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G10 EoY 23 Practice Quiz

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following can move from one atom to another?

a)

protons

b)

neutrons

c)

electrons

d)

the nucleus

2.
What is the charge of the electron
a)
positive
b)
no charge
c)
negative
d)
neutral
3.
If a substance has an excess number of electrons on its surface, what type of charge does it have?
a)
A negative charge
b)
A positive charge
c)
A neutral charge
d)
A nuclear charge
4.

What is this symbol?

a)

Switch

b)

Fuse

c)

Bulb

d)

2 cell battery

5.
This is the circuit symbol for ...
a)
an AC current source
b)
a DC current source
c)
an ammeter
d)
a voltmeter
6.
This is the circuit symbol for ...
a)
an AC current source
b)
a DC current source
c)
an ammeter
d)
a voltmeter
7.
This picture is an example of what kind of circuit?
a)
Series
b)
Complete
c)
Broken
d)
Parallel
8.

What is the following symbol represent?

a)

Wire

b)

Resistor

c)

Battery

d)

Switch

9.
Which resistor will prevent the most current flow?
a)
1 ohm
b)
100 ohms
c)
1000 ohms
d)
0.5k ohms
10.
How does resistance affect current?
a)
less resistance - less current
b)
more resistance - less current
c)
more resistance - more current
d)
resistance does not affect current
11.
What happens to the current in a parallel circuit?
a)
It is the same before the path splits and after the paths rejoin
b)
It is divided in two
c)
It is doubled
d)
It increases when the paths split
12.
What is I2-?
a)
2 mA
b)
4 A
c)
1.33 mA
d)
1.33 A
13.
What is VR1-?
a)
4 V
b)
6 V
c)
8 V
d)
2 V
14.
Calculate the net force of the object in the image shown.
a)
20N
b)
35N
c)
5N
d)
25N
15.

What is one example of a force that pushes or pulls an object without touching.

a)

magnetism

b)

contact forces

c)

friction

16.

a measure of the pull of gravity on an object

a)

weight

b)

speed

c)

position

d)

distance

17.

What is a force that occurs when one object rubs against another object?

a)

distance

b)

gravity

c)

friction

d)

force

18.

Weight is an example of which quantity?

a)

acceleration

b)

force

c)

mass

d)

pressure

19.

The mass of an object is measured on Earth. The mass is 5.0kg. The object is taken to the Moon. The mass of the object is measured on the Moon. What is the mass of the object on the Moon?

a)

0 kg

b)

more than 0kg, but less than 5.0kg

c)

5.0 kg

d)

more than 5.0 kg

20.

A bus starts from rest and accelerates to 14 m/s in 4 s. What is the average acceleration of the bus?

a)

3.5 m/s2

b)

5.9 m/s2

c)

10.5 m/s2

d)

24 m/s2

21.
Which formulas represents Ohm's law?
a)
V=IR
b)
R=IV
c)
I=RV
22.
What is the unit for resistance?
a)
Volts
b)
Amperes
c)
Ohms
23.
How many volts are in a circuit with a battery that has a resistance of 10 Ohms and a current of 2 Amps? 
a)
.5 Volts
b)
5 Volts
c)
20 Volts
24.
Electricity is the flow of _________.
a)
protons
b)
neutrons
c)
electrons
25.
What is the symbol for Current
a)
C
b)
Q
c)
I
d)
A
26.

Calculate charge when a current of 2A flows for 2 minutes

(a)  

27.

Calculate charge when 3mA flows for 3 minutes

(a)  

28.

Which of the following are in the correct order of size from largest to smallest?

a)

galaxy, universe, planet, star

b)

star, planet, comet, galaxy, moon

c)

galaxy, universe, star, planet, moon

d)

universe, galaxy, star, planet, comet

29.

What object is at the centre of our Solar System?

a)

a black hole

b)

a large star

c)

the Earth

d)

a quasar

30.

Stars are classified based on two properties of the star. Which of the following properties are the basis of classification?

a)

brightness and colour

b)

colour and surface temperature

c)

brightness and surface temperature

d)

size and colour

31.

What causes the nuclear fusion to begin in a star?

a)

lots of dust particles ignite

b)

helium molecules being produced

c)

intense heat and pressure

d)

gravity

32.

When a star is in the main sequence, what can be said about the forces acting inside the star?

a)

The outward pressure is greater than the gravitational pull.

b)

The gravitational pull is greater than the pressure from the fusion reactions.

c)

All the forces acting on the star are unbalanced.

d)

The inward gravitational attraction is equal to the outward pressure from the fusion reactions.

33.

How might it be noticeable that a star is now fusing helium rather than hydrogen atoms?

a)

The star cools and becomes a white dwarf.

b)

The star shrinks then expands to form a red giant.

c)

A black hole is created.

d)

The star stops glowing.

34.

