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MTAP - Immunoserology

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

___________ is the movement of cells in a certain direction under the stimulation of chemical substances while __________ is the coating of antibody and/or complement. Both of these two processes help facilitate _________.

a)

Chemotaxis - opsonization – phagocytosis

b)

Engulfment - opsonization - phagocytosis

c)

Opsonization - chemotaxis - engulfment

d)

Phagocytosis - chemotaxis - opsonization

e)

Chemotaxis - degranulation - phagocytosis

2.

Active Artificial Immunity is induced by vaccine that contains which of the ff?

1-Toxoid, 2-dead typhoid bacteria, 3-IgG, 4-Live small pox virus

a)

All except 1

b)

All except 4

c)

All except 3

d)

All except 2

3.

A newborn infant gets immune antibodies from his mother through the colostrum during breast feeding. What adaptive immunity is involved?

a)

Artificial active immunity

b)

natural passive immunity

c)

artificial passive immunity

d)

natural active immunity

4.

A thermolabile protein present in normal serum is known as:

a)

Buffer

b)

Antibody

c)

Amboceptor

d)

Complement

5.

Chemical reagent(s) that distinguishes IgG from IgM antibodies. This substance denatures IgM by breaking its disulfide bonds.

a)

A. sulfhydryl compounds

b)

B. Thiol reagents

c)

C. organic solvents

d)

A and C

e)

all of the above

6.

Kupffer cell is the macrophage that is found in the ______ tissue.

a)

Pulmonary

b)

Hepatic

c)

Renal

d)

Nervous

7.

Natural Immunity is represented by which of the ff. defense systems? 1-Acidity of Gatro intestinal tract, 2- Interferons, 3-IgG, 4-Lymphokines

a)

All except 2 and 4

b)

All except 1 and 3

c)

All except 1 and 2

d)

All except 3 and 4

8.

The first leukocyte to migrate to the area of damaged/infected tissues during inflammatory response.

a)

B-cell

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Neutrophil

d)

Monocyte

e)

Macrophage

9.

The most potent phagocytic cell and most effective APC is

a)

Macrophage

b)

Dendritic cell

c)

T cell

d)

B cell

10.

This interleukin inhibits cytokine synthesis.

a)

IL 12

b)

IL 8

c)

IL 6

d)

IL 10

11.

Transfer of antibodies through the injection is classified as:

a)

ARTIFICIAL PASSIVE

b)

NATURAL PASSIVE

c)

ARTIFICIAL ACTIVE

d)

NATURAL ACTIVE

12.

What cytokine stimulate trans-endothelial leukocyte movement from the blood to the tissue site of infection and regulate the migration of PMNs and mononuclear leukocytes within tissues?

a)

Monokine

b)

Chemokine

c)

TNF

d)

Lymphokine

13.

What is the leukocyte that mediates cellular immunity of an individual?

a)

Eosinophil

b)

B-cell

c)

T-cell

d)

Macrophage

e)

Plasma cell

14.

What is the name of the process by which phagocytic cells are attracted to a substance such as a bacterial peptide?

a)

Diapedesis

b)

Chemotaxis

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Degranulation

15.

Which of the ff interleukins will act as a growth factors to B- cells?

1-IL-1

2-IL-4

3-IL-5

4-IL-6

a)

2 and 3

b)

3 and 4

c)

2,3, and 4

d)

1, 2, and 3

16.

Which of the ff is routinely included in compatibility testing?

1-ABO/Rh testing of donor and recipient

2-antibody screening of donor

3-Minor crossmatch

4-Major crossmatch

a)

All except 1

b)

All except 2

c)

All except 3

d)

All except 4

17.

Which of the ff. are true for ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY?

1-Specific in nature

2-Secondary response has the same magnitude as that of the primary response

3-It produces memory cells

4-It is the first line of defense.

a)

1,3,4

b)

1,3

c)

1.2

d)

1,2,3,4

18.

