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Exam 2.2.1 Food Analysis

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines food analysis in scientific practice?

a)

Marketing strategies to increase consumer demand

b)

Routine cooking methods to enhance flavor and texture

c)

Application of analytical procedures to characterize food properties

d)

Environmental assessments of agricultural land use

2.

Which is a primary use of food analysis for manufacturers?

a)

Boost sales via social media promotional campaigns

b)

Reduce packaging costs by minimizing materials used

c)

Increase crop yields with genetic modification programs

d)

Verify product and facility safety through regular testing

3.

Which aspect is commonly characterized through food analysis?

a)

International trade tariffs and quotas

b)

Corporate governance and shareholder reporting

c)

Composition, structure, and physico‑chemical properties

d)

Climate variability across farming regions

4.

Which outcome aligns with maintaining overall food quality and safety under regulation?

a)

Eliminating all imported food from local markets

b)

Mandating uniform packaging colors for all brands

c)

Lowering prices by cutting inspection personnel

d)

Ensuring the food supply is safe, wholesome, high quality

5.

Which practice supports prevention of economic fraud in food production and labeling?

a)

Use of larger fonts and brighter label colors

b)

Seasonal promotion of premium product lines

c)

Analytical verification of authenticity and composition

d)

Outsourcing distribution to third‑party vendors

6.

Under RA 10611, which body coordinates Philippine food safety regulation across agencies?

a)

Regional Agricultural Standards Committee

b)

National Food Defense Strategy Council

c)

Food Safety Regulation Coordinating Board

d)

Philippine Consumer Protection Task Force

7.

Which agencies are listed under the DOH food safety regulatory group?

a)

Bureau of Plant Industry and Fertilizer Authority

b)

National Dairy Authority and Sugar Regulatory Administration

c)

Department of Trade and Industry and DOST

d)

Food and Drug Administration and Bureau of Quarantine

8.

Which agencies fall under the Department of Agriculture for food safety?

a)

Bureau of Animal Industry and National Meat Inspection Service

b)

Department of Health and Department of the Interior

c)

Department of Science and Technology and DTI

d)

Food and Drug Administration and Bureau of Quarantine

9.

Which statement describes Good Manufacturing Practices in the context of food safety?

a)

Procedures ensuring harmful substances are eliminated before consumption

b)

Marketing guidelines for brand placement in supermarkets

c)

Financial auditing standards for food companies

d)

International trade rules for exporting food products

10.

Which analytical capability is emphasized for detecting contaminants in food safety programs?

a)

High sensitivity to detect low levels of contaminants

b)

Energy efficiency in refrigeration equipment

c)

Automated scheduling of delivery logistics

d)

Rapid color changes to improve product aesthetics

11.

Which statement best distinguishes a Standard of Identity from a Standard of Quality in food regulation?

a)

Identity sets required composition; quality sets minimum attributes

b)

Identity defines packaging weight; quality defines shelf life days

c)

Identity sets labeling format; quality sets serving size rules

d)

Identity sets factory hygiene; quality sets inspection frequency

12.

Which is a key role of the Codex Alimentarius Commission?

a)

Setting globally harmonized food safety standards

b)

Enforcing national retail price controls

c)

Auditing individual factory production lines

d)

Issuing product-specific trademarks

13.

Under mandatory standards, what do Standards of Fill-of-Container ensure?

a)

Manufacturers disclose country of origin

b)

Labels list all micronutrients per serving

c)

Containers are properly filled to prevent deception

d)

Packaging uses recyclable materials only

14.

Which agency develops technical standards to ensure quality, safety, and market access for products and systems in the Philippines?

a)

Bureau of Philippine Standards (BPS)

b)

Food and Drug Administration (DOH)

c)

Bureau of Fisheries and Agriculture

d)

Codex Alimentarius Secretariat

15.

HACCP is best described as which of the following?

a)

A legal definition of nutrient content claims

b)

A voluntary grading program for prime meat cuts

c)

A systematic approach to identify and control food hazards

d)

A container fill measurement protocol

16.

The Nutritional Labeling and Education Act (NLEA, 1990) primarily requires what?

a)

Mandatory organic certification for produce

b)

Daily menu disclosure for restaurants

c)

Front-of-pack traffic-light labeling

d)

Standardized nutrition labels on food products

17.

Which list best reflects nutrients typically required on standardized nutrition labels?

a)

Calories, moisture, ash, fiber fractions, total solids

b)

Water activity, pH, titratable acidity, specific gravity

c)

Pesticide residues, mycotoxins, heavy metals, allergens

d)

Calories, fat, sodium, carbohydrates, protein, vitamins, minerals

18.

