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NUR112 Exam 4 practice

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is caring for a client who has lung cancer and is exhibiting manifestations of syndrome of inappropriate anti diuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply)

a)

Behavioral Changes

b)

Client report of headache

c)

Urine output of 40ml/hr

d)

Client report of nausea

e)

Increased urine specific gravity

2.

A nurse is teaching a client about screening prevention for cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

"I will need to have a mammogram every 2 years beginning at age 45"

b)

" I should have a colonoscopy every 15 years beginning at age 60"

c)

"I will need to have an annual breast examination every year after age 40"

d)

"I should have a fecal occult test done every 3 years"

3.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has malnutrition due to cancer. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply

a)

Advise the client to keep a food diary

b)

Encourage client to brush teeth before and after meals

c)

Assess the laboratory report of ferritin

d)

Eat nutrient-dense foods last at meal time

e)

Encourage the client to limit drinking fluids during meals

4.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who had surgery to stage ovarian cancer. The nurse reviews the following diagnostic notation on the pathology report: T2-N3-Mx. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a supporting diagnosis?

a)

The tumor is moderate in size

b)

No lymph nodes contain cancer cells

c)

The tumor is receptive to current medication therapy

d)

The cancer has metastasized to other areas in the body

5.

Cancer is...

a)

Uncontrolled cell growth

b)

Normal cell growth

c)

A protein

d)

A cell cycle regulator

6.

A substance that is known to cause cancer is called a

a)

carcinogen

b)

retrovirus

c)

pathogen

d)

paramecium

7.

Which of these is a tumor that is noncancerous and does not spread?

a)

Malignant

b)

Benign

8.

What is Apoptosis?

a)

A tumor

b)

A protein

c)

Programmed cell death

d)

Cell cycle checkpoints

9.

What is cell differentiation?

a)

The process where unspecialized cells become different in structure and function.

b)

When DNA controls the cell cycle.

c)

The ability of cells to make more cells.

d)

The ability of cells to maintain homeostasis.

10.
In order for a tumor to be cancerous to must ...
a)
Be benign
b)
Be malignant and metastasize
c)
Be malignant and not metastasize
d)
Be benign and spread to parts of the body
11.
Which type of cancer treatment works best for when cancer has metastasized around the body?
a)
Chemotherapy
b)
Radiation Treatments
c)
Hormones Treatments
d)
Surgery
12.
An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a 
a)
tumor
b)
cyst
c)
lesion
d)
polyp
13.
A diagnostic procedure that involves removing a tissue sample from a patient.
a)
biopsy
b)
lipotripsy
c)
pathogenesis
d)
oncology
14.
Metastasis is
a)
the spread of cancer from one part of the body to another.
b)
the growth of tumors in the lungs
c)
cancer of the blood cells
d)
cancer that is found in connective tissues
15.
What cancer treatment involves stimulating the body's immune system to attack cancer cells?
a)
Immunotherapy
b)
Surgery
c)
Radiation Therapy
d)
Chemotherapy
16.
What is is called when a tumor proves to be NON cancerous?
a)
malignant
b)
benign
c)
oncogene
d)
byogene
17.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
18.
The cancer cells are still in the place where they started and have not spread at all.
a)
stage 0
b)
stage 1
c)
stage 2 and 3
d)
stage 4
19.
Neoplasms tend to have
a)
uncoordinated growth and are malignant
b)
uncoordinated growth and are benign
c)
uncoordinated growth and grow excessively
d)
Just grow out of control
20.

If someone in your family has had Cancer in the past you have what doctors call a:

a)

Predisposition

b)

Carcinogen

c)

Risk Factor

d)

Chemotherapy

21.
Which of the following would NOT be considered a carcinogen?
a)
healthy fruits & vegetables
b)
tobacco smoke
c)
X-rays
d)
UV rays
22.
What would be a way to decrease your risk of cancer? 
a)
Smoke cigarettes
b)
Use a tanning bed 
c)
Use sunscreen
d)
Get a bunch of x-rays for fun
23.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of a cancer cell?
a)
bigger nucleus 
b)
lack contact inhibition 
c)
always stay in the same place in the body & doesn't invade
d)
have unusual numbers of chromosomes 
24.
Which of the following is a way that your body defends itself against cancer?
a)
proto-oncogenes & tumor suppressor genes
b)
DNA repair system
c)
apoptosis 
d)
ALL OF THE ABOVE!
25.