Which of the following cytokines stimulates hematopoeitic cells and supports the growth of bone marrow stem cells?

a)

IL-1

b)

IL-2

c)

IL-3

d)

IFN

e)

TNF

19.

where is histamine synthesized?

a)

A. Mast cell

b)

B. Basophil

c)

C. Eosinophil

d)

A and B

e)

All of the Above

20.

largest white blood cell found in the blood

a)

macrophage

b)

monocyte

c)

neutrophil

d)

mesangial cell

21.

potent enzyme that kills bacteria through respiratory burst

a)

lactoferrin

b)

lysozyme or muramidase

c)

myeloperoxidase

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

22.

arginine rich protein that has anti-parasitic activity

a)

myeloperoxidase

b)

major basic protein

c)

histamine

d)

lactoferrin

23.

located on the skin and the mucous membranes

a)

histiocytes

b)

macrophages

c)

langerhans cells

d)

osteoclast

24.

what is the speed of response for neutrophils

a)

4 hours

b)

10 mins

c)

30-60 mins

d)

1-2 hours

25.

what is the speed of response for macrophage

a)

4 hours

b)

10 mins

c)

30-60 mins

d)

1-2 hours

26.

what type of phagocytosis is it if opsonins are not involved?

a)

direct phagocytosis

b)

indirect phagocytosis

c)

both

d)

none

27.

it is sensitive to acute stage inflammation but it is non-specific

a)

complement

b)

c-reactive protein

c)

cytokines

d)

natural antibodies

28.

can be found in tears, saliva, and other secretions

a)

properdin

b)

betalysin

c)

cytokines

d)

lysozyme

29.

type of cytokines which transmits between similar type of cells

a)

autocrine

b)

paracrine

c)

both

d)

none

30.

type of cytokines which transmits between different types of cells

a)

autocrine

b)

paracrine

c)

both

d)

none

31.

produced by immunologically stimulated, primarily T lymphocytes

a)

alpha IFN

b)

beta IFN

c)

gamma IFN

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

32.

means of communication between leukocytes

a)

interleukins

b)

interferons

c)

tumor necrosis factor

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

33.

produced mainly by macrophages or monocytes

a)

interleukins

b)

interferons

c)

tumor necrosis factor

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

34.

lymphocyte activating factor

a)

IL-2

b)

IL-6

c)

IL-3

d)

IL-1

e)

IL-7

35.

key cell involved in immune response

a)

lymphocyte

b)

monocyte

c)

neutrophil

d)

eosinophil

36.

lymphoid organ where differentiation, development, and maturation occurs

a)

primary lymphoid organ

b)

secondary lymphoid organ

c)

none

d)

both

37.

Which among the CD markers are used to identify B-cells?

1 - CD 19

2 - CD 20

3 - CD 22

4 - CD 21

5 - CD 17

a)

ALL

b)

1,2,4

c)

3,4,5

d)

2,3,5

e)

NONE

38.

B-cell responsible for antibody production

a)

plasma cell

b)

pro b cell

c)

memory cells

d)

activated b cell

39.

exhibit identifying marker CD25

a)

plasma cell

b)

pro b cell

c)

memory cells

d)

activated b cell

40.

recognize antigen upon reexposure

a)

plasma cell

b)

pro b cell

c)

memory cells

d)

activated b cell

41.

first antibody to have a complete set of structure?

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgE

d)

IgA

e)

IgD

42.

Which CD markers are specific for T-cells

1 - CD1

2- CD2

3- CD3

4- CD4

5- CD8

6-CD21

7-CD16

8-CD56

a)

1,4,6,7

b)

ALL

c)

NONE

d)

1,2,3,4,5

e)

3,4,5

43.

Which CD markers are specific for NK CELLS

1 - CD1

2- CD2

3- CD3

4- CD4

5- CD8

6-CD21

7-CD16

8-CD56

a)

1,4,6,7

b)

ALL

c)

NONE

d)

1,3,4,

e)

4,5

44.

thymocytes that lacks both CD4 and CD8

a)

mature T cell

b)

Double negative thymocytes

c)

Double positive thymocytes

d)

sensitized T cell

e)

activated T cell

45.

thymocytes that has both CD4 and CD8

a)

mature T cell

b)

Double negative thymocytes

c)

Double positive thymocytes

d)

sensitized T cell

e)

activated T cell

46.

thymocytes that has either CD4 or CD8

a)

mature T cell

b)

Double negative thymocytes

c)

Double positive thymocytes

d)

sensitized T cell

e)

activated T cell

47.

most immunocompetent, is CD4 positive, collaborates with B-cells

a)

T-helper

b)

T-suppressor

c)

Mature T-cell

d)

Thymocytes

48.

CD8 positive and controls and inhibits antibody production

a)

T-helper

b)

T-suppressor

c)

Mature T-cell

d)

Thymocytes

49.

- has the ability to destroy virally infected cells or tumor cells

- not MHC class restricted

- aka "kiss of death"

a)

NK cells

b)

monocytes and macrophages

c)

killer cells

d)

LAK cells

50.

stimulated by IL-2 to help lyse tumor cells

a)

NK cells

b)

monocytes and macrophages

c)

killer cells

d)

LAK cells

51.

lyse target cells by using antibody-dependent cell mediated cytolysis (ADCC)

a)

NK cells

b)

monocytes and macrophages

c)

killer cells

d)

LAK cells

52.