Which of the following describes how a star much greater in mass than the Sun might end its life?

a)

It will cool and collapse, forming a white dwarf.

b)

It will cool and become a neutron star.

c)

It will cool and become a supergiant which will then explode into a supernova, leaving a black hole.

d)

It will remain stable for too long for us to know what might happen.

35.

The nuclear reaction that takes place in the core of the stars is

a)

Nuclear disposition

b)

Nuclear fission

c)

Nuclear fusion

d)

Nuclear composition

36.

A large ensemble of stars, all interacting through the gravitational force and orbiting around a common center is called

a)

Constellation

b)

Galaxy

c)

Star cluster

d)

Star show

37.

Mars has a smaller gravitational field strength at the surface than the Earth. This is because...

a)

The mass of Mars is smaller than Earth.

b)

Mars has a very thin atmosphere.

c)

Mars has no water on the surface.

d)

Mars orbits the Sun at a slower speed than Earth.

38.

Large stars have a very different evolutionary ending to stars like our Sun. Which of these best describes the end stages of very large stars and extremely large stars?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

39.
Our sun is currently in what star stage?
a)
Protostar
b)
Nebula
c)
Main Sequence
d)
Red Giant
40.
Which of the following list the correct order of the life cycle of massive stars?
a)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> red supergiant --> supernova --> blackhole
b)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> red giant --> planetary nebula --> white dwarf --> black dwarf
c)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> supernova --> red giant --> blackhole
d)
Nebula --> protostar --> blackhole --> red supergiant --> supernova --> main sequence
41.

What term is given to a reaction that releases heat energy to the surroundings?

a)

ectothermic

b)

endothermic

c)

exothermic

d)

ecstatic

42.

Which is an example of an exothermic reaction?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

melting

c)

electrolysis

d)

burning

43.

In this energy profile, the products have a ................ energy level than the reactants. Therefore, this is an ............ reaction.

a)

higher.....exothermic

b)

lower..... exothermic

c)

higher.....endothermic

d)

lower..... endothermic

44.

How do we know that this represents an exothermic reaction?

a)

The products have more energy than the reactants

b)

The products have less energy than the reactants.

45.
ΔH value in an endothermic reaction is a positive number.
a)
True
b)
False
46.
A catalyst works by
a)
changing the order of the reaction
b)
increasing the temperature
c)
lowering the activation energy
d)
making the activated complex
47.

Using the table of average bond energies below the image, the ΔH for the reaction in kJ is.....

a)

+ 160 kJ

b)

-63 kJ

c)

- 160 kJ

d)

-217 kJ

48.
What are the two factors to look for when determining if the reaction is at equilibrium?
a)
Forward reaction rate is faster than the reverse and concentrations are equal
b)
Forward and reverse reaction rates are equal and concentration is constant
c)
Forward and revers reaction rates are equal and concentration is equal
d)
Forward reaction rate is faster than the reverse and concentration is equal
49.
This symbol indicates that a reaction is ____________
a)
reversible
b)
irreversible
50.
2A + 3B  <---->  2AB
The forward reaction forms the substance __________.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
A + B
51.

If I add a chemical to a system at equilibrium, increasing its concentration,

a)

the reaction will shift to the same side of the equation where it appears to make more of it

b)

the reaction will shift to the opposite side of the equation where it appears to use some of it up

c)

the reaction will not shift

d)

byproducts (other unwanted chemicals) will be formed to use the excess

52.

Increasing the pressure on an equilibrium system will

a)

shift the reaction to the side with more moles of chemicals

b)

shift the reaction to the side with more moles of gas

c)

shift the reaction to the side with fewer moles of gas

d)

shift the reaction to the side with fewer moles of chemicals

53.

Increasing the temperature of a closed equilibrium system

a)

will shift the reaction in the endothermic direction

b)

will shift the reaction in the exothermic direction

c)

will not shift the reaction

d)

will shift the reaction to the side with heat

54.
For the reaction...
SO2(g) + O2(g) <−>  SO3(g)
If the concentration of SO2(g)  is increased, the equilibrium of the reaction will ___________.
a)
shift to the left
b)
shift to the right
c)
not shift
55.
For the reaction...
SO2(g) + O2(g) <−>  SO3(g)
If the equilibrium shifts to the right, the concentration of O2(g) will ___________.
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
remain the same
56.
For the reaction...
N2 (g) +  3 H2 (g) <−> 2 NH3 (g)