What do the blue cells represent?

a)

Cancer cells

b)

Normal cells

c)

B cells

d)

Liver cells

26.

The incidence of cancer would be highest in which person?

a)

18-year-old African-American female

b)

3-year-old Asian male

c)

50 year old white female

d)

70-year-old white male

27.

A cancerous tumor's function closely resembles which part of the human body?

a)

blood vessel

b)

body system

c)

muscle

d)

organ

28.

The number of people alive at some point after they have been diagnosed with cancer refers to:

a)

mortality rate.

b)

survival rate.

c)

incidence rate.

d)

occurrence rate.

29.

The number of people diagnosed with cancer each year per 100,000 people refers to:

a)

mortality rate.

b)

survival rate.

c)

incidence rate.

d)

occurrence rate.

30.

When abnormal cells are only found in the tissue of origin, this refers to:

a)

dysplasia.

b)

hyperplasia.

c)

in situ.

d)

invasiveness.

31.

UV light, radium, and coal tar are examples of:

a)

carcinogens.

b)

inherited predispositions.

c)

modifiable environmental risk factors.

d)

chemotherapy treatments.

32.

Which treatment removes the tumor and nearby tissue during an operation?

a)

Surgery

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiation

d)

Immunotherapy

e)

Targeted therapy

33.

Which treatment uses drugs to stop the growth of cancer cells either by killing the cells or stopping them from dividing?

a)

Surgery

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiation

d)

Immunotherapy

e)

Targeted therapy

34.

Which treatment uses high-energy rays that can damage cancer cells and stop them from growing and dividing?

a)

Surgery

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiation

d)

Immunotherapy

e)

Targeted therapy

35.

Which treatment uses substances to stimulate or suppress the immune system to help the body fight cancer, infection and other diseases?

a)

Surgery

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiation

d)

Immunotherapy

e)

Targeted therapy

36.

Which treatment uses drugs or other substances to identify and attack specific types of cancer cells with less harm to normal cells?

a)

Surgery

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiation

d)

Immunotherapy

e)

Targeted therapy

37.

This treatment not only kills fast-growing cancer cells but also healthy cells that grow and divide quickly. So cells in your mouth and intestines and those that cause your hair to grow. This leads to mouth sores, nausea and hair loss.

a)

Surgery

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiation

d)

Immunotherapy

e)

Targeted therapy

38.

This treatment may shrink tumors to treat pain and other problems caused by the tumor, such as trouble breathing or loss of bowel and bladder control

a)

Surgery

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiation

d)

Immunotherapy

e)

Targeted therapy

39.

Which treatment(s) have possible side effects of pain, hair loss, diarrhea, nausea, fatigue? (3 answers)

a)

Surgery

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiation

d)

Immunotherapy

e)

Targeted therapy

40.

Which one is the most commonly used staging systems?

a)

TNM System

b)

MNT System

c)

NTM Sytem

d)

MTN System

41.

Which of these can cause cancer?

a)

viruses

b)

lack of sleep

c)

lack of exercise

d)

high-sugar diet

42.

Brachytherapy is this type of treatment

a)

Radiation

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Surgery

d)

Palliative

43.