Statement 1: Nonspecific function of monocytes and macrophage is phagocytosis

Statement 2: Specific function of monocytes and macrophage is antigen presenting cell (APC)

a)

both statements are true

b)

none of the statements are true

c)

only statement 1 is correct

d)

only statement 2 is correct

53.

what CD is the marker receptor on the surface of different cytotoxic cells?

a)

CD 15

b)

CD 18

c)

CD 20

d)

CD 23

e)

CD 16

54.

It is the most common technique separating lymphocytes from the peripheral blood sample

a)

Ficoll-Hypaque Density Gradient

b)

Flow Cytometry

c)

Rosette technique

d)

Surface immunoglobulin test

55.

this test is specific for b-cells and its method is immunoenzymatic method

a)

Ficoll-Hypaque Density Gradient

b)

Flow Cytometry

c)

Rosette technique

d)

Surface immunoglobulin test

56.

an old method for the presumptive identification of T-cells and is specific for t-cells only

a)

Ficoll-Hypaque Density Gradient

b)

Flow Cytometry

c)

Rosette technique

d)

Surface immunoglobulin test

57.

responsible for the molecular weight of the antigen

a)

carrier portion

b)

epitope or determinant

c)

both

d)

none

58.

determines the specificity of the antigen

a)

carrier portion

b)

epitope or determinant

c)

both

d)

none

59.

antigens that belong to the host

a)

autoantigen

b)

alloantigen

c)

heteroantigen

d)

heterophile antigen

60.

heteroantigens that exist in unrelated plants or animals but are identical or closely related in structure

a)

autoantigen

b)

alloantigen

c)

heteroantigen

d)

heterophile antigen

61.

antigens derived from other species that are introduced to human

a)

autoantigen

b)

alloantigen

c)

heteroantigen

d)

heterophile antigen

62.

antigens from other members of the same host's species

a)

autoantigen

b)

alloantigen

c)

heteroantigen

d)

heterophile antigen

63.

transplant derived from identical member of host's species

a)

autograft

b)

allograft

c)

isograft/syngraft

d)

heterograft/xenograft

64.

it is the best and strongest antigen

a)

polysaccharide

b)

glycoproteins

c)

nucleic acids and lipids

d)

polypeptide

e)

proteins

65.

least immunogenic

a)

polysaccharide

b)

glycoproteins

c)

nucleic acids and lipids

d)

polypeptide

e)

proteins

66.

chemical agents that when added to antigen can induce or enhance immune response

a)

allergen

b)

immunogen

c)

adjuvants

d)

hapten

67.

special class of immunogen that induces hypersensitivity reactions

a)

allergen

b)

immunogen

c)

adjuvants

d)

hapten

68.

strength of attraction between an epitope and an antigen combining site of an antibody

a)

affinity

b)

avidity

c)

both

d)

none

69.

strength of attraction between complex antigens and antibodies

a)

affinity

b)

avidity

c)

both

d)

none

70.

treatment with papain will produce which fragments

a)

2 Fc, 1 Fab

b)

1 Fab, 1 Fc

c)

2 Fc, 1 Fab

d)

3 Fc

71.

treatment with pepsin will produce which fragments

a)

2 Fc

b)

1 Fc

c)

3 Fab

d)

2 Fab

e)

3 Fc

72.

what chromosome does heavy chain synthesis occur?

a)

14

b)

5

c)

6

d)

12

73.

which chromosome does light chain kappa synthesis occur?

a)

2

b)

10

c)

22

d)

12

74.

which chromosome does light chain lambda synthesis occur?

a)

2

b)

10

c)

22

d)

12

75.

What test is used to identify S. pneumoniae infection?

a)

Francis

b)

Moan

c)

Dick

d)

Schick

e)

Mendel

76.

What test is used to identify Diphtheria

a)

Francis

b)

Moan

c)

Dick

d)

Schick

e)

Mendel

77.

