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BIO SPRING FINAL REVIEW DAY 2 2022/23

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 3hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
If a strand reads:
3' A A A T T T C 5'
The matching strand would read...
a)
5' T T T A A A G 3'
b)
3' T T T A A A G 5'
c)
5' A A A T T T C 3'
d)
3' U U U A A A G 5'
2.
This picture is illustrating the ____ nature of DNA.
a)
anti-parallel
b)
deoxyribosic
c)
helical
d)
radioactive
3.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
4.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
Replication
c)
Translocation
d)
Transcription
5.
One difference between DNA and RNA is that....
a)
Only RNA has the base Uracil
b)
only RNA contains the base Thymine
c)
only RNA contains the base Cytocine
d)
only RNA contained the base Guanine
6.
what does mRNA do?
a)
carry info from genes to ribosomes
b)
carry amino acids to ribosomes
c)
help with RNA splicing
d)
make up ribosomes
7.
True or false:  RNA is double-stranded.
a)
true
b)
false
c)
it depends on the type
8.
Which of these bases does not exist in RNA?
a)
C
b)
T
c)
U
d)
A
9.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
ribosome
c)
cytoplasm
d)
smooth ER
10.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
11.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
12.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
13.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

14.

When the mRNA sequence leave the nucleus, what organelle does it travel to?

a)

mitochondria

b)

smooth ER

c)

ribosome

d)

vacuole

15.

What best explains the interaction between tRNA and mRNA during translation?

a)

anticodons on the mRNA line up with complementary codons on the tRNA

b)

anticodons on the tRNA line up with complementary codons on the mRNA

c)

tRNA attach amino acids to the complementary mRNA sequence

d)

mRNA attach amino acids to the complementary tRNA sequence

16.

What does tRNA "transfer"?

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

AUG

17.

What do amino acids come together to join?

a)

a growing polypeptide chain (protein)

b)

a growing lipid

c)

a growing carbohydrate

d)

a growing nucleic acid

18.

codons are located on __________

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

19.

anti-codons are located on __________

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

20.

A mRNA sequence consist of 171 nucleotides. How many amino acids make up the protein this sequence will code for?

a)

57

b)

56

c)

58

d)

513

21.

What sequence of mRNA always begins a new polypeptide chain?

a)

UAG

b)

AUG

c)

GAU

d)

UGA

22.

The following codon is translated into which amino acid?


AUG

a)

Methionine

b)

Isoleucine

c)

Histidine

d)

Arginine

23.

The following codon is translated into which amino acid?


AUU

a)

Methionine

b)

Isoleucine

c)

Histidine

d)

Arginine

24.

The following codon is translated into which amino acid?


AGG

a)

Methionine

b)

Isoleucine

c)

Histidine

d)

Arginine

25.

The following codon is translated into which amino acid?


UAA

a)

STOP

b)

Phenylalanine

c)

Valine

d)

Aspartic acid

26.
What is letter C in the picture?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
nucleus
27.

What is the correct sequence of protein synthesis?

A. tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome

B. DNA molecules serve as the templates for mRNA.

C. mRNA molecules move to ribosomes.

D. Polypeptides are formed on ribosomes.

a)

A-B-C-D

b)

B-C-A-D

c)

C-B-A-D

d)

D-B-A-C

28.

Overall, protein synthesis consists of these steps

a)

DNA synthesis, RNA synthesis and transcription

b)

transcription and translation

c)

DNA synthesis, transcription and translation

29.
tRNA molecules move through the ribosome in the order:
a)
A-P-E
b)
E-P-A
c)
E-A-P
d)
P-E-A
30.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

31.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

32.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
33.

ATT-TGA-GCC- Original

ATT-GAG-CC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

34.

DNA molecule segment is : TTA-CGC-AAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTC-GCA-AG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

35.

Original DNA: CAT GAT CCA

New DNA: CAT TGA TCC A

What mutation occurred?

a)

deletion

b)

substitution

c)

tranverse

d)

insertion

36.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
silent
d)
transverse
37.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
38.

What type of gene mutation has occurred here? Normal-

AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG

Mutant-

AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G

a)

deletion frameshift

b)

insertion frameshift

c)

substitution

d)

nonsense

39.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Maybe?
40.

Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

41.
A segment of DNA produces methionine, threonine, histidine, aspartate, and glycine when translated. A substitution mutation occurs and causes the sythesis of the segment shown. Which is the new peptide chain when the new DNA segment is translated?
a)
methionine, leucine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
b)
methionine, phenylalanine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
c)
Methionine, proline, histidine, aspartate, glycine
d)
methionine, serine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
42.
Which mutation will cause translation to stop? 
a)
Mutations 1 and 3 only
b)
Mutation 1 only
c)
Mutation 2 only
d)
Muations 1, 2, 3
43.

Which of the following is true regarding substitution mutations ...

a)

a missense mutation. This could affect the 3D structure of the protein. 

b)

a silent mutation. The mutation causes no effect as the first mRNA codon still codes for the same amino acid even though the base has been substituted.

c)

a nonsense mutation. The mutation causes the second mRNA codon to become a stop codon, which means it stops synthesis of the amino acid chain prematurely. This will likely result in a non-functional protein.

d)

frameshift mutation. This causes all of the amino acids shown to change. This will cause a non-functional protein. 

44.

Match the following

a)

have no effect on the amino acids produced during protein synthesis.

1.

silent mutation

b)

causes a stop codon instead of a normal amino acid codon. This causes translation to be terminated prematurely, causing a shorter protein. 

2.

nonsense mutation

c)

causes a codon to code for a different amino acid than the original one.

3.

missence mutation

d)

causes the “reading frame” of the codons to shift forwards or backwards. This can change the entire sequence of amino acids.

4.

frameshift mutation

e)

causes a change to one base and potentially one amino acid of the polypeptide chain

5.

point mutation

45.

Label each of the following chromosomal mutations

46.

Identify which of the following are true and which are false

47.

Label the following steps of Mitosis

48.

Identify the stages of Meiosis I

49.

Identify the stages of Meiosis II

50.

What is the purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Growth of an organism and Repair of damaged tissue

b)

To help the body get rid of extra cells

c)

To increase the amount of classwork you have to do

d)

To get rid of the nucleus

51.
What do the cells look like at the end of mitosis?
a)
different from original cell
b)
similar to the original cell
c)
identical to the original cell
d)
none of these
52.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
53.

At the end of Mitosis, how many cells are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

54.
The end of meiosis results in  ____ to each other.
a)
2 cells that are identical
b)
4 cells that are identical
c)
2 cells that are not identical
d)
4 cells that are not identical
55.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
56.
This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?
a)

segregation of sister chromatids

b)

condensation and segregation of alleles

c)

mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered

d)

crossing - over in which genes are exchanged

57.

A pair of homologous chromosomes (a tetrad) is composed of ​ ​ (a)   matching chromosomes, and ​ (b)   sister chromatids.

Choose from the below words
two
four
one
three
58.

During meiosis, if an organism has 10 chromosomes, how many will the new daughter cells have?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

5

d)

2

59.

During mitosis, if an organism has 10 chromosomes, how many will the new daughter cells have?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

5

d)

2

60.

In mitosis the ​ (a)   daughter cells that are created are ​ (b)   . In meiosis the ​ (c)   daughter cells that are created are ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
two
diploid
four
haploid
61.

What is the primary cause of genetic variation during meiosis?

a)

chromosomes lining up

b)

"crossing over" of chromosomes

c)

separation of chromosomes

d)

chromosomes pulling apart

62.

The failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate "normally" during meiosis is called _____________________.

a)

nondisjunction

b)

anaphase I

c)

nondiploidy

d)

karyotype

63.

Table 1 shows the stage and number of cells and chromosomes per cell at the end of the stage in a  2n=24  organism. Which of the following statements correctly describes the chromosomes in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis  I ?

a)

Each daughter cell contains 12 chromatids. Each chromatid is one of two from a single chromosome with the other one of the pair found in the other daughter cell.

b)

Each daughter cell contains 12 chromosomes, each composed of two chromatids. Since the chromosomes were randomly divided, one daughter cell may contain both of a pair of homologous chromosomes, while the other cell contains both of another pair of homologous chromosomes.

c)

Each daughter cell contains 12 chromosomes, each composed of two chromatids. Each chromosome is one of a pair of homologous chromosomes from the parent cell, with the other homologue found in the other daughter cell.

d)

Each daughter cell contains 24 separate chromatids. Since every two chromatids were originally joined, forming one homologous chromosome, the number of chromatids is divided by two to determine the number of chromosomes.

64.