Which consumer benefit is directly linked to nutritional labeling?

a)

Ensuring identical taste among brands

b)

Making informed dietary choices

c)

Guaranteeing lowest retail prices

d)

Eliminating all foodborne pathogens

19.

What is the typical analytical tolerance for energy, fat, and carbohydrate values on nutrition labels when no related claims are made?

a)

Within 5% above and 5% below declared value

b)

Within 50% above and 50% below declared value

c)

Within 20% above and 20% below declared value

d)

Exactly equal to declared value only

20.

Health claims in Philippine labeling adopt guidelines from which body?

a)

European Food Safety Authority

b)

International Organization for Standardization

c)

World Trade Organization

d)

Codex Alimentarius Commission

21.

Which agency establishes and enforces mandatory food safety standards and conducts laboratory analyses for compliance?

a)

Bureau of Philippine Standards

b)

Food and Drug Administration - DOH

c)

Department of Trade and Industry

d)

Bureau of Fisheries and Agriculture

22.

Which statement about voluntary standards of grade is most accurate?

a)

They define required ingredient composition

b)

They regulate fill levels for containers

c)

They mandate nutrient lists on all packages

d)

They classify foods based on quality categories

23.

Authenticity testing in food analysis primarily ensures what?

a)

Every batch meets identical sensory scores

b)

All labels use the same font and format

c)

All packages are filled to identical net weights

d)

Product claims on origin, ingredients, or variety are truthful

24.

Which characteristic is required of official analytical methods used in food inspection and grading?

a)

Accurate, reliable, simple, and cost-effective

b)

Proprietary, confidential, and expensive

c)

Subjective, non-reproducible, and narrative

d)

Experimental, complex, and unvalidated

25.

Quality control in food manufacturing mainly aims to achieve which outcome?

a)

Consistent products that meet safety and nutritional value

b)

Maximize advertising exposure across media channels

c)

Increase product novelty over consistency

d)

Eliminate the need for any government oversight

26.

Which statement best describes the role of food analysis in quality control for incoming materials?

a)

Predicts processing behavior for desired results

b)

Focuses only on final product sensory tests

c)

Eliminates the need for supplier specifications

d)

Replaces documentation of test performance entirely

27.

During processing, why are on-line analytical techniques preferred?

a)

Eliminate the need for trained personnel

b)

Guarantee complete absence of defects

c)

Rapid, precise, non-destructive measurements

d)

Lower equipment maintenance requirements

28.

In HACCP, what is the primary purpose of identifying critical control points?

a)

Reduce marketing costs of new products

b)

Specify tests and corrective actions for safety

c)

Replace legal labeling requirements entirely

d)

Improve flavor without measuring parameters

29.

Which question aligns with raw material evaluation in a quality assurance program?

a)

Is the label information already developed?

b)

Do they meet required legal specifications?

c)

How can we develop new products from it?

d)

Will it have the appropriate shelf life?

30.

Which critical question best fits process control samples?

a)

Did a specific step yield acceptable composition?

b)

Are materials safe and authentic for purchase?

c)

What are competitor product characteristics?

d)

How do complaint samples differ in quality?

31.

For finished product analysis, which aspect is directly evaluated?

a)

Potential to develop entirely new products

b)

Compliance with legal requirements and claims

c)

Supplier capability for future deliveries

d)

Need to modify a processing parameter

32.

Which action follows if a finished product is unacceptable and cannot be salvaged?

a)

Freeze distribution and extend shelf life

b)

Immediately change raw material suppliers

c)

Conduct consumer panel testing first

d)

Decide on trash, rework, or seconds

33.

In research and development, food analysis primarily supports which activity?

a)

Evaluates physical, chemical, sensory traits

b)

Eliminates need for fundamental studies

c)

Focuses solely on marketing preferences

d)

Ignores interactions between ingredients

34.

Which statement correctly links composition analysis to labeling?

a)

Labels remove the need for compositional tests

b)

Accurate quantification supports nutrition labels

c)

Structural analysis determines label wording

d)

Only vitamins require quantification for labels

35.

Which structural level is correctly matched with its description?

a)

Molecular: >100 mm, air cells and particles

b)

Microscopic: 10–100 mm, visible inclusions

c)

Molecular: 1–100 nm, shapes and interactions

d)

Macroscopic: 10–100 nm, crystal aggregates

36.

Which physicochemical property category focuses on deformation and flow affecting texture?

a)

Rheological properties and behavior

b)

Optical properties and appearance

c)

Flavor properties and aroma release

d)

Stability properties and shelf life

37.