Remission is

a)

When cancer goes away completely

b)

When cancer is gone for a time, but comes back

c)

When cancer stops spreading

d)

When cancer is at its worse

44.
What is unique about leukemia?
a)
It affects the blood
b)
It causes arthritis
c)
It does not affect children at all
d)
It not caused by mutations
45.
This image shows the epidermis of a human. The blood cells are growing out of control. These are _______ cells.
a)
cancerous
b)
blood cells
c)
in the middle of apoptosis
d)
stem
46.
Someone who has cancer goes through several rounds of chemotherapy. Which of the following cells would not be as seriously effected by the drugs?
a)
Hair cells
b)
Stomach lining cells
c)
Cancerous cells
d)
Spinal nerve cells
47.
Why does chemotherapy cause hair loss?
a)
Hair is fast replicating, so chemotherapy targets it
b)
Hair is a kind of blood cell, so chemotherapy targets it
c)
Hair is a kind of stem cell, so chemotherapy targets it
d)
Hair is a porous cell, so chemotherapy targets it
48.
Which of the following is not a major kind of treatment for cancer?
a)
Chemotherapy
b)
Surgery
c)
Radiation
d)
Essential oils
49.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with a malignant brain tumor. Which of the following statements made by the nurse indicates an understanding of the pathophysiology of a malignant tumor?

a)

Malignant tumors retain morphologic and functional consequences

b)

Malignant tumors arise from normal differentiated cells

c)

Malignant tumors have poor differentiation and longer than normal cell lifespan

d)

Malignant tumors always obstruct or press on other body structures

50.

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized to receive chemotherapy. The client is immunocompromised and is in protective isolation. An LPN has been assigned to care for the client today. Which of these nursing actions by the LPN indicates a need for immediate intervention by the charge nurse (RN)?

a)

The LPN delivers a fruit tray including apples, pears, and bananas to the client.

b)

The LPN refuses to take in a moist potted plant to the client.

c)

The LPN notifies the health care provider that the client’s temperature is 100.8 F.

d)

The LPN requires the UAP (Unlicensed Assistive Personnel) to practice effective hand hygiene when providing care to the client.

51.

The nurse is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia and has developed thrombocytopenia from the chemotherapy. What is the priority of care for this client?

a)

Encourage ambulation and oxygen supplement.

b)

Assess temperature every 4 hours per protocol.

c)

Encourage periodic rest periods while pacing activity during the da

d)

Question a medication order for an intramuscular injection.

52.

The nurse is caring for a client who has recently started external radiation for cancer. Which of these documentations indicate an early side effect after starting external radiation?

a)

Gradual wt gain

b)

constipation

c)

insomnia

d)

skin erythema

53.

The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone myelosuppressive chemotherapy and is now receiving the medication Procrit (Erythropoietin). Which of these statements indicate that the nurse understands how to appropriately administer erythropoietin?

a)

I will administer this medication daily as ordered.

b)

I will administer his medication IM

c)

I will evaluate frequent WBC counts to determine effectiveness

d)

I will monitor the hematocrit frequently for dosage adjustments.

54.

A client who has received chemotherapy has a steadily decreasing white blood cell count. The oncologist has mentioned that s colony-stimulating factor will be started soon for treatment. The nurse understands which of the following drugs will be ordered?

a)

Oprelvekin (Neumega)

b)

Pregabalin (Lyrica)

c)

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

d)

Filgrastim (Neupogen)

55.

The nurse is caring for a client who is in the process of receiving IV chemotherapy. Which of these clients would be seen immediately after shift report?

a)

A client complaining of discomfort at the IV insertion site of the chemotherapy transfusion.

b)

A client complaining of a feeling of fatigue following chemotherapy.

c)

A client complaining of nausea and vomiging following chemotherapy.

d)

A client with a temperature of 99.0 F

56.

The nurse is caring for a client undergoing radiation therapy for lung cancer. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to implement intervention for oral mucositis?

a)

Gingivitis, plaque, halitosis

b)

Oral erythema, pain, dysgeusia

c)

Candidiasis, inflammation, cheilitis

d)

Oral ulceration, caries, leukoplakia

57.

Which type of patient would expect to see with a Barrel Chest ?

a)

CHF

b)

Emphysema

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Pneumonia

58.

