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Đánh giá cảm quan: Khái niệm và Ứng dụng (Phần 1)

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who is recognized as the pioneer who laid the foundation for the science of sensory evaluation?

a)

Professor Rose Marie Pangborn

b)

Professor Michael O’Mahony

c)

Professor Nicholas Kurti

d)

Professor Harold McGee

2.

In food product manufacturing, which set best captures the roles of sensory evaluation?

a)

Altering product design and process; risk reduction and cost control; quality monitoring and stability of stored products

b)

Marketing only; package design only; pricing decisions only

c)

Shelf-life prediction only; nutrient labeling only; regulatory audits only

d)

Factory layout planning; equipment maintenance; waste management

3.

In food research, what roles does sensory evaluation play?

a)

Linking raw material attributes to product sensory traits; developing products for specific preferences; connecting sensory with nutrition

b)

Measuring microbe counts; calibrating thermometers; approving packaging suppliers

c)

Managing payroll; planning logistics; training sales teams

d)

Testing only color stability without consumer input

4.

In market research, which combination describes applications of sensory evaluation?

a)

Ensuring products are safe, hygienic, and acceptable; gauging consumer acceptance and preference; tailoring products to demographic segments

b)

Determining tax rates; auditing financial statements; forecasting currency exchange

c)

Designing conveyor belts; optimizing boiler efficiency; scheduling maintenance

d)

Assessing vitamin fortification using chromatography only

5.

According to TCVN 3215:1979, which quality-scoring scale is used?

a)

A 20-point system built on a 6-level scale

b)

A 9-point hedonic scale

c)

A 100-point continuous line scale

d)

A 5-point just-about-right scale

6.

Which Vietnamese standard specifies scoring-based sensory quality evaluation for tea?

a)

TCVN 3218:2012

b)

TCVN 3216:1994

c)

TCVN 8373:2010

d)

TCVN 5603:2008

7.

Which standard covers scoring-based sensory evaluation for canned vegetables and fruits?

a)

TCVN 3216:1994

b)

TCVN 3218:2012

c)

TCVN 5603:2008

d)

TCVN 7024:2013

8.

Which standard specifies scoring-based sensory evaluation for white rice?

a)

TCVN 8373:2010

b)

TCVN 3216:1994

c)

TCVN 3218:2012

d)

TCVN 3215:1979

9.

When a panel scores product quality, how is the quality score for a single sensory attribute defined?

a)

The weighted mean of panelists’ scores using the importance coefficient for that attribute

b)

The highest score given by any panelist

c)

The median score without any weighting

d)

The arithmetic mean of all attributes combined

10.

Under TCVN 3215:1979, what is the importance coefficient for bitterness when evaluating beer?

a)

50%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

30%

11.

A company wants to test whether iced tea tastes different when packaged in glass vs. plastic bottles. Which discrimination test is most appropriate?

a)

Triangle test

b)

Paired preference test

c)

Hedonic ranking test

d)

Duo–trio test with constant reference

12.

For a session with 24 panelists where each sample needs 30 ml, how much of products A and B should be prepared for a triangle test (equal numbers of A and B)?

a)

1080 ml of A and 1080 ml of B

b)

360 ml of A and 360 ml of B

c)

2160 ml of A and 2160 ml of B

d)

720 ml of A and 720 ml of B

13.

For a 24-member panel in one 24-sample session, how many cups and score sheets are required?

a)

72 cups and 24 sensory score sheets

b)

24 cups and 72 sensory score sheets

c)

48 cups and 24 sensory score sheets

d)

24 cups and 48 sensory score sheets

14.

From 24 triangle-test ballots, 12 are correct. At α = 0.05, what is the conclusion?

a)

The two products are not significantly different at 95% confidence

b)

The two products are significantly different at 95% confidence

c)

Insufficient data to conclude

d)

The panel shows strong preference for sample A

15.

Which class do analytical tests such as discrimination and descriptive methods belong to?

a)

Analytical tests

b)

Affective tests

c)

Time–intensity tests only

d)

Consumer central location tests

16.

Which class do affective tests belong to?

a)

Consumer tests of liking and preference

b)

Analytical profiling by trained experts

c)

Threshold determination only

d)

Physicochemical assays

17.

Which value represents the unweighted mean across panel ratings when an attribute lacks an importance coefficient?

a)

The simple average of panel results for that attribute

b)

The weighted average using panelist expertise

c)

The highest rating observed

d)

The coefficient of variation

18.

Which standard substance is suitable for training umami perception in miso soup?

a)

Monosodium glutamate

b)

Citric acid

c)

Sucrose

d)

Caffeine

19.

Which standard substance is suitable for training bitterness perception in tea?

a)

Tannin (quinine)

b)

Sodium chloride

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Vanillin

20.

How long should descriptive panel training continue?

a)

Until members’ abilities become equivalent

b)

Exactly 2 weeks

c)

Until 100 evaluation sessions are completed

d)

Only until basic terms are defined

21.

Which method provides an ordered table of identified odors, their intensity, order of recognition, aftertaste, and overall sensation, and requires consistent interpretation by trained panelists?

a)

Aroma–flavor descriptive profiling

b)

Paired comparison test

c)

Time–intensity analysis

d)

Napping (projective mapping)

22.

Which statistical technique is used to analyze product groupings and identify sensory dimensions for descriptive quantitative data?

a)

PCA: principal component analysis

b)

Simple t-test on means only

c)

Median test only

d)

Randomized block without multivariate follow-up

23.