Both mitosis and meiosis begin with a parent cell that is diploid. Which of the following best describes how mitosis and meiosis result in daughter cells with different numbers of chromosomes?

a)

In mitosis, the chromosomes consist of a single chromatid, which is passed to two haploid daughter cells. In meiosis, the chromosomes consist of two chromatids during the first round of division and one chromatid during the second round of division, resulting in two haploid daughter cells.

b)

In mitosis, synapsis of homologous chromosomes results in four haploid daughter cells after one division. In meiosis, synapsis of homologous chromosomes occurs during the second division and results in four diploid daughter cells.

c)

Mitosis produces one identical daughter cell after one round of division. Meiosis has two rounds of division and doubles the number of chromosomes in the second round of division, producing four diploid cells.

d)

Mitosis produces two identical diploid daughter cells after one round of division. Meiosis produces four haploid daughter cells after two rounds of division.

65.

What is genetic recombination?

a)

The combination of genes produced by crossing over and independent assortment.

b)

When genes located close to each other on the same chromosome tend to travel together during meiosis.

c)

A map that shows the sequence of genes on a chromosome.

d)

The occurrence of one or more extra sets of chromosomes.

66.

Why is genetic recombination a good thing?

a)

Gives us new genes

b)

is lethal in humans

c)

increases genetic variation

d)

separates during crossing over

67.

What is polyploidy?

a)

The combination of genes produced by crossing over and independent assortment.

b)

When genes located close to each other on the same chromosome tend to travel together during meiosis.

c)

A map that shows the sequence of genes on a chromosome.

d)

The occurrence of one or more extra sets of chromosomes.

68.

Phenotype refers to the (a)   of an individual.

Choose from the below words
genetic makeup
actual physical appearance
recessive alleles
69.

Which of the following genotypes is homozygous recessive? (a)  

Choose from the below words
Tt
tt
TT
T
70.

What does heterozygous mean?

a)

An organism that has the same alleles for a trait (TT or tt)

b)

An organism that has different alleles for a trait (Tt)

c)

When neither allele is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both

d)

the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red

71.

Law which states that different traits are inherited independently of each other (a)  

Choose from the below words
Law of independent assortment
Genetics law
72.

Law states that 1 allele is more dominant than the other. Recessive allele is only expressed when dominant is not present (a)  

Choose from the below words
Law of dominance
Law of inheritance
73.

If your genotype is Bb, then you can only pass a B or b to your child but you can't pass both. (a)  

Choose from the below words
Law of Dominance
Law of Segregation
Law of Independent Assortment
74.

What allele combination should go in the missing box? (a)  

Choose from the below words
AA
Aa
aa
none of these
75.

What is the probability of heterozygous offspring? (a)  

Choose from the below words
25%
50%
0%
100%
76.

B = brown fur b = white furIn the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? (a)  

Choose from the below words
0%
25%
50%
75%
77.

T - tall and t = shortIn the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square (a)  

Choose from the below words
tt
Tt
Bb
TT
78.

This is an example of (a)   ?

79.

What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together?  (a)  

Choose from the below words
Incomplete Dominance
Co-Dominance
80.

When one allele is not dominant over the other, resulting in both traits expressed in a heterozygous individual (a)  

Choose from the below words
Incomplete Dominance
Codominance
81.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB). What would the offspring look like if you crossed a red flower and a speckled flower (a)  

Choose from the below words
2 red, 2 speckled
2 red, 2 blue
2 blue, 2 speckled
82.

In mice coat color is incompletely dominant. Black and white are homozygous. Brown mice are heterozygous. What would the heterozygous offspring look like genotypically (a)  

Choose from the below words
Bb
BB
bb
83.

In cattle red coats are represented as RR, and white coats are represented as WW. What would the genotypes be of offspring of a white coated cow and a brown coated cow. (a)  

Choose from the below words
RW
RR
WW
84.

this image is an example of (a)  

Choose from the below words
codominance
dominance
incomplete dominance
85.

this image is an example of (a)  

Choose from the below words
codominance
dominance
incomplete dominance
86.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this? (a)  

Choose from the below words
Incomplete Dominance
Co dominance
Independent assortment
Recessive inheritance
87.
How many alleles does an individual have for each trait?
88.

The different forms of a gene are called (a)  

Choose from the below words
traits
pollinators
alleles
hybrids
89.

This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring (a)  

Choose from the below words
complete dominance
incomplete dominance
co-dominance
dominant pattern
90.

This is an example of (a)   .

91.

A woman with curly hair and a man with straight hair produced a child with wavy hair: (a)  

Choose from the below words
Incomplete dominance
Codominance
Complete dominance
92.

