiment → Question → Observation → Hypothesis → Results → Conclusion

c)

Question → Observation → Hypothesis → Results → Experiment → Conclusion

d)

Hypothesis → Observation → Experiment → Results → Question → Conclusion

10.

A biologist proposes that plants produce oxygen during photosynthesis. Which step comes immediately before testing this idea experimentally?

a)

Making an initial observation about plants

b)

Collecting results from controlled experiments

c)

Formulating a hypothesis to explain the prediction

d)

Drafting the final conclusion of the study

11.

Which subatomic particle determines an element’s atomic number?

a)

Neutron in the nucleus

b)

Isotope mass average

c)

Proton in the nucleus

d)

Electron in orbitals

12.

Adding protons and neutrons yields which value for an atom?

a)

Mass number value

b)

Electron shell count

c)

Valence electron sum

d)

Atomic number total

13.

What best describes a covalent bond?

a)

Transfer of electrons

b)

Sharing of electrons

c)

Attraction of opposite charges

d)

Hydrogen bridging between molecules

14.

Water’s cohesion and high specific heat primarily arise from which interaction?

a)

Van der Waals forces

b)

Hydrogen bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Ionic attractions

15.

An ionic bond forms most directly due to which condition?

a)

Equal electronegativity

b)

Opposite charge attraction

c)

Electron pair sharing

d)

Hydrogen-dipole alignment

16.

Carbon-14 has 6 protons and 8 neutrons. Which conclusion follows?

a)

Atomic number equals 14.

b)

Mass number equals 14.

c)

It is not an isotope of carbon.

d)

It has fourteen electrons.

17.

Which pH value best represents a strong base in aqueous solution?

a)

pH seven, neutral solution

b)

pH fourteen, highly basic

c)

pH nine, weakly basic

d)

pH two, highly acidic

18.

Which pH value best represents a strong acid in water?

a)

pH five, mildly acidic

b)

pH fourteen, highly basic

c)

pH seven, neutral solution

d)

pH zero, highly acidic

19.

Isotopes of the same element differ in the number of which subatomic particle?

a)

Positrons in the nucleus

b)

Neutrons within the nucleus

c)

Electrons in outer shells

d)

Protons within the nucleus

20.

A hydrophobic substance most likely shows which behavior in water?

a)

Aggregates away from water

b)

Forms hydrogen bonds with water

c)

Readily dissolves into solution

d)

Ionizes to release protons

21.

Which process builds polymers from monomers by removing water?

a)

Condensation with acids

b)

Oxidation reduction

c)

Dehydration synthesis

d)

Hydrolysis reaction

22.

Which process breaks polymers into monomers by adding water?

a)

Neutralization reaction

b)

Dehydration synthesis

c)

Hydrolysis reaction

d)

Isomerization reaction

23.

Which list correctly names the four major biological macromolecule classes?

a)

Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids

b)

Hydrocarbons, acids, bases, isotopes

c)

Sugars, oils, enzymes, DNA molecules

d)

Monosaccharides, fatty acids, amino acids, nucleotides

24.

Which macromolecule is paired with its typical monomer correctly?

a)

Carbohydrates — amino acids

b)

Lipids — glucose units

c)

Nucleic acids — nucleotides

d)

Proteins — monosaccharides

25.

Which bond links amino acids together within proteins?

a)

Glycosidic linkage

b)

Peptide bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Phosphodiester bond

26.

Which bond connects monosaccharides within carbohydrate polymers?

a)

Phosphodiester bond in backbone

b)

Peptide bond between residues

c)

Ionic bond between charges

d)

Glycosidic linkage between sugars

27.

Which bond forms the backbone of DNA and RNA polymers?

a)

Peptide bonds between bases

b)

Glycosidic bonds between sugars

c)

Disulfide bonds between strands

d)

Phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides

28.

A solution has pH 13. Which adjustment best moves it toward neutrality?

a)

Add buffer to raise pH

b)

Add strong acid in small amounts

c)

Add concentrated base carefully

d)

Add pure water until diluted

29.

During dehydration synthesis of a disaccharide, which immediate change occurs?

a)

Two waters are consumed

b)

Neutrons are transferred

c)

Protons are captured by base

d)

A water molecule is released

30.

Which base is present in DNA but not in RNA?

a)

Guanine unique to DNA

b)

Uracil occurs only in DNA

c)

Cytosine absent in RNA

d)

Thymine appears only in DNA

31.

Which base replaces thymine in RNA?

a)

Uracil replaces thymine

b)

Adenine replaces thymine

c)

Guanine replaces thymine

d)

Cytosine replaces thymine

32.

