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DevBio Compiled Quizzes

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Ooganesis occurs in the?

a)

Folliculogenesis

b)

Ovaries

c)

Gonad

d)

Spermatozoa

2.

The ovum has a ________ number of chromosomes, having undergone meiotic cell division.

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

3.

____________ is the maturation of ovarian follicles.

a)

Folliculogenesis

b)

Macrolecithal

c)

Vitellogenesis

d)

Spermatozoa

4.

The process of yolk formation via nutrients deposited in the oocyte is called?

a)

Folliculogenesis

b)

Macrolecithal

c)

Vitellogenesis

d)

Spermatozoa

5.

The spermatozoa have ________ number of chromosome, having undergone meiotic cell division.

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

6.

Spermatogenesis occurs in the?

a)

Folliculogenesis

b)

Macrolecithal

c)

Vitellogenesis

d)

Semenifirous tubules

7.

A spermatogonium has a ­________ number of chromosomes.

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

8.

The part of sperm cell used for motility is the?

(a)  

9.

Which of the following genes have the deep, conserved homology among different groups of animals to function with segmentation?

a)

Folliculogenesis

b)

Pax-6

c)

Vitellogenesis

d)

Hox Genes

10.

The following are examples of a teratogen, EXCEPT:

a)

Alcohol

b)

Paracetamol

c)

RETINOIC Acid

d)

Oral contraceptives

11.

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about cleavage?

a)

The early cell division that occurs as a fertilized egg begins to develop into an embryo

b)

There is no growth of cells between cleavage divisions

c)

Rapid meiotic division occurs during cleavage

d)

Cells undergoing cleavage are not yet differentiated

12.

Which of the following is NOT a diploblastic representative?

a)

Cnidarians

b)

Ctenophores

c)

Vertebrates

d)

Poriferans

13.

Which of the following genes have the deep, conserved homology among different groups of animals to function with eye development?

a)

Folliculogenesis

b)

Pax-6

c)

Vitellogenesis

d)

Hox Genes

14.

Which of the following is NOT a fate of the MESODERM?

a)

Heart

b)

Digestive Tract

c)

Gonads

d)

Blood

15.

What is a gonad?

a)

The primary reproductive organs

b)

Sex cells

c)

Gamete

16.

Which of the following is NOT a fate of the ECTODERM?

a)

Muscles

b)

Brain

c)

Epidermis

d)

Central Nervous System

17.

Which teratogenic drug causes sironemelia and amelia?

(a)  

18.

What is a gamete?

a)

The primary reproductive organs

b)

Sex cells

c)

Gamete

19.

Avian eggs are __________ because of its large and dense yolk.

a)

Folliculogenesis

b)

Macrolecithal

c)

Vitellogenesis

d)

Semenifirous tubules

20.

Blastula of birds is called __________.

a)

Folliculogenesis

b)

Macrolecithal

c)

Vitellogenesis

d)

Blastodisc

21.

Such eggs with greater amount of yolk have ___________ type of cleavage.

a)

Meroblastic

b)

Macrolecithal

c)

Vitellogenesis

d)

Blastodisc

22.

The incubation period of chick embryo is (a)   days.

23.

The shell of eggs is composed of _______________.

a)

Calcium carbonate

b)

Calcium phosphorus

c)

Carbon carbonate

24.

In eukaryotes fusion of two gametes produce a ____________ chromosome.

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

25.

The union of sperm and egg cell will result to ________.

a)

Pluteus

b)

Zygote

26.

The larva of sea urchins is called _________.

a)

Pluteus

b)

Zygote

27.

After fertilization, division of cells in the early embryo is called _________.

a)

Meroblastic

b)

Macrolecithal

c)

Cleavage

d)

Blastodisc

28.

During the _______________ process, blastula cells are reorganized to into three distinct germ layers.

a)

Blastulation

b)

Gastrulation

c)

Cleavage

d)

Blastodisc

29.

Choose an incorrect description of amniote extraembryonic membrane.

a)

Amnion contains fluid that bathes embryo.

b)

Yolk sac stores nutritive proteins.

c)

Chorion restricts the interaction of the embryo with the outside environment.

d)

Allantois collect the waste materials of the embryo.

30.

Physiologically, metamorphosis in frogs is initiated by:

a)

Pluteus

b)

Zygote

c)

Hormones

d)

Gwapa si Nessy

31.

