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Biology EOC Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which macromolecules are made up of C, H, & O?

a)

carbohydrates and lipids

b)

nucleic acids and proteins

c)

proteins and carbohydrates

d)

lipids and proteins

2.

Which macromolecule is made up of C, H, O, & N?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

3.

Which macromolecule is made up of C, H, O, N, & P?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

4.

Which of the following helps to regulate the cell's internal environment and maintain homeostasis?

a)

cell membrane

b)

mitochondria

c)

vacuole

d)

lysosome

5.

What class of macromolecules do enzymes belong to?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

6.
Enzymes catalyze reactions by ___________ Activation Energy.
a)
Increasing
b)
Decreasing
7.

Which element is found in all organic compounds?

a)

carbon

b)

calcium

c)

nitrogen

d)

phosphorus

8.

The organelle that captures the energy from sunlight and converts it into chemical energy stored in food during photosynthesis:

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Nucleus

9.

The organelle that converts the chemical energy stored in food molecules into compounds that are more convenient for the cell to use:

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Centrioles

10.

What will most likely be the result if all of the mitochondrion are removed from a plant cell? 

a)

It will be unable to carry out respiration. 

b)

It will lose water through osmosis. 

c)

It will break down the ribosomes in the cell. 

d)

It will be unable to photosynthesize

11.

The organelle that assembles proteins in the cytoplasm:

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

12.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
13.

True or False: Prokaryotic cells contain a nucleus and membrane bound organelles.

a)

True

b)

False

14.
What is diffusion?
a)

The movement of particles from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

b)

The movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

15.

Diffusion is an example of _________________ transport.

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Both Active and Passive

d)

None of the above

16.

Endocytosis is an example of ________________ transport.

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Both Active and Passive

d)

None of the above

17.

The sodium potassium pump is an example of ______________________ transport.

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Both Active and Passive

d)

None of the above

18.

The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called ________________.

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Both diffusion and facilitated diffusion

19.
Cells spend the majority of their lives in
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Synthesis 
d)
Gap 2
20.

A cell with 46 chromosomes divides by mitosis, how many chromosomes will be present in the resulting daughter cells?

a)

92

b)

46

c)

23

d)

12

21.

produces haploid cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

22.

Ends with diploid number of chromosomes

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

23.

THE END RESULT OF MEIOSIS IS...

a)

FOUR UNIDENTICAL GAMETES

b)

FOUR IDENTICAL GAMETES

c)

TWO IDENTICAL GAMETES

d)

TWO UNIDENTICAL GAMETES

24.

produces identical daughter cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

25.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
26.
Mitosis is _____ reproduction because all offspring (known as daughter cells) have the DNA from only one parent and are clones of that parent
a)
sexual
b)
asexual
c)
fertilization
d)
haploid
27.

Which of the following is not a eukaryote?

a)

fungi

b)

animals

c)

plants

d)

archaea

28.

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is ____.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

69

d)

92

29.

What type of asexual reproduction is it?

a)

budding

b)

regeneration

c)

sporulation

d)

binary fission

30.

Which processes occurs in the nucleus?

a)

DNA replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

digestion

31.

Translation happens on the - 

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome in the cytoplasm

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

32.
What type of RNA carries the DNA message out of the nucleus to the ribosomes?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
RNA
d)
DNA
33.
When the RNA gets to the ribosomes, which molecule transfers to the mRNA to amino acids?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
Replicated RNA
34.

If a strand of DNA had bases in the following order - ATCCGTC, what would be the replicated complementary strand?

a)

UAGGCAG

b)

ATCCGTC

c)

TAGGCAG

d)

TUGGCTG

35.

If a strand of DNA had bases in the following order - ATCCGTC, what would be the transcribed mRNA sequence?

a)

TAGGCAG

b)

UAGGCAG

c)

TUGGCUG

d)

None of the above are correct

36.

A sequence of a DNA template strand is shown.


3' TCC AAT GGC TTA TTT 5'


Which of these is the correct amino acid chain produced from the DNA template strand?

a)

Arginine, Leucine, Proline, Asparagine

b)

Tryptophan, Phenylalanine, Leucine

c)

Serince, Leucine, Proline, Asparagine

d)

Tryptophan, Phenylalanine, Leucine, Glycine

37.

What is the primary cause of genetic variation during meiosis?

a)

chromosomes lining up

b)

"crossing over" of chromosomes

c)

separation of chromosomes

d)

chromosomes pulling apart

38.

The failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate "normally" during meiosis is called _____________________.

a)

nondisjunction

b)

anaphase I

c)

nondiploidy

d)

karyotype

39.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

40.

Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertions only

b)

Substitution only

c)

Deletion only

d)

Insertions and Deletions

41.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

42.

The following images are examples of ________________.

a)

Mutagens

b)

Mutaitons

c)

Chromosomes

d)

Germ Cells

43.

Mendel's law which states that recessive alleles will be masked by dominant alleles.

a)

Law of the Land

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

d)

Law of Dominance

44.

Which of the following laws claims that alleles will come together independently of each other in the offspring?

a)

Law of Independent Assortment

b)

Law of Probable Expression

c)

Law of Typical Collection

d)

Law of Assorted Assignment

45.

A cross involving two allelic pairs (ZZUU X zzuu) is called

a)

Test cross

b)

Back cross

c)

Dihybrid cross

d)

Monohybrid cross

46.
This image is an example of a _____________ cross.
a)
Monohybrid
b)
Dihybrid
c)
Purebred
d)
Heterozygous
47.

In a dihybrid cross of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

48.

What is the term for a cross that involves just one trait, such as pod shape?

a)

test cross

b)

dihybrid cross

c)

monohybrid cross

d)

homozygous cross

49.

The blending of two traits in which one is not completely dominant over the other is known as ---

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

50.

____ is an inheritance pattern that results in offspring that are a MIXTURE of the two traits of its parents, like yellow and blue flowers making green offspring.

a)

incomplete dominance.

b)

codominance

51.

An inheritance pattern in which both alleles for a gene are expressed in the offspring so that both traits show up on its body is known as ---

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

52.

What type of inheritance pattern is shown here?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

53.

Codominance occurs in calico cats, which allows for the Black and Tan colors to show. What percentage of the offspring represented in this P square will be calico (black and tan spotted)?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

54.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be gray?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

55.

What is the best inference about biochemical relationships that could be made from this model?

a)

The amino acid sequences of a lancelet and a tuna are more similar than that of a tuna and a salamander. This is due to the lancelet and the tuna both residing entirely in water while the salamander can survive on land.

b)

The amino acid sequences of a salamander and a turtle are less similar than that of a turtle and a leopard. This is due to the turtle and the salamander both being adapted to life in water or land.

c)

The amino acid sequences of a lancelet and a tuna are less similar than that of a tuna and a salamander. This is due to the lancelet and the tuna splitting from a common ancestor longer ago.

d)

The amino acid sequences of a salamander and a turtle are more similar than that of a turtle and a leopard. This is due to the turtle and the salamander both being adapted to life in water or land.

56.
According to the cladogram, which organism is most distantly related to the human?
a)
crayfish
b)
grasshopper
c)
perch
d)
frog
57.
What are the three domains?
a)
Archaea, Bacteria, and Eubacteria
b)
Archaea, Protists, and Eubacteria
c)
Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya
d)
Archaea, Fungi, Animalia
58.

What is binomial nomenclature?

a)

system of 3 names

b)

system of 2 names

c)

the names of the kingdoms

d)

the levels of classification

59.

What is the correct order of classification?

a)

kingdom, domain, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

b)

domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

c)

domain, phylum, class, order, kingdom, family, genus, species

d)

species, genus, family, phylum, order, class, domain, kingdom

60.

The 4 eukaryote kingdoms are Animals, Plants, Fungi, and

a)

Bacteria

b)

Archaea

c)

Humans

d)

Protists

61.

What two levels make up a scientific name?

a)

genus and order

b)

genus and species

c)

domain and kingdom

d)

family and genus

62.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
63.
The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.

Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram
a)
The organisms share a common ancestry.
b)
The organisms belong to the same genus.
c)
The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.
d)
The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.
64.

Vestigial structures

a)

structures that perform a similar function but are not similar in origin

b)

remnants of once-important structures that have slowly lost all or most of their function

c)

features found in different organisms that share structural similarities but may have very different functions

d)

preserved remains of an organism

65.

What is this an example of?

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial organs

d)

Functional adaption

66.

What best describes the hind leg bones seen in the whale?

a)

The bones are analogous structures to the fins of living fish.

b)

The bones are vestigial structures that had a function in an ancestor.

c)

The bones are homologous structures to the wings of butterflies.

d)

The bones are fossil structures from an extinct ancestor.

67.

Mutations are important because they bring about

a)

death of the organism in which they develop

b)

genetic variation needed for a population to evolve

c)

benefits for the individual, not for the population

d)

Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population

68.

Which of these claims is most likely true of two species that share a recent common ancestor?

a)

The two species have different developmental patterns

b)

The two species have similar arms and legs

c)

The two species share DNA sequences

d)

The ancestors of each species looked very different

69.

