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Natural Science Semester 2 Final Review

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mercury is difficult to observe from Earth due to the following EXCEPT...

a)

Too Small

b)

It absorbs all visible light and therefore appears black.

c)

it's moving sooooo fast

d)

because of its close proximity to the Sun

2.

Mercury's surface most closely resembles the surface of what solar body?

a)

Earth's Moon

b)

Mars

c)

Venus

d)

Io

3.

Why do Mercury and Earth's Moon share similar surface features?

a)

the moon is a piece of Mercury that broke off during the Giant Impact

b)

The moon reflects Mercury's image

c)

Neither have an atmosphere to protect from meteorite impact

d)

They do not share similar features

4.

Which two planets do NOT have a magnetic field?

a)

Venus and Mars

b)

Mercury and Mars

c)

Venus and Mercury

d)

Earth and Jupiter

5.

The great astronomer, Gott Sundrum, discovers a new planet orbiting between Mercury and Venus. This planet would be classified as

a)

a gas giant

b)

terrestrial

c)

superior

d)

Jovian

6.

Why do Neptune and Uranus appear blue in color?

a)

They are covered in vast oceans of liquid water

b)

Methane in their atmosphere reflects blue light

c)

C02 in their atmosphere absorbs blue light

7.

Which of the following is not true about light?

a)

Light has a finite speed

b)

Difference colors or wavelengths of light travel at different speeds

c)

Light changes speed when moving from one medium to another

d)

Due to lights finite speed, we cannot control distant spacecraft in real time

8.

Which does NOT burn up in a plant's atmosphere and strikes the surface?

a)

Comet

b)

Asteroid

c)

Meteor

d)

Meteorite

9.

Which of the following burns up completely when entering a planet's atmosphere?

a)

Comet

b)

Asteroid

c)

Meteor

d)

Meteorite

10.

Which planet has the most moons?

a)

Saturn

b)

Earth

c)

Jupiter

d)

Mars

11.

As of 2005, Pluto is now categorized as a

a)

Comet

b)

Dwarf Planet

c)

Planet

d)

Meteor

12.

Using the information in the following table, which planet would be able to float on water, which has a density of 1 g/mL?

a)

Saturn

b)

Earth

c)

Jupiter

d)

Neptune

13.

A comet's tail always points away from the Sun because

a)

solar winds push it outward

b)

of the gravitational pull of the outer planets

c)

of its elliptical orbit around the Sun

d)

centripetal force

14.

Which of the following solar system objects is believed to originate in the Oort Cloud?

a)

Comet

b)

Asteroid

c)

Meteor

d)

Meteorite

15.

Mars is tilted on a 25 degrees axis, indicating that

a)

the surface contains various Iron Oxides

b)

Mars has seasons

c)

Mars has polar ice caps

d)

the surface is windy

16.

what is the most abundant element in the solar system?

a)

Helium

b)

Carbon

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Methane

17.

"Felt by most people. Some breakage of dishes, windows and plaster. Disturbance of tall objects" Is an example of a ___________________ measurement.

a)

quantitative

b)

fake

c)

qualitative

18.

What type of stress is when rock twists, like wringing out a wet towel?

a)

Compression

b)

Tension

c)

Shear

d)

Torsion

19.

What type of stress is when rock is squeezed or shortened?

a)

Compression

b)

Tension

c)

Shear

d)

Torsion

20.

What type of stress is when rock is stretched or lengthened?

a)

Compression

b)

Tension

c)

Shear

d)

Torsion

21.

What type of stress is when one part of the rock goes in two different directions, like tearing a sheet of paper?

a)

Compression

b)

Tension

c)

Shear

d)

Torsion

22.

Choose the correct statement

a)

The oceanic plate always subducts beneath a continental plate because it is less dense.

b)

The continent plate always subducts because it is more dense.

c)

The oceanic plate always subducts beneath a continental plate because it is more dense.

23.

Which of the following does NOT impact viscosity?

a)

Composition

b)

Temperature

c)

Volume

d)

Gas Content

24.