What is the primary function of the nucleus in animal cells?

a)

Stores genetic DNA

b)

Synthesizes proteins

c)

Packages secretory vesicles

d)

Generates cellular ATP

33.

Which structure makes proteins and can be free or bound?

a)

Ribosomes synthesize proteins

b)

Lysosomes assemble proteins

c)

Mitochondria build proteins

d)

Chloroplasts form proteins

34.

Which organelle carries out digestion of macromolecules in animal cells?

a)

Golgi digests proteins

b)

Mitochondria digest starches

c)

Peroxisomes make lipids

d)

Lysosomes digest macromolecules

35.

What is the main function of the cell membrane in animal cells?

a)

Produces protein chains

b)

Performs photosynthesis

c)

Regulates entry and exit

d)

Stores genetic material

36.

Which statement best describes the cytoplasm?

a)

Fluid interior matrix

b)

Double-membrane organelle

c)

DNA storage compartment

d)

Protein-synthesizing granule

37.

Which structure is unique to plant cells and provides rigid support?

a)

Ribosome provides strength

b)

Lysosome provides rigidity

c)

Cell membrane provides ATP

d)

Cell wall provides structure

38.

Which structure provides shape and protection in bacteria?

a)

Flagellum gives shape

b)

Cell wall gives structure

c)

Cell membrane gives DNA

d)

Lysosome gives rigidity

39.

What is the primary function of bacterial flagella?

a)

Motility through media

b)

DNA replication control

c)

Protein secretion sorting

d)

Photosynthesis reactions

40.

A toxin blocks Golgi vesicle formation. Predict the immediate cellular consequence.

a)

Photosynthesis shuts down

b)

Protein processing disrupted

c)

ATP synthesis increases

d)

DNA replication accelerates

41.

Which statement best defines energy in biology?

a)

Capacity to do work in systems

b)

Ability to store heat only

c)

Movement of molecules randomly

d)

Potential to change mass values

42.

Which term describes energy of motion?

a)

Thermal energy in bonds

b)

Chemical energy in foods

c)

Potential energy at rest

d)

Kinetic energy in motion

43.

What does the first law of thermodynamics state?

a)

Energy only decreases in cells

b)

Energy creates matter freely

c)

Energy only increases spontaneously

d)

Energy is conserved overall

44.

Which term is the minimum energy required to start a reaction?

a)

Free energy change value

b)

Activation energy threshold

c)

Bond dissociation energy

d)

Caloric input from ATP

45.

Which molecules speed up biochemical reactions without being consumed?

a)

ATP as energy coin

b)

Hormones as signals

c)

Enzymes as catalysts

d)

Substrates as reactants

46.

The specific region of an enzyme that binds substrate is called the

a)

Active site pocket

b)

Allosteric region

c)

Transport channel

d)

Recognition loop

47.

Transport against a concentration gradient typically requires

a)

ATP to power pumps

b)

Osmotic pressure alone

c)

Passive channel flow

d)

Simple diffusion only

48.

Cell drinking, the uptake of small fluid droplets, is termed

a)

Autophagy organelle recycling

b)

Pinocytosis vesicle uptake

c)

Phagocytosis particle eating

d)

Exocytosis vesicle release

49.

Engulfment of large particles by a cell is called

a)

Exocytosis secretion

b)

Pinocytosis sipping

c)

Phagocytosis ingestion

d)

Endocytosis fusion

50.

A solution with higher solute concentration than the cell is

a)

Hypertonic to the cell

b)

Aqueous to the cell

c)

Hypotonic to the cell

d)

Isotonic to the cell

51.

A solution with lower solute concentration than the cell is

a)

Isotonic relative inside

b)

Isoosmotic relative inside

c)

Hypertonic relative inside

d)

Hypotonic relative inside

52.

A solution with equal solute concentration to the cell is

a)

Isotonic at equilibrium

b)

Hypertonic with salt

c)

Hypotonic with water

d)

Supersaturated solution

53.

Cellular respiration that uses oxygen is termed

a)

Chemiosmotic photophosphorylation

b)

Photosynthetic light reactions

c)

Anaerobic fermentation route

d)

Aerobic respiration pathway

54.

Respiration occurring without oxygen is

a)

Anaerobic metabolism

b)

Aerobic oxidation

c)

Microaerophilic growth

d)

Anoxic photosynthesis

55.

Approximate ATP yield per glucose during cellular respiration is

a)

About 32 ATP molecules

b)

About 12 ATP molecules

c)

About 64 ATP molecules

d)

About 6 ATP molecules

56.

Glycolysis begins with which substrate?

a)

Acetyl-CoA two-carbon

b)

Pyruvate as three-carbon

c)

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

d)

Glucose as six-carbon

57.