Which of the following statements is/are true about cleavage?

a)

Late cleavage would result to a ball of cells called morula.

b)

Blastula is characterized by the absence of blastocoel.

c)

Pattern of cleavage is not determined by the amount and distribution of yolk.

d)

Cleavage is a rapid rate of cell division that is accomplished by skipping the gap phases in the cell cycle.

32.

Dictyostelium is a model to study cellular differentiation, since only two alternative cell types are available—the spore and stalk. Choose which of the following statements is/are correct:

a)

Late cleavage would result to a ball of cells called morula.

b)

Signalling mechanism for spore and stalk differentiation is regulated by the levels of cAMP, which in turn affects the activity of protein kinase A (PKA).

c)

Pattern of cleavage is not determined by the amount and distribution of yolk.

d)

Cleavage is a rapid rate of cell division that is accomplished by skipping the gap phases in the cell cycle.

33.

Which of the following statements is correct? 2 answer

a)

Tunicates follow bilateral cleavage since they have small amount of yolk.

b)

Discoidal cleavage pattern among reptiles is attributed to their moderate amount of yolk.

c)

Fishes’ eggs are alecithal since it contains no yolk, and it follows discoidal cleavage pattern.

d)

Eggs of anurans are mesolecithal thus having an isolecithal type of cleavage.

34.

Volvocaceans are excellent models to observed the multicellularity—evolution of differentiation. Among the developmental principles is/are: 2 answer

a)

Ordered division of one cell to generate a number of cells that are organized in a predictable fashion.

b)

All choices contain incorrect statements.

c)

The independence of germ cells and somatic cells in late development.

d)

Differentiation of cell types within an individual organism.

35.

In the generalizable life cycle, which of the following stages is not commonly observed in all animals?

a)

Blastulation

b)

Gastrulation

c)

Cleavage

d)

Blastodisc

36.

All the materials necessary for the beginning of growth and development must be stored in the midpiece of the sperm.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Sex determination is generally determened sex chromosomes across the animal kingdom.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Chemoattraction of the sperm with the egg with soluble moecules allow species-specific recognition.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

The acrosome cap is necessary for enhanced motility of the sperm.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

The gamete contains all the materials needed to initiate and maintian metabolism and development.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

The egg develops a remarkably complex cytoplasm.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Oogenic meiosis conserves the volume of oocyte cytoplasm in a single cell rather than splitting it equally among the four progeny.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Meiotic arrest occurs at the prophase of meiosis, as a result of high levels of cyclic adenosine manophosphate (cAMP) and the absence of LH.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

The oocyte maturation inhibitor (OMI) inhibits the maturation promoting factor (MPF) during the meiotic arrest.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

After meiotic arrest, meiosis resumes with the surge of estrogen during puberty.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Germal vesicle breakdown (GVBD) occurs after the surge of LH and ovulation occurs.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The pituitary starts secreting increasing large amounts of FSH during the proliferative or follicular phase of the ovarian cycle in mammals.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

FSH induces the formation of LH receptors on the granulosa cells during the mammalian ovarian cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Estrogen maintains the proliferative phase in the endometrium of mammals.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The secretory phase in the endometrium is maintained by testosterone.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

The SOX9 gene encodes the testis-determining factor on the Y chromosome in humans.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

In mammals, the mullerian duct is destroyed by the AMH produced by the sertoli cells.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Testosterone produced by the Leydig cells enables the wolffian duct to become vas deferens and seminal vesicle.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

The Mullerian duct persists with the presence of the SRY gene.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

In the absence of the SRY, the bipotential gonad becomes a testis.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

In fish early development, this cell layer plays critical roles in embryonic patterning and morphogenesis and formed during tenth cleavages?

a)

Blastulation

b)

Gastrulation

c)

Cleavage

d)

Blastoderm

57.

Meroblastic cleavage occurs in which of the following animal?

I. Sea urchin

II. Insects

III. Mammals

IV. Birds

a)

IV only

b)

I only

c)

II only

d)

III only

58.

It envolves the movement of cells ino new relative positions in an embryo which establishes either the 2 germ layers (diploblastic) or 3 germ layers (triploblastic)?

a)

Blastulation

b)

Gastrulation

c)

Cleavage

d)

Blastoderm

59.

If you are interested in studying the cell fate of a particular region of an embryo, which of the following techniques would be appropriate for this experiment?

a)

Copy blastulation

b)

Gene transfer

c)

Stop cleavage

d)

Observe blastoderm

60.

Predict what would happen if a sea urchin egg has a mutation in its calcium oscillation during fertilization?

a)

Sperm-egg binding will not occur

b)

Sperm-egg binding will occur

61.