Why are objective analytical methods used alongside sensory evaluation?

a)

Ensure testing is subjective and resource-free

b)

Correlate measurable parameters to attributes

c)

Replace all consumer testing entirely

d)

Avoid evaluating texture and flavor together

38.

Which statement best describes Good Laboratory Practices (GLP) in a food lab?

a)

A set of principles for non-clinical study integrity

b)

A marketing guideline for consumer communication

c)

A single safety rule for handling food samples

d)

An informal checklist used by individual analysts

39.

Which is a key objective of GLP?

a)

Ensure accuracy and reproducibility of test data

b)

Prioritize speed over method validation

c)

Eliminate the need for documentation entirely

d)

Increase sample throughput at any cost

40.

Which element of GLP focuses on detailed protocols for all tests?

a)

Quality Control Checks

b)

Organization and Personnel

c)

Facilities and Equipment

d)

Standard Operating Procedures

41.

In GLP, proper collection, labeling, storage, and disposal relate primarily to which component?

a)

Sample Handling processes

b)

Audit and Review cycles

c)

Calibration and Maintenance

d)

Data Management systems

42.

Which activity is part of Quality Assurance (QA) rather than just GLP?

a)

Planned and systematic activities to meet standards

b)

Single-study protocol writing for one experiment

c)

Informal peer discussions about results

d)

Unrecorded trial runs to explore methods

43.

Which practice most directly enhances safety in food laboratories?

a)

Proper handling of samples and chemicals

b)

Increasing test speed through fewer steps

c)

Outsourcing data review to vendors

d)

Skipping labeling to reduce complexity

44.

Which statement distinguishes Quality Control (QC) from QA?

a)

QC uses routine operational checks with control samples

b)

QC focuses on long-term process improvement cycles

c)

QC is only about documentation management and archiving

d)

QC eliminates the need for staff training and competency

45.

Why is regular calibration and maintenance part of QA systems?

a)

To guarantee precision of equipment results

b)

To reduce the number of documented procedures

c)

To replace training and competency needs

d)

To limit audit requirements permanently

46.

Which GLP element ensures accurate recording, reporting, and archiving?

a)

Audit and Review policies

b)

Facilities and Equipment

c)

Sample Handling steps

d)

Data Management protocols

47.

Which outcome reflects the importance of GLP in food laboratories?

a)

Repeated tests yield consistent results

b)

Analysts may skip validation steps

c)

Regulatory compliance becomes optional

d)

Credibility relies solely on marketing

48.

Which benefit is most associated with QA in food testing?

a)

Reduced need for calibration and audits

b)

Consistent quality through standardized processes

c)

Greater variance across different analysts

d)

Faster testing by removing documentation

49.

Which difference between GLP and QA is highlighted in the Venn diagram?

a)

GLP provides framework; QA ensures ongoing improvement

b)

GLP focuses on marketing; QA handles equipment purchase

c)

GLP removes traceability; QA increases subjectivity

d)

GLP prevents audits; QA discourages compliance

50.

Which statement best distinguishes random errors from systematic errors in analytical measurements?

a)

Random errors arise from instruments; systematic errors arise from people

b)

Random errors are large in magnitude; systematic errors are negligible

c)

Random errors affect accuracy only; systematic errors affect precision only

d)

Random errors fluctuate unpredictably; systematic errors are consistent

51.

Gross errors in food analysis are most accurately described as:

a)

One-time blunders often due to human mistakes

b)

Small unavoidable fluctuations around a mean

c)

Consistent deviations from true values

d)

Bias introduced by calibrated instruments

52.

Which source is commonly associated with gross errors?

a)

Slow or incomplete reactions

b)

Instrumental drift over long runs

c)

Matrix effects in complex samples

d)

Transposition and transcription during recording

53.

Random errors primarily impact which aspect of measurements?

a)

Precision of repeated measurements

b)

Trueness of the final result

c)

Calibration function definition

d)

Indicator color selection

54.

Which situation best represents a systematic error?

a)

A transcription slip during data entry

b)

A sample spill leading to one incorrect result

c)

A vibration causing occasional reading spikes

d)

An uncalibrated instrument giving consistently high readings

55.

Personal systematic errors can arise from which factor?

a)

Blank variability between runs

b)

Random environmental temperature changes

c)

Variable gains and losses bias in electronics

d)

Operator bias affecting judgment consistently

56.

An instrumental systematic error is best exemplified by:

a)

Glassware delivering volumes slightly off graduation

b)

Sample heterogeneity across aliquots

c)

Observer’s inconsistent judgment under fatigue

d)

Unpredictable mechanical vibrations during weighing

57.