Antibiotic resistant bacteria can

a)

Survive

b)

Reproduce

c)

Pass on the resistant gene to their offspring

d)

All of the above

70.

Why are bacteria becoming more resistant to antibiotics?

a)

Bacteria are dying out.

b)

Humans are increasing in population.

c)

Antibiotics are becoming weaker.

d)

Bacteria are starting to mutate and multiply.

71.

A pesticide is...

a)

A chemical that kills a bug / insect

b)

A substance that kills bacteria

c)

A nutrient for certain crops

d)

A substance created by biotechnology to induce mutations in insects

72.
A  population of cockroaches was sprayed with an insecticide.  Some cockroaches survived and produced a population of cockroaches that was resistant to this spray.  What can BEST be inferred from this example?
a)
species will adapt no matter what the environment
b)
environment has no effect on the survival of an organism
c)
Individuals with favorable variations survive and reproduce
d)
Insecticides cause mutations that are passed on to the next generation
73.

A forest fire ignites in the Sam Houston State Forest and kills many members of a population of pigmy rattlesnakes.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

74.

Maria Concepcion Soto settled in the northern area of Venezuela. She suffered from a rare genetic disorder called Huntington’s Disease. As a result, the now 20,000 individuals who live there also have a high risk of Huntington’s Disease.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

75.

Select the best answer based on the image.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

76.

Genetic Diversity is increased through this process.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

77.

Genetic drift is more likely to happen in...

a)

large populations

b)

small populations

c)

older populations

78.
The amount of energy that usually transfers from one trophic level to the next...
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
50%
79.

If there is 1000 Kcal available in the producers in trophic level 1, how much energy is available in the herbivores in trophic level 2?

a)

10Kcal

b)

1Kcal

c)

100Kcal

d)

1000Kcal

80.
What are the Abiotic factors in this image? 
a)
water, sunlight, dirt, air
b)
birds and plants
c)
birds, water, dirt
d)
plants, water
81.
The rabbit in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Decomposer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
82.

Carrying capacity is...

a)

The maximum number of individuals that can fit into an area

b)

Ability of an area to accommodate a growing population

c)

The greatest # of individuals an area can support over time.

d)

The maximum number of species that can co-exist in an area

83.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
84.

If a population of gazelle decrease, the population of cheetahs will...

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Stay the same

d)

Cheetahs don't eat gazelle

85.

A species that does not belong in a balanced ecosystem, comes in, and changes it (usually for the worse).

a)

flagnship

b)

umbrella

c)

invasive

d)

predator

86.

A species that plays a critical role in the health, maintenance, growth, or definition of an ecosystem.

a)

keystone

b)

invasive

c)

engineer

d)

predator

87.

Why do living things need nitrogen?

a)

To get energy

b)

To make amino acids

c)

To make proteins

d)

To make proteins AND amino acids

88.
These gases, such as carbon dioxide, trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere causing global warming
a)
Global warming gases
b)
Hot House gases
c)
Green House gases
d)
Thermal pollution
89.
What converts nitrogen into a useable form for plants and animals?
a)
bacteria
b)
fungi
c)
rain
90.
Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by
a)
Burning fossil fuels 
b)
Cellular respiration
c)
Decomposing organic matter
d)
All answers are correct
91.
How does carbon dioxide leave the atmosphere?
a)
Through transpiration
b)
Through photosynthesis
c)
Through factory emission
d)
Sunlight
92.
Identify the cycle pictured.
a)
The Water cycle
b)
The Carbon cycle
c)
The Nitrogen cycle
d)
This is not a correct diagram of any cycle.
93.

In photosynthesis, plants use __________ to make _________

a)

sugar and CO2; oxygen

b)

water, sun, and CO2; oxygen and sugar

c)

nitrogen and water; CO2 and sugar

d)

water and minerals; sugar and oxygen

94.
What is the correct equation for photosynthesis?
a)
C6H12O6 + 6O2 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O
b)
6CO2 + 6O2 --> C6H12O6  + 6H2O
c)
 6CO2 + 6O2 --> 6H2O + C6H12O6
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O  -->  6O2 + C6H12O6
95.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
96.

All living things are composed of..

a)

oxygen

b)

nitrogen

c)

carbon

d)

phosphorus

97.

_________ provides most of the oxygen on earth. 

a)

Decomposition

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Nitrogen Fization

98.
Which is not a waste product of cellular respiration?
a)
Water
b)
Heat
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Oxygen
99.

Burning fossil fuels leads to ____________

a)

The greenhouse effect

b)

Cleaner air

c)

Less humidity

d)

Nuclear energy

100.

Deforestation causes an increase in ____________

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Increased habitats

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