Glycolysis ends with production of

a)

Three molecules of ethanol

b)

Two molecules of pyruvate

c)

Two molecules of lactate

d)

One molecule of acetyl-CoA

58.

Net ATP produced directly by glycolysis per glucose is

a)

Two ATP net gain

b)

Thirty-two ATP net

c)

One ATP net gain

d)

Four ATP net gain

59.

Which molecule carries high-energy electrons from glycolysis and Krebs?

a)

CO2 waste product

b)

ATP energy currency

c)

NADH electron carrier

d)

Glucose carbon source

60.

Where does glycolysis occur in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Cytoplasm of the cell

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

d)

Peroxisome compartment

61.

Which stage of respiration releases carbon dioxide directly?

a)

Krebs cycle decarboxylations

b)

Oxidative phosphorylation

c)

Glycolysis substrate-level

d)

ETC proton pumping

62.

The Krebs cycle takes place in the

a)

Mitochondrial matrix space

b)

Cytosolic fluid region

c)

Thylakoid lumen space

d)

Nuclear envelope area

63.

Which reduced carriers feed electrons to the ETC in respiration?

a)

NADH and FADH2

b)

NADPH and RuBP

c)

ATP and ADP

d)

O2 and CO2

64.

Most ATP in respiration is produced during

a)

Krebs cycle citrate formation

b)

Pyruvate oxidation only

c)

Glycolysis with substrate-level

d)

ETC with oxidative phosphorylation

65.

Organisms that make their own food are called

a)

Mixotrophs alternators

b)

Heterotrophs consumers

c)

Autotrophs producers

d)

Saprotrophs decomposers

66.

Photosynthetic pigments primarily absorb which visible wavelengths?

a)

Infrared and ultraviolet

b)

Orange and violet only

c)

Blue and red light bands

d)

Green and yellow bands

67.

The overall process plants use to make food is

a)

Chemosynthesis process

b)

Fermentation pathways

c)

Cellular respiration

d)

Photosynthesis reactions

68.

Light reactions occur in which chloroplast structure?

a)

Mitochondrial cristae

b)

Outer chloroplast membrane

c)

Thylakoid membrane stacks

d)

Stroma fluid interior

69.

The Calvin cycle takes place in the

a)

Stroma of chloroplast

b)

Thylakoid membrane

c)

Intermembrane space

d)

Thylakoid lumen

70.

Immediate products of light-dependent reactions include

a)

ATP, NADPH, and O2

b)

CO2, glucose, and NADH

c)

Pyruvate, FADH2, and H2O

d)

RuBP, ADP, and lactate

71.

If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, what is the most likely outcome for water movement?

a)

Water leaves the cell

b)

Water enters the cell

c)

No net water moves

d)

Water converts to ATP

72.

During aerobic respiration, why is oxygen essential at the end of the electron transport chain?

a)

Pumps protons across membrane

b)

Acts as final electron acceptor

c)

Phosphorylates ADP directly

d)

Generates glucose in matrix

73.

A herbicide blocks electron flow in thylakoids. Which immediate products decline first?

a)

ATP and NADPH production

b)

CO2 fixation rate

c)

O2 consumption levels

d)

Starch breakdown rate

74.

A cell increases active transport of ions. Which cellular molecule demand rises most?

a)

O2 requirement decreases

b)

CO2 requirement increases

c)

NADH requirement increases

d)

ATP requirement increases

75.

Which base pairing rule is correct for double-stranded DNA?

a)

A pairs with C, G pairs with T

b)

A pairs with T, C pairs with G

c)

A pairs with U, C pairs with T

d)

A pairs with G, C pairs with T

76.

Which term describes a heritable change in the DNA sequence?

a)

Okazaki unit

b)

Replication fork

c)

Translocation

d)

Mutation

77.

What enzyme unwinds the DNA double helix during replication?

a)

Primase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Helicase

78.

Which enzyme synthesizes the new DNA strand by adding nucleotides?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Telomerase

d)

DNA polymerase

79.

What is the function of DNA ligase in replication?

a)

Removes supercoils

b)

Seals nicks between fragments

c)

Adds RNA primers

d)

Unwinds parental helix

80.

Short DNA segments synthesized on the lagging strand are called what?

a)

Replication units

b)

Okazaki fragments

c)

Primer blocks

d)

Exon chunks

81.

The point where parental strands separate to allow copying is the what?

a)

Replication fork

b)

Origin bubble

c)

Splice junction

d)

Termination loop

82.

Which strand is synthesized continuously toward the fork?

a)

Leading strand

b)

Lagging strand

c)

Template strand

d)

Coding strand

83.