Which description fits method systematic errors in analysis?

a)

Introduced by transcription mistakes in calculations

b)

Due to instability of instrument power supplies

c)

Caused by careless reading of the instrument scale

d)

Arising from non-ideal chemical behavior of the system

58.

Outliers are most often linked to which error type in food analysis datasets?

a)

Random errors from indeterminate variables

b)

Systematic errors from instrument drift

c)

Method errors from side reactions

d)

Gross errors from one-time mistakes

59.

Which is a typical source of random error listed for analytical work?

a)

Matrix effects altering analyte response consistently

b)

Environmental fluctuations causing unpredictable changes

c)

Operator bias influencing color endpoint repeatedly

d)

Uncalibrated volumetric glassware biasing results

60.

When are random errors considered unavoidable in measurement?

a)

They arise solely from analyst inattention

b)

They are always present to a small extent

c)

They happen only when using new instruments

d)

They occur only during poor reagent control

61.

Which practice is part of error control through quantification methods?

a)

Using non-ideal reagents to stress-test methods

b)

Ignoring blank corrections in calibration curves

c)

Relying on single unverified sample measurements

d)

Comparison with standards such as direct titration

62.

In external standard calibration, the primary goal is to:

a)

Detect and remove one-time transcription mistakes

b)

Eliminate all random fluctuations during analysis

c)

Match sample matrix exactly with the standard

d)

Establish instrument response versus analyte concentration

63.

Which statement about systematic errors is accurate?

a)

They shift results consistently in one direction

b)

They cannot affect measurement accuracy

c)

They are easily identified by brief inspection

d)

They are larger than all random errors by default

64.

Which assumption underlies external standard calibration in instrumental analysis?

a)

Instrument cannot distinguish similar signals

b)

Matrix effects are negligible across samples

c)

Standards must be chemically different from analyte

d)

Analyte response varies unpredictably with matrix

65.

Which issue is a common error source in external standard calibration?

a)

No contamination during sample preparation

b)

Unlimited number of standards available

c)

Perfect matching of standards to analyte

d)

Matrix effects altering the analyte response

66.

In standard addition, why is the sample spiked with known analyte?

a)

To change the chemical form of the analyte

b)

To reduce instrument sensitivity permanently

c)

To avoid using blanks during calibration

d)

To compensate for matrix effects in complex samples

67.

Which statement best describes internal standard methodology?

a)

Calibrate with blanks instead of standards

b)

Add a known reference species to all solutions

c)

Use only external standards for comparison

d)

Spike samples with multiple analytes randomly

68.

A suitable internal standard should provide a signal that is:

a)

Similar yet distinguishable from analyte

b)

Identical and indistinguishable from analyte

c)

Completely unrelated to analyte chemistry

d)

Invisible to the instrument response

69.

Which requirement must an internal standard meet regarding the sample matrix?

a)

Reactive with analyte to enhance signal

b)

Variable concentration across samples

c)

Present naturally in high concentration

d)

Absent from the matrix before addition

70.

Which step helps ensure accurate apparatus performance?

a)

Skipping calibration to avoid bias

b)

Relying solely on operator experience

c)

Calibration with a standard and external calibration

d)

Using only replication without calibration

71.

What is the main purpose of blank determination?

a)

Estimate errors from reagent impurities

b)

Measure instrument resolution limits

c)

Increase analyte concentration in samples

d)

Eliminate the need for internal standards

72.

Replication in measurements primarily aims to:

a)

Remove the need for recovery experiments

b)

Increase matrix effects intentionally

c)

Change the analyte chemical form

d)

Reduce likelihood of unintentional errors

73.

Recovery experiments involve:

a)

Adding known analyte standard to sample

b)

Subtracting blank signal from response

c)

Using multiple additions without spiking

d)

Diluting standards to match matrix

74.

For addition or subtraction of independent quantities, the propagated error ΔZ equals:

a)

Average of ΔX and ΔY

b)

Product of ΔX and ΔY values

c)

Sum of ΔX and ΔY directly

d)

Square root of ΔX² plus ΔY²

75.

For multiplication or division of independent quantities, the relative error az/z equals:

a)

Difference of ΔX and ΔY over Z

b)

Square root of (ΔX/X)² plus (ΔY/Y)²

c)

Sum of ΔX and ΔY divided by Z

d)

Square of ΔX plus square of ΔY

76.

Which statement about the purpose of error propagation is accurate?

a)

Replaces the need for replication entirely

b)

Quantifies precision and identifies error sources

c)

Proves the instrument is perfectly calibrated

d)

Eliminates all random and systematic errors

77.