What test is used to identify Hydatid

a)

Frei

b)

Moan

c)

Cansoni

d)

Malletin

e)

Von pirquet

78.

gene tumor marker for CML

a)

BCR-ABL

b)

B-HCG

c)

CA 72-4

d)

CA 15-3

e)

PSA

79.

best tumor marker for prostate cancer

a)

CEA

b)

B-HCG

c)

CA 125

d)

CA 15-3

e)

PSA

80.

tumor marker for ovarian cancer

a)

CEA

b)

B-HCG

c)

CA 125

d)

CA 15-3

e)

PSA

81.

tumor marker for gastric cancer

a)

CEA

b)

CA 72-4

c)

AFP

d)

CA 15-3

e)

PSA

82.

tumor marker for hepatocellular cancer

a)

CEA

b)

CA 72-4

c)

AFP

d)

CA 15-3

e)

PSA

83.

Identify which type of hypersensitivity:

- 5 to 8 hours

- Ab directed against cell-surface antigens

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

84.

Identify which type of hypersensitivity:

- 2 to 8 hours

- Ag-Ab complexes deposit at various sites

- soluble antigens involved

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

85.

Identify which type of hypersensitivity:

- 2 to 30 mins

- IgE antibody is involved

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

86.

most severe type of hypersensitivity

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

87.

which among the IgG can cross the placenta?

a)

Ig1 and Ig3

b)

Ig2 and Ig3

c)

Ig4 only

d)

Ig3 only

e)

Ig 1 only

88.

Arrange from most to least potent

a)

IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE

b)

IgA, IgM, IgG, IgE, IgD

c)

IgD, IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE

d)

IgE, IgA, IgM, IgG, IgD

89.

Identify which antibody is being described:

- cold antibody

- biggest antibody

- primary response antibody

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

e)

IgE

90.

Identify which antibody is being described:

- mucosal immunity

- seen in breastmilk

- monomer and dimer

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

e)

IgE

91.

Identify which antibody is being described:

- warm antibody

-predominant in humans

- best precipitating antibody

- smallest antibody

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

e)

IgE

92.

Identify which antibody is being described:

- least abundant

- heat labile

- binds strongly to mast cell and basophil

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

e)

IgE

93.

C3 convertase of classical pathway

a)

C4b2a

b)

C4b2a3b

c)

C3bBb3b

d)

C3bBb

94.

C3 convertase of alternative pathway

a)

C4b2a

b)

C4b2a3b

c)

C3bBb3b

d)

C3bBb

95.

C5 convertase of alternative pathway

a)

C4b2a

b)

C4b2a3b

c)

C3bBb3b

d)

C3bBb

96.

activating substance is Mannose

a)

lectin pathway

b)

classical pathway

c)

alternative pathway

d)

none

97.

phase where antibody is not yet detectable

a)

lag phase

b)

log phase

c)

plateau phase

d)

decline phase

98.

antibody titer increases exponentially

a)

lag phase

b)

log phase

c)

plateau phase

d)

decline phase

99.

anamestic or memory response

a)

secondary response

b)

primary response

c)

both

d)

none

100.

Statement 1: Primary response has a longer plateau phase

Statement 2: Secondary response has a shorter lag phase

a)

both statements are true

b)

none of the statements are true

c)

only statement 2 is true

d)

only statement 1 is true

101.

which class of MHC is being described?

- present in all nucleated cells

- presented to CD8 positive cells or T suppressor type of cells

- includes HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C, B2-microglobulin, HLA-E

a)

MHC I

b)

MHC II

c)

MHC III

d)

NONE

e)

ALL

102.

Statement 1: If lymphocytes stain blue or pink, it has HLA MHC I antigens

Statement 2: If lymphocytes don't stain blue or punk, it does not have HLA MHC I antigens

a)

both statements are true

b)

none of the statements are true

c)

only statement 2 is true

d)

only statement 1 is true

103.

which class of MHC is being described?

- restricted to immunocompetent cells

- present in macrophages, b-cells, and dendritic cells

- includes HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR

a)

MHC I

b)

MHC II

c)

MHC III

d)

NONE

e)

ALL

104.

HLA that causes ankylosing spondylitis

a)

HLA B27

b)

HLA DR2

c)

HLA DR3

d)

HLA DR4

105.

HLA that causes Rheumatoid Arthritis

a)

HLA B27

b)

HLA DR2

c)

HLA DR3

d)

HLA DR4

106.

HLA that causes SLE

a)

HLA B27

b)

HLA DR2

c)

HLA DR3

d)

HLA DR4

107.

HLA that causes Goodpasture's syndrome

a)

HLA B27

b)

HLA DR2

c)

HLA DR3

d)

HLA DR4

108.

which class of MHC is being described?

- minor MHC antigens

- involves complement components such as C2, C4, and Factor B/C3 proactivate

a)

MHC I

b)

MHC II

c)

MHC III

d)

NONE

e)

ALL