Which molecule serves as the initial primer for DNA synthesis?

a)

RNA primer

b)

Protein primer

c)

dATP primer

d)

DNA primer

84.

Transcription converts genetic information from DNA into what molecule?

a)

Protein

b)

Amino acid

c)

RNA

d)

Polypeptide

85.

Translation uses information in RNA to synthesize what product?

a)

Lipid

b)

Protein

c)

DNA

d)

Ribozyme

86.

Which nucleotide is found in RNA but not DNA?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Uracil

c)

Thymine

d)

Guanine

87.

Compared with DNA, which structural feature characterizes RNA?

a)

Double-stranded with ribose

b)

Single-stranded with deoxyribose

c)

Double-stranded with deoxyribose

d)

Single-stranded with ribose

88.

Which RNA forms the core of ribosomal structure and catalysis?

a)

miRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

rRNA

89.

Which RNA delivers amino acids to the ribosome via anticodons?

a)

siRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

tRNA

90.

A bacteriophage is best described as what?

a)

Bacterial plasmid vector

b)

Mobile genetic element

c)

Protein that cuts DNA

d)

Virus that infects bacteria

91.

In a cross FF × ff for earlobe attachment, what are the expected offspring genotypes?

a)

Three Ff, one ff

b)

Half FF, half ff

c)

All Ff heterozygotes

d)

All FF homozygotes

92.

In the FF × ff cross for a dominant trait, which phenotype will all offspring show?

a)

Codominant expression

b)

Attached earlobes

c)

No attached earlobes

d)

Incomplete dominance

93.

In a Ww × Ww cross, what is the expected genotype ratio among offspring?

a)

1 WW : 2 Ww : 1 ww

b)

3 WW : 1 Ww : 0 ww

c)

1 WW : 1 Ww : 2 ww

d)

2 WW : 1 Ww : 1 ww

94.

A Ww × Ww cross for widow’s peak yields which phenotype ratio?

a)

3 widow’s peak : 1 straight

b)

1 widow’s peak : 3 straight

c)

4 widow’s peak : 0 straight

d)

2 widow’s peak : 2 straight

95.

For dogs with Dd × dd, what proportion of phenotypes is expected?

a)

50% normal, 50% deaf

b)

100% normal, 0% deaf

c)

25% normal, 75% deaf

d)

75% normal, 25% deaf

96.

For dogs with DD × dd, what is the phenotype outcome in offspring?

a)

0% normal

b)

25% normal

c)

50% normal

d)

100% normal

97.

Crossing TTPP × ttpp produces F1 with which genotype?

a)

TtPp

b)

TTpp

c)

ttPP

d)

TTPP

98.

The F1 from TTPP × ttpp shows which phenotype?

a)

tall, white

b)

tall, purple

c)

short, purple

d)

short, white

99.

In the F1 cross TtPp × TtPp, what genotype ratio occurs for each gene?

a)

9:3:3:1 overall

b)

1:1 for each gene

c)

3:1 for each gene

d)

1:2:1 for each gene

100.

In the F1 cross TtPp × TtPp, what is the expected phenotype ratio?

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

1:1:1:1

c)

3:1

d)

1:2:1

101.

In the dihybrid cross YySs × YySs, what phenotype ratio is expected?

a)

9 yellow wrinkled : 3 yellow smooth : 3 green wrinkled : 1 green smooth

b)

3 yellow smooth : 1 green wrinkled : 3 green smooth : 1 yellow wrinkled

c)

9 yellow smooth : 3 yellow wrinkled : 3 green smooth : 1 green wrinkled

d)

1 yellow smooth : 3 yellow wrinkled : 3 green smooth : 9 green wrinkled

102.

Which tool is used to cut DNA at specific sites?

a)

Transcription factors

b)

Ribosomal proteins

c)

Restriction enzymes

d)

Ligase enzymes

103.

What does PCR stand for?

a)

Protein catalytic reaction

b)

Polymerase chain reaction

c)

Primer cycling replication

d)

Polygenic coding regulation

104.

Which enzyme enables PCR by withstanding high temperatures?

a)

Reverse transcriptase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

DNA ligase

d)

Taq polymerase

105.

Taq polymerase was isolated from which organism?

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

c)

Thermus aquaticus

d)

Arabidopsis thaliana

106.

During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are separated primarily by what property?

a)

Size

b)

Charge

c)

Sequence

d)

Origin

107.

Which laboratory technique separates DNA using an electric field in a gel?

a)

Chromatography

b)

Northern blotting

c)

Flow cytometry

d)

Gel electrophoresis

108.

GMO is an abbreviation for which term?

a)

Genetic mapping outcome

b)

General molecular operation

c)

Genetically modified organism

d)

Genomic material origin

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