A patient with asthma is scheduled to start taking a glucocorticoid medication with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). The nurse should give the patient which instruction about correct use of the inhaler?

a)

“After you inhale the medication once, repeat until you obtain symptomatic relief.”

b)

“Wait no longer than 30 seconds after the first puff before taking the second one.”

c)

“Use a spacer with the inhaler and rinse your mouth after each dose administration.

d)

“Breathe in through the nose and hold for 2 seconds just before activating the inhaler.”

59.

A patient is taking oral theophylline for maintenance therapy of stable asthma. A nurse instructs the patient to avoid using which substance to prevent a complication?

a)

Echinacea

b)

Cimetidine [Tagamet]

c)

Sunscreen products

d)

Caffeine

60.

A history of allergy to which substance is a contraindication to the use of ipratropium/albuterol [Combivent]?

a)

Mold

b)

Peanuts

c)

Penicillin

d)

Dairy products

61.

A nurse is caring for a patient with an asthma exacerbation. For which of the following reasons should the nurse carefully inspect the chest wall of the client?

a)

Monitor chest expansion

b)

Observe for intercostal muscle use

c)

Observe for signs of diaphoresis

d)

Monitor for hyperventilation

62.

A nurse determines the interventions to promote airway clearance in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are successful based on which of the following findings?

a)

Improved mental status

b)

Effective productive cough

c)

ABG's within normal range

d)

Absence of dyspnea

63.

What term best describes what goes on inside the alveoli?

a)

Exchange of gases

b)

Inhalation of oxygen

c)

Circulation of blood

d)

Exhalation of carbon dioxide

64.

Alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing, apnea lasting up to 15 -60 seconds. Followed by ventilation decreases again to apnea.

a)

Normal Breathing

b)

Apenic

c)

Cheyne-Stokes

d)

Kussmaul

65.

True of False: In COPD airway obstruction is worse with expiration

a)

True

b)

False

66.

___________ is defined as episodic attacks of bronchospasm, bronchial inflammation, mucosal edema, and increased mucous production.

a)

Asthma

b)

Emphysema

c)

COPD

d)

Chronic Bronchitis

67.

When does Hypoxemia occur in asthma?

a)

Early onset

b)

After failure of inhalers

c)

Late response

68.

What two obstructive disorders make up the disease COPD?

a)

Asthma and Emphysema

b)

Asthma and Chronic bronchitis

c)

Chronic bronchitis and emphysema

d)

Chronic bronchitis and the common cold.

69.

Which of the following signs and symptoms is characteristic of early-stage COPD

a)

Nightime cough

b)

Fatigue

c)

Ankle Swelling

d)

Chronic cough

70.
Which immune cells are most commonly involved in asthma exacerbation?
a)
Mast cells and eosinophils
b)
Macrophages and neutrophils
c)
T and B lymphocytes
d)
Basophils and monocytes
71.
Which best describes the difference between asthma and COPD?
a)
COPD patients don't have exacerbations
b)
Viruses don't trigger asthmatic exacerbations
c)
In asthma, bronchoconstriction is reversible
d)
Asthma doesn't occur in smokers
72.
The process by which oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between cells, the blood, and air in the lungs is called
a)
emphysema
b)
cellular respiration
c)
systemic circulation
d)
respiration
73.
The air sacs that are covered with capillaries where gas exchange takes place
a)
bronchi
b)
lungs
c)
oxygen
d)
alveoli
74.

What type of respiration requires oxygen?

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

75.

When you breathe, your lungs take in ______ and remove _______.

a)

air; oxygen

b)

oxygen; carbon dioxide

c)

carbon dioxide; waste

d)

waste; air

76.

The job of the red blood cell is to

a)

fight infection

b)

deliver oxygen and discard carbon dioxide

c)

form a clot with platelets

d)

deliver nutrients absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract

77.

If you have a collapsed lung cause by an injury and air entering the chest, this is known as?

a)

Haemothorax

b)

Pyothorax

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Bronchitis

78.

Asthma is a condition where

a)

the airways narrow (constrict)

b)

the airways are blocked with mucus

c)

the diaphragm fails to work

d)

all of these

79.