If the observed value minus literature value is much greater than ΔZ, the error is likely:

a)

Systematic rather than random

b)

Random rather than systematic

c)

Instrumental noise only

d)

Due to rounding alone

78.

Which analyst practice supports reliable food analysis results?

a)

Maintaining focus and scientific attitude

b)

Skipping questions to save analysis time

c)

Avoiding reference samples entirely

d)

Relying on single trial measurements

79.

Which statement best distinguishes direct from indirect moisture determination methods in food analysis?

a)

Direct measures a property correlated with water

b)

Direct removes water and measures mass change

c)

Indirect yields higher accuracy without calibration

d)

Indirect removes water and measures gravimetrically

80.

Which major purpose of proximate analysis relates to consumer information requirements?

a)

Legal and labeling compliance

b)

Microbial stability evaluation

c)

Food processing control

d)

Nutritional quality estimation

81.

During sample handling for moisture analysis, which practice minimizes moisture gain from ambient air?

a)

Increase friction during grinding

b)

Delay weighing until room dries

c)

Use larger headspace containers

d)

Limit open-air exposure time

82.

In drying methods, moisture percentage is calculated primarily from which measurement?

a)

Sample volume change

b)

Infrared absorbance value

c)

Water activity reading

d)

Initial minus dried mass

83.

Which statement about total solids in drying-based moisture analysis is correct?

a)

Sum of bound and free water

b)

Mass lost before heating begins

c)

Material remaining after evaporation

d)

Only volatile non-water compounds

84.

Why are forced draft ovens often preferred for general drying when no standard method exists?

a)

Shortest constant-rate period

b)

Built-in vacuum control

c)

Highest infrared penetration

d)

Small temperature differential

85.

Which caution applies when using a forced draft oven on high-carbohydrate samples?

a)

Prefer vacuum drying below 70°C

b)

Use steam bath to prevent splatter

c)

Increase temperature to compensate

d)

Add calcium sulfate as indicator

86.

Vacuum oven drying enhances removal of water primarily due to which condition?

a)

Microwave energy excites dipoles

b)

Reduced pressure lowers boiling points

c)

Desiccant traps absorb liquid water

d)

Higher airflow raises temperature

87.

Which device in a vacuum oven setup monitors the gas flow rate to ensure consistent drying?

a)

Rotameter measuring airflow

b)

Digital analytical balance

c)

Calcium sulfate indicator

d)

Thermocouple probe

88.

When drying in vacuum, why should you avoid increasing temperature to offset cooling?

a)

Evaporation is endothermic

b)

Moisture migrates to warmer areas

c)

Viscosity decreases linearly

d)

Air trap saturates quickly

89.

Which factor most increases drying time in vacuum oven moisture analysis?

a)

Use of sand as dispersant

b)

Higher forced ventilation rate

c)

Lower surface area per unit weight

d)

Presence of metal shelving

90.

Which product category is commonly analyzed for total solids using infrared drying?

a)

Processed tomato products

b)

Fresh leafy vegetables

c)

Carbonated beverages

d)

Raw fish fillets

91.

Which key control factor is critical in infrared drying to avoid overheating?

a)

Distance between source and sample

b)

Ambient relative humidity

c)

Container headspace volume

d)

Sample color uniformity

92.

Microwave drying ovens measure moisture content primarily through which approach?

a)

Karl Fischer titration volume

b)

Water activity at equilibrium

c)

Infrared transmittance ratio

d)

Weight loss after microwave heating

93.

Which is a principal advantage of microwave drying for moisture analysis?

a)

Least affected by sample thickness

b)

Best for low-sugar fruits only

c)

Highest precision without calibration

d)

Rapid analysis reduces degradation

94.

Which precaution improves accuracy when using microwave drying?

a)

Use larger samples to reduce error

b)

Avoid weighing between cycles

c)

Increase oven temperature gradients

d)

Uniform distribution of microwave energy

95.

Which statement best characterizes Karl Fischer titration compared with drying methods?

a)

Uses infrared radiation for direct heating

b)

Requires vacuum to remove water physically

c)

Reports total solids on dry weight basis

d)

Chemical titration measures water stoichiometrically

96.

Which distinction between direct and indirect moisture methods affects routine analysis feasibility?

a)

Indirect methods favor routine use

b)

Direct methods avoid calibration steps

c)

Indirect methods remove water gravimetrically

d)

Direct methods require less labor overall

97.