If the pressure in the system is increased, the reaction will __________________.
a)
 shift to the left
b)
shift to the right
c)
not shift
57.
  A(g) + B(aq) <> C(s) 
 ΔHrxn= -453 kJ/mol
If the [B] is decreased then the reaction is will shift to the _______. 
a)
Left
b)
Right
c)
Stays the same 
d)
Up
58.
Le Chaltelier's Principle states that if a chemical system at equilibrium is stressed,
a)
the system will adjust to increase the stress
b)
the system will adjust to reduce the stress
c)
the system will not adjust
59.
Which RNA bases would pair with TAC  in transcription? 
a)
AUG
b)
ATG
c)
GCA
d)
GCA
60.
_______ is made during transcription and ________ is made during translation.
a)
mRNA / a protein
b)
a protein / mRNA
c)
Ribosome / Nucleus
d)
mRNA / tRNA
61.
One difference between DNA and RNA is that....
a)
Only RNA has the base Uracil
b)
only RNA contains the base Thymine
c)
only RNA contains the base Cytocine
d)
only RNA contained the base Guanine
62.
A triplet (3 bases)  of mRNA is called a
a)
codon
b)
anticodon
c)
amino acid
d)
peptide bond
63.
Translation happens in the - 
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
64.

. What are the building blocks of proteins called?

a)

nucleotides

b)

proteins

c)

amino acids

d)

carbohydrates

65.
An RNA molecule is
a)
double helix
b)
always double stranded
c)
usually double stranded
d)
single stranded
66.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
67.

D is pointing at the

a)

mRNA

b)

nucleus

c)

tRNA

d)

codon

68.

B is pointing at the

a)

mRNA

b)

nucleus

c)

tRNA

d)

codon

69.

A is pointing at the

a)

mRNA

b)

nucleus

c)

tRNA

d)

codon

70.

F is pointing at the

a)

mRNA

b)

nucleus

c)

tRNA

d)

codon

71.

Which of the following refer to the monomer of DNA and RNA polymers?

a)

amino acids

b)

fatty acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

saccharides

72.

Which of the following is a primary function of DNA and RNA?

a)

energy source for the body

b)

building blocks of the body

c)

cell membrane primary composition

d)

protein synthesis

73.

Which of the following is NOT a primary component of a nucleotide?

a)

nitrogenous base

b)

phosphate group

c)

ribose sugar

d)

triglyceride

74.

Which of the following connects the ribose sugars together to form the back bone of the DNA and RNA strand?

a)

nitrogenous base

b)

phosphate group

c)

ribose sugar

d)

triglyceride

75.

Which of the following is NOT a DNA nitrogenous base?

a)

adenine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

76.

Where in the cell can DNA be found?

a)

In the ribosomes

b)

In the nucleus

c)

In the cytoplasm

d)

All of the above

77.

Which bases are found in RNA?

a)

Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Uracil (U), Guanine (G)

b)

Uracil (U), Guanine (G), Cytosine (C), Thymine (T)

c)

Guanine (G), Cytosine (C), Uracil (U), Adenine (A)

d)

Cytosine (C), Guanine (G), Thymine (T), Uracil (U)

78.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
79.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
80.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

81.

What enzyme does transcription use?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

helicase

82.

Which RNA carries the message?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

83.
What is the relationship between DNA and chromosomes?
a)
Chromosomes are made of DNA
b)
DNA is made of chromosomes
c)
DNA and chromosomes are the same thing.
d)
All of the above are correct
84.
How many pairs of chromosomes exist in each of your cells?
a)
10
b)
12
c)
23
d)
46
85.

The trait that will always be expressed if at least one copy of an allele is present.

a)

Recessive

b)

Dominant

c)

DNA

86.

The trait that will be expressed only if two copies of the allele are present.

a)

Recessive

b)

Dominant

c)

DNA

87.

Which of the following is heterozygous?

a)

FF

b)

Gg

c)

tt

d)

RR

88.

Which of the following is homozygous recessive?

a)

rr

b)

TT

c)

AA

d)

Ff

89.

What is the definition of the phenotype?

a)

The physical traits of an organism

b)

The genetic makeup of an organism

c)

The letters eg, Aa

d)

How the genotype is expressed.

90.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
91.
The haploid number of human chromosomes is
a)
11
b)
12
c)
23
d)
46
92.
The diploid number of human chromosomes is
a)
23
b)
46
c)
92
93.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
94.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
95.

How many people in this whole pedigree are heterozygous?

a)

7

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

e)

5

96.

How many males are color-blind in this family?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

97.
Huntington's Disease is a dominant trait.
What is the correct genotype for individual II-2?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
H_
98.

What is the probability of heterozygous offspring?

a)

0%

b)

100%

c)

50%

d)

25%

99.
What genotype would go in box 2?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
100.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
101.

What are the possible genotypes for this cross?

a)

TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%

b)

all tall

c)

TT= 75% tt = 25%

d)

Tt = 100%

102.

In a certain species of plant, the color purple (P) is dominant to the color white (p).

According to the Punnett Square, what is the probability of an offspring being purple?

a)

25%

b)

0%

c)

100%

d)

50%

103.

Which of these Punnett squares represents a cross between a homozygous dominant parent and a heterozygous parent?

a)
b)
c)
d)
104.

This is an example of ---

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

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