As the distance from the epicenter increases, the lag time between the P-wave and S-Wave decrease.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Using a seismic activity data map, what key characteristic helps differentiate a transform plate boundary from an oceanic- continent convergent plate boundary?

a)

Depth of seismic activity

b)

Uniformity of Volcanoes

c)

If the earthquakes fall on the plate boundary lines

26.

Volcanic island arcs are found at which type of plate boundary?

a)

Divergent

b)

Transform

c)

Ocean - Continent Convergent

d)

Ocean - Ocean Convergent

27.

Using a volcanology data map, what characteristic helps differentiate between and ocean-ocean convergent plate boundary and an ocean-ocean divergent plate boundary?

a)

Depth of Volcanoes

b)

Volcanoes occur along plate boundary vs volcanoes solely on the overriding plate

c)

Age of the sea floor

28.

What evidence supports seafloor spreading hypothesis?

a)

Similar trends in the age of rocks on either side of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge

b)

Varying trends in the age of rocks on either side of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge

c)

Attraction between the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the continental divide

d)

Older, thicker sediments present at the Mid-Atlantic Ridge

29.

The Location within the Earth where seismic energy is released is called the __________

a)

focus

b)

ground zero

c)

focal point

d)

epicenter

30.

The youngest seafloor can occur at convergent plate boundaries.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Increasing temperature decreases viscosity.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Which of the following characteristics best describes P-waves?

a)

First to arrive, travels through solids and liquids

b)

Second to arrive, travels through solids and liquids

c)

First to arrive, travels only through solids

33.

Which of the following descriptions best characterize S-waves?

a)

First to arrive, travels through solids and liquids

b)

Second to arrive, travel only through liquids

c)

Second to arrive, travels through only solids

d)

Second to arrive, travels through solids and liquids

34.

Honey is an example of a high viscosity fluid.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Which of the following is a location where a divergent plate boundary is found above sea level?

a)

Pacific Islands

b)

East Coast of South America

c)

Iceland

d)

Mariana's Trench

36.

What type of rock commonly forms at a divergent plate boundary?

a)

Basalt

b)

Granite

c)

Sandstone

d)

Limestone

37.

What type of rock is created through increased pressure, temperature or chemical reaction?

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

38.

What must occur for metamorphic rocks to be recycled into igneous rocks?

a)

Uplift

b)

Melting

c)

Burial

39.

The sedimentary rock, sandstone, is the parent of the metamorphic rock Quartzite. Quartzite is likely....

a)

more dense

b)

less dense

c)

equally dense

40.

What step of the rock cycle comes before the creation of sedimentary rocks?

a)

Uplift

b)

Transport

c)

Deposit

d)

Compaction and cementation

41.

Intrusive igneous rocks can be described as

a)

made of lava, slow cooling, large grained

b)

Made of mgma, fast cooling, small grained

c)

Made of lava, slow cooling, small grained

d)

Made of magma, slow cooling, large grained

42.

Silicon and what element are the two most abundant in the Earth's crust?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Iron

d)

Oxygen

43.

Using the Pressure-Temperature graphic on the right, what is the metamorphic product at a temperature of 300C and a pressure of 1.0 Gpa?

a)

Greenschist

b)

Blueschist

c)

Amphibolite

44.

Refer to the Mohs Hardness scale below. A geologist is trying to identify an unknown rock. Using a wire nail she is able to scratch the rocks surface.  A penny does not leave a mark. What mineral is the rock most likely made up of?

a)

Calcite

b)

Fluorite

c)

Apatite

d)

Gypsum

45.

The graph to the right shows the relationship between mass and volume for three samples (A,B, and C) of an unknown mineral.  What is the density of the mineral?

a)

1.0 g/cm3

b)

5.0 g/cm3

c)

10.0 g/cm3

d)

20.0 g/cm3

46.

A material has a mass of 5.3 g and a density of 2.9 g/cm3. What is the material's volume?

a)

0.5 g/cm3

b)

1.8 g/cm3

c)

15.4 g/cm3

47.

Which of the following is NOT part of the process of creating a sedimentary rock?

a)

Weathering and Erosion

b)

Melting

c)

Transportation and Deposition

d)

Compaction

48.