Identify which of the following were mismatched?

a)

Inner Cell Mass-Primitive Endoderm-Hypoblast

b)

Inner Cell Mass-Epiblast-Primitive Streak

c)

Inner Cell Mass-Primitive Endoderm-Visceral Endoderm

d)

Inner Cell Mass-Epiblast-Ectoderm

62.

Organize the following events of fertilization and early stages of development into their proper sequence

I. First mitotic division

II. Acrosomal reaction

III. Zygotic genome activation (ZGA)

IV. Capacitation and chemotaxis

V. Egg and sperm pronuclei fusion

a)

IV,II,V,I,III

b)

IV,III,V,I,II

c)

I,V,II,IV,III

d)

V,II,IV,I,III

63.

Evaluate which of the fallowing events is not observed during mammal fertilization.

a)

Meiosis resumption of the oocyte and activation of the zygote

b)

Fast block of polyspermy

c)

Sperm-egg binding and fusion of genetic material

d)

Gamete preparation

64.

Which of the following molecules is least related to the others

a)

Juno

b)

Resact

c)

Izumo

d)

ADAM

65.

The following are significant changes that occur during midblastula transition in the fish cleavage EXCEPT

a)

Zygotic gene transcription begins

b)

Absence of the cell motility

c)

Loss of synchrony in division

d)

Cell division lengthens

66.

Based on the picture, what would be the next embryonic stage?

a)

Gastrulation

b)

Marula formation

c)

Blastocyst formation

d)

Compaction

e)

Gwapa si Nessy

67.

The following is used by the mammalian sperm to locate the fertilization site EXCEPT

a)

Thermataxis

b)

Morphogen

c)

Chemotaxis

d)

Rheotaxis

68.

The following statements are true about animal fertilization EXEPT

a)

A series of complex cellular events

b)

Triggers a complex cellular program that transforms meiotic germ cells into a totipotent meiotic embryo

c)

A process where competent germ cells unite to create new organism

d)

The cell cycle machinery from reductional chromosome segregation is switch on

69.

Gwapa si Nessy

a)

True

b)

False

70.

It refers to a gene that is necessary for the establishment of a given lineage?

a)

Master regulator gene

b)

Gene expression

c)

Operator

d)

Transcriptional unit

71.

Observing a methylated DNA region in human chromosome3, you anticipate that the activity of that particular gene is?

a)

Turned off or silenced

b)

Gene expression

c)

Turned on or silenced

d)

Transcriptional unit

72.

The following are the recurring events in animal developmental stages EXCEPT?

a)

Cell division

b)

Cell differentiation

c)

Pattern formation

d)

Cleavage

73.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of a eukaryotic gene?

a)

Enhancer

b)

Operator

c)

Promoter

d)

Transcriptional unit

74.

Genomic equivalence is an important concept that refers to the?

a)

Cell division

b)

Cell differentiation

c)

Pattern formation

d)

Somatic cells of an individual have identical genomes

75.

Cell potency is greater than cell fate.

a)

Regulative development

b)

Syncytial specification

c)

Stochastic and instructive theories

d)

Mosiac development

76.

In this type of development, cells will form their given structure even if they are moved to the following: new location, they are exposed to cell-cell interactions and signals that differ from their original position?

a)

Regulative development

b)

Syncytial specification

c)

Stochastic and instructive theories

d)

Mosiac development

77.

The following are associated with cell differentiation EXCEPT

a)

Changes in nuclear architecture

b)

Morphogenesis

c)

Changes in gene expression

d)

Alterations of chromatin

78.

The product of the bicoid in Drosophila melanogaster is important for the establishment of?

a)

Protein formation

b)

Head-thorax formation

c)

Dorsal-ventral axis

d)

Left-right axis

79.

Spermatozoa

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

80.

Spermatozoa

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

81.

Spermatogonia

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

82.

Spermatogonia

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

83.

Spermatid

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

84.

Spermatid

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

85.

Leydig cell

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

86.

Leydig cell

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

87.

Mammary gland cell

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

88.

Mammary gland cell

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

89.

Red blood cell

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

90.

Red blood cell

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

91.

Primary spermatocyte

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

92.

Primary spermatocyte

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

93.

Sertoli cell

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

94.

Sertoli cell

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

95.

Polar body

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

96.

Polar body

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

97.

Oogonia

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

98.

Oogonia

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

99.

Blastomere

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

100.

Blastomere

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

101.

Gastrula

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

102.

Gastrula

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

103.

Blastula

a)

Meosis

b)

Mitosis

104.

Blastula

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

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