X and Y are ​​ (a)   chromosomes. Females are ​ (b)   and males are ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
SEX
XX
XY
Autosomes
46
23
93.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex-linked trait.  Red (R) is dominant to white (r).

Which genotype shows a female fly with white eyes?

a)

XRXrX^{R^{ }}X^r

b)

X r X rX^{\ r\ }X\ ^r

c)

X r Y X^{\ r\ }Y\ ^{ }

d)

 X R Y\ X^{\ R\ }Y

94.

Which genotype shows a male with white eyes?

R = Red, r= white

a)

X r X rX^{\ r\ }X\ ^r

b)

X R X rX^{\ R\ }X\ ^r

c)

X r Y X^{\ r\ }Y\ ^{ }

d)

X R Y X^{\ R\ }Y\ ^{ }

95.

Match the following. H= no hemophilia, h = hemophilia

a)

Male without hemophilia

1.

XHY

b)

Female with hemophilia

2.

XhXh

c)

Female Carrier

3.

XH Xh

d)

Male with hemophilia

4.

XhY

e)

Female who is NOT a carrier

5.

XHXH

96.

Which of the following genotypes belongs in the red box in the Punnett square? (a)  

Choose from the below words
XBXb
XbXb
XbY
XBY
97.

The following punnett square depicts the x-linked cross of a female who carries hemophilia with a man showing no symptoms. Fill in the genootype represented by the blank box in the punnett square. (a)  

Choose from the below words
XH XH
Xh XH
XH Y
Xh Y
98.

Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder. Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia? (a)  

Choose from the below words
XHXh
XhXh
XHXH
XhY
99.

What is the likelihood of this cross have a child that is colorblind? (a)  

Choose from the below words
100%
75%
50%
25%
100.

What is the chance that a daughter will be colorblind? (a)  

Choose from the below words
100%
50%
25%
0%
101.

What chance will a boy will be colorblind? (a)  

Choose from the below words
100%
50%
25%
0%
102.

Who is more likely to have an X-linked trait? (a)  

Choose from the below words
Males
Females
Both males and females
103.

​ (a)   are more likely to have an x-linked trait because males have only ​ (b)   X chromosome. Females can be ​ (c)   of an X-linked trait because they can be ​ (d)   for the trait since they have ​ (e)   X's.

Choose from the below words
Males
one
carriers
heterozygous
two
homozygous
Females
Dominant
Recessive
104.

What are the 4 possible phenotypes for human blood type?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type BB

d)

Type AB

e)

Type O

105.

If a person has type B blood, the phenotype is B. What can the genotype be? (a)  

Choose from the below words
IBIB or I
IAIA or I
IAIB
ii
106.

If a person has type A blood, the phenotype is A. What can the genotype be? (a)  

Choose from the below words
IBIB or I
IAIA or I
IAIB
ii
107.

If a person has type AB blood, the phenotype is AB. What can the genotype be? (a)  

Choose from the below words
IBIB or I
IAIA or I
IAIB
ii
108.

If a person has type O blood, the phenotype is O. What can the genotype be? (a)  

Choose from the below words
IBIB or I
IAIA or I
IAIB
ii
109.

if the father is type A and the mother is type B, in order for baby Sylvester to have the genotype ii, his parents must be? (a)  

Choose from the below words
heterozygous
homozygous
110.

There are multiple alleles for the ABO blood group. Why are only two of these alleles present in any one individual?

a)

Each parent contributes only one allele for the ABO blood group to the offspring.

b)

There are not enough nucleotides in a red blood cell to produce a third allele.

c)

Each allele in the ABO group must be dominant or recessive

d)

Blood group alleles are not segregated during meiosis.

111.

What is NOT a possible genotype for someone with type B blood? (a)  

Choose from the below words
BB
AB
BO
112.

What is the genotype of a person with type A blood, who had a father with type O blood? (a)  

Choose from the below words
AB
AO
AA
OO
113.

The physical appearance of an organisms is its (a)  

Choose from the below words
Genotype
Phenotype
characteristic
Heterozygous
114.

The different forms of a gene are called (a)  

Choose from the below words
traits
pollinators
alleles
hybrids
115.

For the square that has OO in the bottom right. What would be the missing allele on the top? (A (a)   )

116.

If two parents have type AB blood, what is the probability that their child will have type O blood? (a)  

Choose from the below words
0%
25%
50%
100%
117.

If a father is AA and a mother is AB, what is the probability for a child with AB blood?  (a)  

Choose from the below words
0%
25%
50%
75%