The image is an image of an igneous rock. It is intrusive or extrusive?

a)

Intrusive

b)

Extrusive

49.

Three rock samples (A, B, and C) were examined. They have an average density of 21.2 g/mL. Sample A has a density of 33.3 g/mL and rock sample B has a density of 9.1 g/mL. What is the density of rock sample C?

a)

27.7 g/mL

b)

1.5 g/mL

c)

33.3 g/mL

d)

21.2 g/mL

50.

A rock has a density of 15.4 g/mL and a volume of 2.7 mL. What is its mass?

a)

41.6 g

b)

41.6 mL

c)

5.7 g

51.

Using the image, order A, B and C from oldest to youngest.

a)

ABC

b)

BAC

c)

BCA

52.

If you have 25% of your parent isotope remaining, how many half lives have passed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

53.

If you have 93.75% daughter isotope, how many half lives have passed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

54.

You have 3.125g remaining of a 100g sample. How many half-lives have elapsed?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

55.

How long does it take a 200g sample of Nickel-63 (Half life of 92 years) to decay to 50g?

a)

92 years

b)

184 years

c)

276 years

56.

How long is a sidereal day?

a)

24 hours

b)

23 hours 56 minutes

c)

27.3 days

d)

29.5 days

57.

How long is a solar day?

a)

24 hours

b)

23 hours 56 minutes

c)

27.3 days

d)

29.5 days

58.

Following a full moon, the moon enter what phase?

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

Waning Gibbous

c)

Third Quarter

d)

New Moon

59.

What day is illustrated in the figure?

a)

Spring equinox

b)

Fall equinox

c)

The summer solstice in the Southern Hemisphere

d)

The summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere

60.

A neap tide occurs during which two Moon phases?

a)

First Quarter and Third Quarter

b)

New and Full

c)

Waxing and waning gibbous

d)

New and half

61.

What kind of eclipse occurs when Earth blocks light from reaching the moon?

a)

Solar

b)

New

c)

Full

d)

Lunar

62.

Which eclipse has a larger umbra?

a)

Solar

b)

New

c)

Full

d)

Lunar

63.

Observing Earth's curved shadow on the Moon during a lunar eclipse indicates that ...

a)

the eclipse is taking place during the fall equinox.

b)

the eclipse is taking place during the summer solstice.

c)

Earth is a sphere.

d)

there will be a neap tide.

64.

At 6am on August 21st, Mr, Schneider traveled from Hawaii to Japan. He arrived on

a)

August 20th

b)

August 21st

c)

August 22nd

65.

Which of the following statements are false?

a)

The moon rotates

b)

The moon revolves

c)

The moon has an atmosphere

d)

The same side of the moon always faces Earth

66.

Half of the moon is illuminated at all times.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Longitudinal lines measure degrees East and West of the equator.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

A planet makes 5 rotations about its axis. How much time has passed?

a)

5 days

b)

5 years

c)

5 hours

d)

5 minutes

69.

The seasons on Earth are caused by ...

a)

title of the axis.

b)

hours of day light.

c)

direct and indirect sunlight.

d)

all of the above.

70.

A waxing phase of the Moon is one in which the Moon's reflected light appears to be

a)

growing larger.

b)

growing smaller.

71.

The gravitational attraction between two objects depends on ...

a)

the mass of the objects and the distance between them.

b)

this distance between objects only.

c)

the densities of the objects only.

d)

the weight of the objects only.

72.

The phases of the moon are due to...

a)

the reflection of sunlight from the Moon's surface.

b)

the changing view of the Moon's surface from Earth.

c)

the sun's umbra falling on the Moon.

d)

Earth's penumbra falling on the Moon.

73.

Because the Earth's orbit around the Sun is an ellipse...

a)

night are longer than days in the summer in the Northern Hemisphere.

b)

Earth is closest to the Sun around July 4 and farthest from the Sun on January 3 of each year.

c)

the Sun is always at the center of the orbit.

d)

the distance between Earth and the Sun varies slightly throughout the year.