The normal oxygen content of inhaled air is approximately

a)

0.04%

b)

21%

c)

79%

d)

100%

80.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by a chronic disorder of the airways that results in intermittent and reversible airflow obstruction of the bronchioles and can occur at any age?

a)

Asthma

b)

COPD

c)

Pulmonary Embolism

d)

Emphysema

81.

Which of the following diagnostic tests is the most accurate for diagnosing asthma?

a)

Chest xray

b)

PFT- Pulmonary Function Test

c)

Sputum Culture

d)

Chest Phyisoterapy

82.

Which of the following is the purpose of positive expiratory pressure devices?

a)

Assists clients to remove airway secretions

b)

monitors optimal lung expansion

c)

decreases airway inflammation

d)

provides rapid relief

83.

Which of the following is the purpose of incentive spirometry

a)

it is used to monitor optimal lung expansion

b)

It is used to help thin mucous secretions

c)

it is used to assist the client in removing airway secretions

d)

It decreases airway inflammation

84.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has COPD and a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

This medication can increase my blood sugar levels

b)

This medication can decrease my immune response

c)

I can have an increase in my heart rate while taking this medication

d)

I can have mouth sores while taking this medication

85.

A nurse is preparing to administer an initial dose of prednisone to a client who has COPD. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply)

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Fluid Retention

d)

Nausea

e)

Black Tarry stools

86.

A nurse is discharging a client who has COPD. The client is concerned about not being able to leave the house due to the need for staying on continuous oxygen. Which of the follow responses should the nurse make?

a)

There are portable oxygen delivery systems that you can take with you

b)

When you go out, you can remove the oxygen then reapply it when you get home

c)

You probably will not be able to go out as much as you used to

d)

Home health services will come to you so you will not need to get out

87.

A nurse is instructing a client on the use of an incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

I will place the adapter on my finger to read my blood oxygen saturation level

b)

I will lie on my back with my knees bent

c)

I will rest my hand over my abdomen to create resistance

d)

I will take in a deep breath and hold it before exhaling

88.

A nurse is planning to instruct a client on how to perform pursed-lip breathing. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

a)

Take quick breaths upon inhalation

b)

Place your hand over your stomach

c)

Take a deep breath in through your nose

d)

Puff your cheeks upon exhalation

89.

A nurse in the ER is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments indicates that the respiratory status is declining? (select all that apply)

a)

SaO2 95%

b)

Wheezing

c)

Retraction of sternal muscles

d)

Pink mucous membranes

e)

Tachycardia

90.

A nurse is caring for a client 2 hours after admission. The client has a SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medications should the nurse expect to administer?

a)

Antibiotic

b)

Beta-Blocker

c)

Antiviral

d)

Beta2 Antagonist

91.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for prednisone for asthma. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

I will decrease my fluid intake while taking this medicaiton

b)

I will expect to have black tarry stools

c)

I will take my medication with meals

d)

I will monitor for weight loss while on this medicaiton

92.

A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of asthma. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a risk for asthma?

a)

Gender

b)

Environmental allergies

c)

Alcohol use

d)

history of diabetes

93.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client on the purpose of taking a bronchodilator. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

This medication can decrease my immune response

b)

I take this medication to prevent asthma attacks

c)

I need to take this medication with food

d)

This medication has a slow onset to treat my symptoms

94.

Which of the following are corticosteroids used to decrease airway inflammation in asthma? Select all that apply

a)

Fluticasone

b)

Prednisone

c)

Montelukast

d)

Cromolyn

95.

Which of the following medications for asthma can cause dry mouth?

a)

Salmeterol

b)

Fluticasone

c)

Ipratropium

d)

Theophylline

96.

Which of the following positions for the client maximizes ventilation and lung expansion?

a)

High Fowlers

b)

Low Fowlers

c)

Prone

d)

Dorsal Recumbant

97.

Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see during an acute exacerbation of COPD? (Select all that apply)

a)

Respirations of 40

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Use of accessory muscles

d)

Barrell Chest

e)

Clubbed fingers

98.

Which of the following abnormal labs would you see in a client with low oxygen levels?

a)

Increased hematocrit

b)

Decreased hematocrit

c)

High WBC

d)

High ferritin level

99.

Which of the following are complications of COPD? Select all that apply

a)

Respiratory Infection

b)

Right-Sided Heart Failure

c)

Exacerbation

d)

Secondary Spontaneous Pneumothorax

100.

Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to see the doctor implement FIRST in a COPD patient with a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax?

a)

Chest Tube insertion

b)

Increase supplemental O2 delivery rate

c)

Order for diuretic

d)

Order for bronchiodilator

101.

Which patient should the nurse expect intubation and mechanical ventilation?

a)

A patient with a diagnosis of COPD

b)

A patient with a diagnosis of Acute Asthma attack

c)

A patient with a diagnosis of Severe Acute Respiratory Distress syndrome

d)

A patient with Tuburculosis

102.

Which of the following are manifestations of respiratory distress? (Select all that apply)

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Cyanosis

e)

use of accessory muscles

103.

Which of the follow is characterized by air accumulating in the subcutaneous tissue?

a)

Hemothroax

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Subcutatneous emphysema

d)

tension pneumothroax

104.

Which of the follow occurs when at least two neighboring ribs, usually on one side of the chest, sustain multiple fractures causing inability of the chest wall and paradoxical chest wall movement Resulting in limitation in chest wall movement?

a)

Hemothorax

b)

Flail Chest

c)

Barrell Chest

d)

Pneumothorax

105.

Which of the following is the presence of air or gas in the pleural space that causes lung collapse?

a)

Hemothorax

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Subcutaneous Emphysema

d)

Flail chest

106.

Which of the following diagnostic procedures can be used to confirm a hemothorax? (select all that apply)

a)

Throacentsesis

b)

Chest Xray

c)

Pulmonary Function Test

d)

Chest Tube insertion

107.

Which of the following complications is treated with chest tube insertion? Select all that apply

a)

Hemothorax

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Flail Chest

d)

Tension pneumothorax

108.

A nurse is assisting the provider care for a client who has developed a spontaneous pneumothorax. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

a)

Assess the client's pain

b)

Obtain a large-bore IV needle for decompression

c)

Administer lorazepam

d)

Prepare for chest tube insertion

109.

A nurse is reviewng discharge instructions for a client who has COPD and experienced a pneumothorax. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

a)

Notify your provider if you experience weakness

b)

You should be able to return to work in 1 week

c)

You need to wear a mask when in a crowded area

d)

Notify your provider if you experience a productive cough

110.

A nurse in the ER is assessing a client who has sustained multiple rib fractures and has a flail chest. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply)

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Hypotention

d)

Dyspnea

e)

Paradoxical chest movement

111.

Which of the following are bronchiodilators? Select all that apply

a)

Short-acting beta2 agonsists (albuterol)

b)

Anticholinergic medications

(ipratropium)

c)

Methylxanthines

(theophylline)

d)

Long-acting beta2 agonists

(salmeterol)

112.

Which of the following are anti-inflammatory agents used in the treatment of asthma?

a)

Corticosteroids

(fluticasone/prednisone)

b)

Leukotriene antagonists

(montelukast)

c)

Mast cell stabilizers

(cromolyn)

d)

Monoclonal antibodies

(ozmalizumab)

113.

Which of the following is the primary treatment for exercise-induced asthma?

a)

Short acting beta2 agonists

(albuterol)

b)

Corticosteroids

(prednisone)

c)

Long acting beta2 agonists

(salmeterol)

d)

methylxanthines

(theophylline)

114.

Which of the following are mucolytic agents used in COPD to help thin secretions, making them easier for the client to expel?

a)

Guaifenesin

(mucinex)

b)

Acetylcysteine and dornase alfa nebulizer treatments

c)

Guaifenesin and dextromethorphan