Which statement best describes the principle of the Dean and Stark reflux distillation method for moisture determination?

a)

Moisture reacts with iodine to form HI quantified by titration

b)

Water’s capacitance change is read from dielectric sensors

c)

Water evaporates under vacuum and is weighed as loss of mass

d)

Water codistills with an immiscible solvent and is measured by volume

98.

In direct distillation (e.g., Brown–Duvel), what feature distinguishes it from reflux distillation?

a)

Water distills directly from the liquid without solvent codistillation

b)

Water is measured by electrical impedance change

c)

Water is inferred from refractive index readings

d)

Water separates after cooling with an immiscible solvent

99.

Which solvent is most commonly used in reflux distillation for moisture?

a)

Acetone as polar solvent

b)

Toluene as immiscible solvent

c)

Ethanol as drying solvent

d)

Benzene as miscible solvent

100.

Which advantage is associated with distillation methods over oven drying?

a)

Less thermal decomposition during analysis

b)

Faster than Karl Fischer titration

c)

No use of organic solvents at all

d)

Applicable to all high‑moisture foods

101.

Which is a common source of error in distillation moisture analysis?

a)

Emulsions between water and solvent hinder separation

b)

Incomplete mixing of titrant and analyte

c)

Calibration curve misfit for hydrometry

d)

Pressure effects on refractive index

102.

Which application is typical for distillation moisture measurement approved by AOAC?

a)

Fresh milk solids under AOAC 932.14B

b)

Raw leafy vegetables under AOAC 967.19

c)

Wine alcohol using AOAC 930.17

d)

Spices using AOAC Method 986.21

103.

Which limitation of distillation methods can reduce accuracy compared with weight‑based methods?

a)

Assumption of constant atmospheric pressure

b)

Water measured by volume rather than weight

c)

Requirement for a dielectric standard curve

d)

Dependence on refractive index of solutes

104.

Karl Fischer titration is based on the reduction of iodine by sulfur dioxide in the presence of water. What indicates the endpoint?

a)

Disappearance of milky emulsion in solvent trap

b)

Stable refractive index equals calibration value

c)

Appearance of dark red color due to excess iodine

d)

Plateau in weight loss on digital balance

105.

Which composition correctly lists classic Karl Fischer reagent components?

a)

Silver nitrate, ammonia, acetone as solution

b)

Iodine, sulfur dioxide, pyridine in specified ratio

c)

Iodine, hydrochloric acid, ethanol in equal parts

d)

Bromine, sulfuric acid, methanol in mixture

106.

Which food type is especially suited to Karl Fischer due to erratic results from heat methods?

a)

High‑moisture fresh vegetables

b)

Low‑moisture foods like roasted coffee

c)

Carbonated beverages with sugars

d)

Fermented dairy with live cultures

107.

Which difficulty can affect Karl Fischer measurements?

a)

Requirement for hydrometer temperature baths

b)

Moisture adhering to walls of the unit

c)

Necessity of toluene reflux at high temperatures

d)

Need for binary clear solutions only

108.

What principle underlies the dielectric method for moisture?

a)

Quantifying iodine consumption during titration

b)

Measuring electrical properties such as capacitance or resistance

c)

Observing mass loss during controlled heating

d)

Reading refractive index changes in clear solutions

109.

Which basis value supports dielectric moisture estimation in foods?

a)

Water’s dielectric constant around 80 at 20°C

b)

Sucrose’s refractive index around 1.33 at 20°C

c)

Toluene’s boiling point near 110°C

d)

Iodine’s endpoint colorless in ethanol

110.

What is a key requirement for reliable dielectric moisture measurements?

a)

Calibration with samples of known moisture

b)

Use of hydrometer for density checks

c)

Maintaining vacuum during extraction

d)

Cooling condensate to separate water

111.

Hydrometry most accurately measures solutions that are:

a)

Highly turbid with suspended solids

b)

Simple with one solute in a medium

c)

Supercritical fluids under pressure

d)

Multicomponent emulsions and gels

112.

Which is a common application of hydrometry in food analysis?

a)

Moisture in honey by AOAC 969.38B

b)

Protein in milk by Kjeldahl method

c)

Fat in meat by Soxhlet extraction

d)

Solids in sugar syrups by AOAC 932.14B

113.

What physical principle does refractometry rely on?

a)

Electrical impedance proportional to moisture

b)

Change in mass from heating to constant weight

c)

Redox reaction consuming iodine reagent

d)

Bending of light between media of different optical densities

114.

Which limitation applies to refractometry for food solutions?

a)

Cannot produce % solids or °Brix outputs

b)

Requires distillation before any measurement

c)

Restricted to clear, binary solutions without suspended solids

d)

Unaffected by temperature or pressure variations

115.