74.

To what degree is the Earth's axis tilted?

a)

5

b)

11.7

c)

15

d)

23.5

75.

What is Bill's Average running speed?

a)

0.33 km/min

b)

3.0 km/min

c)

3.3 km/min

d)

330 km/min

76.

Which segment represents the car slowing down?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

77.

An input force of 80 N is used to lift an object weight 240 N with a system of pulleys. What is the Mechanical advantage of the pulley system?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

78.

What is the current through this circuit?

a)

0.80 A

b)

1.25 A

c)

30 A

d)

120 A

79.

Which types of waves can travel through a vacuum?

a)

Sound

b)

light

c)

seismic

d)

mechanical

80.

Sound waves cannot travel through...

a)

solids

b)

vacuum

c)

gases

d)

liquids

81.

Why does grass look green?

a)

It absorbs green light

b)

It reflects all colors of light except green.

c)

It reflects green light.

d)

It reflects all colors of light except red.

82.

What is thought to be the center of the Milky Way galaxy?

a)

A high mass main sequence star

b)

A black hole

c)

A large moon

d)

Aliens

83.

How many stars are in our solar system?

a)

200-400 billion

b)

1

c)

200 - 400 trillion

d)

Too many to count

84.

Compared to their main sequence counterparts, Super-Giant stars are

a)

very dim

b)

much hotter

c)

relatively cool in temperature

d)

none of the above

85.

If a star is more massive, it is likely to have

a)

a shorter life

b)

a longer life

c)

no life

d)

to live forever

86.

When a star begins to die (leave the main sequence), its average temperature

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

87.

Which of the following does Not accurately describe the stars at the top left of the main sequence?

a)

Massive

b)

Luminous

c)

Hot

d)

Dim

88.

A star begins to move off the main sequence once it consumes all of what element?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Helium

c)

Carbon

d)

Iron

89.

The process in which hydrogen atoms combine to form Helium is called

a)

Nuclear Fission

b)

Nucleosis

c)

Nuclear Fusion

d)

Pairing

90.

A black hole is

a)

all of the below

b)

the densest object in the universe

c)

a very strong gravitational force

d)

the remnants of a star at least 25 times the mass of the sun.

91.

The hottest stars have a _________ color.

a)

green

b)

blue-ish white

c)

red

d)

yellow

92.

Which of the following is an example of an Ionic Bond?

a)

NaCl

b)

H2O

c)

CO2

d)

C6H12O6

93.

Saltwater is an example of a

a)

compound

b)

element

c)

mixture

94.

Gold (Au) is an example of a

a)

compound

b)

element

c)

mixture

95.

Sugar (C12H22O11) is an example of a

a)

compound

b)

element

c)

mixture

96.

Which part of the following atom is an electron?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

97.

Which of the following parts of the atom are neutrons?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

98.

What type of reaction is shown?

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

99.

Eras are longer than periods.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

The mesozoic era is known as the age of the mammals.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

The magma and lava that comes from a stratovolcano is less viscous than that of a shield volcano.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

What did Hess discover using SONAR which supported Wegener's Sea Floor Spreading Theory?

a)

Underwater mountain ranges

b)

Hot spots

c)

Old rocks

d)

Large land animal fossils

103.

Sounds below 20 Hz are called

a)

subsonic

b)

intersonic

c)

intrasonic

d)

infrasonic

104.

All waves have a(n)

a)

frequency

b)

wavelength

c)

ampltiude

d)

all of the above

105.

The __________ of a wave determines the pitch.

a)

overtone

b)

amplitude

c)

fundamental tones

d)

frequency

106.

Which is the hottest planet in the solar system?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

107.

The outer four planets are called...

a)

Dwarf Giants

b)

Smoky Giants

c)

Gas Giants

d)

The Giants

108.

Which is the coldest planet in the solar system?

a)
Saturn
b)
Mars
c)
Uranus
d)
Neptune
109.

The inner planets are also called as _________.

a)

Solar System Planets

b)

Terrestrial Planets / Rocky Planets

c)

Gas Giants / Jovian Planets

d)

The Giants

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