Which statement best describes the principle of the Soxhlet method for fat extraction?

a)

Condensed solvent drips through sample during heating

b)

Chloroform phase partitions lipids from aqueous phase

c)

Solvent continuously siphons over sample in thimble

d)

Acid digest releases fat measured volumetrically

116.

In the Goldfish method, how is solvent applied to the sample?

a)

Added once and allowed to soak sample without reflux

b)

Heated, vaporized, condensed, then drips through sample

c)

Mixed with acid to digest proteins before extraction

d)

Continuously flows over sample from boiling flask

117.

Which is a key advantage of semi‑continuous solvent extraction?

a)

Uses nonflammable solvents exclusively

b)

Measures fat by volumetric rise of fat layer

c)

Builds solvent in chamber to fully surround sample

d)

Requires no drying of high‑moisture samples

118.

What is a common limitation of continuous solvent extraction techniques?

a)

Possible channeling leads to incomplete extraction

b)

Requires centrifugation at 55–60°C

c)

Cannot determine phospholipids in milk

d)

Only suitable for dairy products

119.

Which set lists good solvent characteristics for lipid extraction?

a)

Reactive, oxidizing, and miscible with water

b)

Inexpensive, low boiling point, nonflammable

c)

High boiling point and high toxicity

d)

High polarity and strong hydrogen bonding

120.

During solvent extraction, which interactions are broken while covalent bonds remain intact?

a)

Ionic and metallic bonding

b)

Covalent and hydrogen bonds

c)

Van der Waals and electrostatic interactions

d)

Peptide and glycosidic bonds

121.

Why is drying a sample often necessary prior to solvent extraction?

a)

Water accelerates solvent evaporation

b)

Organic solvents cannot penetrate water‑rich foods

c)

Acids hydrolyze lipids only in dry samples

d)

Drying prevents oxidation during centrifugation

122.

Which step releases lipids bound to proteins or carbohydrates before extraction?

a)

Addition of nonpolar solvent

b)

Acid hydrolysis with 3N HCl

c)

Grinding at high temperature

d)

Cold nitrogen atmosphere

123.

What determines solvent selection efficiency for lipid extraction?

a)

Molecular weight of analyte only

b)

Ambient light intensity

c)

Color of solvent and sample

d)

Polarity of both lipids and solvents

124.

Which statement about polar versus non‑polar lipids is correct for solvent choice?

a)

Polar lipids dissolve in hexane solvents

b)

Non‑polar lipids dissolve in alcohol solvents

c)

Both dissolve equally in water

d)

Polar lipids dissolve in alcohol solvents

125.

Which method uses sulfuric acid to digest proteins and release fat for volumetric measurement in milk?

a)

Mojonnier method

b)

Folch extraction

c)

Babcock method

d)

Gerber method

126.

What temperature range is typical during Babcock centrifugation?

a)

55–60°C

b)

80–95°C

c)

35–45°C

d)

20–30°C

127.

Which is a limitation of the Babcock method?

a)

Requires drying high‑moisture samples

b)

Cannot determine phospholipids; remain in aqueous phase

c)

Needs chloroform partitioning for accuracy

d)

Only applicable to solid food matrices

128.

How does the Gerber method differ from the Babcock method?

a)

Employs chloroform–methanol mixture

b)

Replaces water with KCl solution

c)

Requires Mojonnier flask and ethers

d)

Uses isoamyl alcohol with sulfuric acid

129.

Which procedure partitions lipids into a chloroform bottom phase while aqueous top contains non‑lipids?

a)

Mojonnier ether extraction

b)

Babcock volumetric method

c)

Folch/Bligh and Dyer extraction

d)

Soxhlet semi‑continuous reflux

130.

In Mojonnier method, which solvents are used to extract fat?

a)

Hexane and ethanol

b)

Ethyl ether and petroleum ether

c)

Sulfuric acid and isoamyl alcohol

d)

Chloroform and methanol

131.

Which factor should be carefully controlled to prevent oxidation during preparation of lipid samples?

a)

High light exposure and warm temperatures

b)

Cold temperature, low light, antioxidants

c)

Alkaline pH and high humidity

d)

Strong stirring and large headspace

132.

Which advantage is associated with the Soxhlet method?

a)

Simultaneous extraction due to full immersion

b)

No solvent needed for lipid isolation

c)

Non‑destructive and rapid IR measurement

d)

Measures fat by rise in graduated neck

133.

Which step improves solvent contact by reducing particle size before extraction?

a)

Centrifugation at warm temperature

b)

Grinding or comminution at low temperature

c)

Oxidation under nitrogen atmosphere

d)

Addition of isoamyl alcohol

134.

Which statement distinguishes Soxhlet from Goldfish methods?

a)

Soxhlet partitions into chloroform; Goldfish into methanol

b)

Goldfish applies acid digestion; Soxhlet uses alcohol

c)

Both use volumetric fat measurement in bottles

d)

Soxhlet immerses sample; Goldfish uses condensing drip

135.

In the enhanced Dumas method, which gas is primarily measured by a thermal conductivity detector after CO2 and H2O are removed?

a)

Ammonia gas produced by alkali treatment

b)

Carbon monoxide formed during pyrolysis

c)

Nitrogen gas from combustion products

d)

Oxygen gas from the carrier stream

136.

Which statement best describes the principle of the Kjeldahl method for protein determination?

a)

Strong acid digestion releases nitrogen for titration

b)

UV absorption at 280 nm estimates protein content

c)

Combustion quantifies nitrogen via conductivity

d)

Copper ions form a violet complex with peptides

137.

What is the typical nitrogen-to-protein conversion factor used in the Kjeldahl method for mixed food proteins?

a)

5.70 adjusted for cereal proteins

b)

7.50 for high-lysine proteins

c)

6.25 as grams protein per gram nitrogen

d)

4.38 specific to collagen samples

138.

During Kjeldahl neutralization, adding NaOH converts ammonium sulfate into which gas that is distilled into boric acid?

a)

Carbon dioxide released by neutralization

b)

Nitrous oxide formed by reduction

c)

Hydrogen gas produced by base

d)

Ammonia gas liberated from solution

139.

Which advantage is associated with the enhanced Dumas method compared to Kjeldahl?

a)

Faster, automated operation without corrosive acids

b)

Greater specificity for true protein nitrogen

c)

Better precision for microgram protein assays

d)

Lower equipment cost than titration setups

140.

A sample measured at 280 nm relies mainly on absorption by which amino acids?

a)

Lysine and arginine residues

b)

Glycine and alanine residues

c)

Tryptophan and tyrosine residues

d)

Serine and threonine residues

141.

Which is a major limitation of direct UV measurement at 280 nm for proteins?

a)

Nucleic acids absorb and cause interference

b)

Requires complex chemical reagents

c)

Cannot be used on clear solutions

d)

Only detects proteins with copper binding

142.

In the Biuret method, what produces the characteristic violet-purple color under alkaline conditions?

a)

Zinc ions reacting with histidine side chains

b)

Iron ions chelating with heme groups

c)

Silver ions binding to cysteine residues

d)

Cupric ions complexing with peptide bonds

143.

Which wavelength is typically used to measure Biuret assay absorbance?

a)

At 500 nm for high proteins

b)

Near 750 nm for low proteins

c)

Exactly 280 nm in UV range

d)

Around 540 nm after incubation

144.

The Lowry method increases sensitivity by combining Biuret chemistry with which reagent?

a)

Ninhydrin color reagent

b)

Folin–Ciocalteu phenol reagent

c)

Bradford Coomassie dye reagent

d)

Ortho-phthalaldehyde reagent

145.

Compared to Biuret, the Lowry method is approximately how much more sensitive?

a)

50–100 times greater sensitivity

b)

2–5 times greater sensitivity

c)

5–10 times greater sensitivity

d)

150–200 times greater sensitivity

146.

Which statement about UV-visible protein methods is accurate?

a)

Chemical modification is always required

b)

Only scattering is used for quantification

c)

Proteins absorb or scatter light in UV-visible

d)

Absorption occurs only above 600 nm

147.

For Biuret assay standardization, which protein is commonly used as a reference?

a)

Gelatin from collagen as standard

b)

Lysozyme solution as standard

c)

Bovine Serum Albumin as calibrant

d)

Casein micelles as reference

148.

Which interference can falsely increase absorbance in direct 280 nm measurement, and what is a common mitigation?

a)

Turbidity from particulates; use multiple wavelengths

b)

High ammonium; increase alkalinity

c)

Bile pigments; add Folin reagent

d)

Lipid opalescence; switch to 750 nm

149.

Which disadvantage is common to the enhanced Dumas method?

a)

Slow manual titration steps

b)

High initial cost for specialized equipment

c)

Requires corrosive sulfuric acid reagents

d)

Measures only true protein nitrogen

150.

In Kjeldahl titration, the endpoint is detected after forming which borate species in the receiving flask?

a)

Boric acid trimerization complex

b)

Sodium borate from NaOH excess

c)

Potassium borate precipitate

d)

Ammonium borate from absorbed NH3