Which term is NOT acceptable for sensory description due to being odd or harmful in connotation?

a)

Strange flavor (vị lạ)

b)

Sweetness

c)

Astringent

d)

Roasted

24.

Which scale do panelists use in descriptive quantitative analysis for intensity ratings?

a)

A continuous line scale of 120–150 mm

b)

A 1–5 category scale

c)

A 9-point liking scale

d)

A 0–100 numerical box scale

25.

In descriptive aroma–flavor profiling, what do panelists generally use to record judgments?

a)

Sets of numbers and symbolic icons for attributes

b)

Free-form essays only

c)

Only yes/no checkboxes

d)

Instrumental chromatograms

26.

To assess liking for 5 orange-flavored carbonated drinks with 30 consumers, the treatment sum of squares is 40.52 and the residual mean square is 81.28. What is the F statistic?

a)

14.47

b)

0.49

c)

18.08

d)

17.74

27.

A Friedman test ranks five products P1–P5 with total ranks 110, 71, 57, 116, 96. Two judges tie for first and two judges tie for second on separate products. Which value is the corrected Friedman statistic F’(text) reported?

a)

34.45

b)

32.14

c)

35.54

d)

31.24

28.

In a preference test with four samples labeled A, B, C, and D, which conclusion is incorrect if the data do not support it?

a)

Sample A and D differ in liking level

b)

Sample A and B differ in liking level

c)

Sample C and D differ in liking level

d)

Sample B and D differ in liking level

29.

A panelist receives four coded samples in the order CDBA with codes 417-295-804-332 and reports liking ranks 295>804>332>417. Which is the correct order of preference among ABCD?

a)

4, 1, 3, 2

b)

1, 4, 2, 3

c)

3, 2, 4, 1

d)

2, 3, 1, 4

30.

In a paired-preference test comparing fruit juices A and B with 60 participants at α = 0.05, what is the minimum number preferring A needed to conclude A is preferred over B?

a)

31

b)

35

c)

39

d)

45

31.

When administering a threshold test, how should the server present samples?

a)

Give samples randomly without order

b)

Present all at once without sequence

c)

Deliver samples sequentially in the correct order

d)

Allow panelists to choose their own order

32.

Which application is NOT appropriate for an affective (hedonic) test?

a)

Product quality control

b)

Product optimization

c)

Consumer liking measurement

d)

Market segmentation

33.

A-not A test is used to determine if there is a difference between a company X’s fish sauce and a competitor’s product. With 24 untrained participants, each tasting 4 samples, what is the chi-square critical value at α = 0.05 (2 products)?

a)

3.84

b)

7.82

c)

5.99

d)

9.49

34.

In the 2–3 test, what is the correct serving protocol?

a)

Serve two product standards labeled R and one coded 3-digit sample

b)

Serve three samples simultaneously: one standard labeled R and two coded 3-digit samples

c)

Serve three coded samples with no standard

d)

Serve two standards labeled R and one unlabeled sample

35.

What is the serving protocol for the triangle test?

a)

Serve three identical coded samples

b)

Serve three samples at once with two identical and one different, randomized order

c)

Serve two samples sequentially followed by one reference

d)

Serve four samples including a standard

36.

What is the objective of the triangle test?

a)

Identify overall difference between two products

b)

Measure absolute intensity of saltiness

c)

Determine consumer purchase intent

d)

Estimate market share

37.

A yogurt manufacturer uses a triangle test with 30 untrained participants at 5% significance. Sixteen choose the odd sample. What is the correct conclusion?

a)

Storage time does not affect yogurt quality at 95% confidence

b)

Storage time affects yogurt quality at 95% confidence

c)

Training is required before concluding differences

d)

Results are inconclusive due to small sample

38.

A snack company wants to assess the effect of slice thickness on crispness using R&D in a sensory lab with repeated measures. Which test is most appropriate?

a)

Paired-preference test

b)

n-AFC difference test

c)

Ranking hedonic test

d)

Consumer central location test

39.

In instructions to panelists for a 3-sample soft drink test, what should the facilitator state?

a)

You will receive five samples of carbonated beverages

b)

You will receive three samples of carbonated soft drinks

c)

You will receive two hot beverages and one cold beverage

d)

You will receive three samples of bottled water

40.

If panelists know the brand of the samples beforehand, what psychological factor may influence results?

a)

Expectation bias

b)

Visual acuity

c)

Thermal adaptation

d)

Color blindness

41.

When references are blends of two companies’ coffee products, how should they be prepared?

a)

Follow generic coffee brewing rules

b)

Follow the preparation guidelines specific to each product

c)

Brew stronger than usual to accentuate differences

d)

Dilute to avoid caffeine effects

42.

Why should samples not be presented in visibly different containers?

a)

To reduce serving time

b)

To avoid panelist inference that biases sensory results

c)

To prevent temperature change

d)

To meet safety regulations

43.

What is the principle of anonymizing samples in sensory testing?

a)

Use alphabetical labels

b)

Use color codes

c)

Use 3-digit numerical codes for all samples

d)

Allow panelists to name samples

44.

Which aroma can increase sweetness when combined with flavor?

a)

Strawberry and caramel notes

b)

Black pepper and clove

c)

Garlic and onion

d)

Smoke and oak

45.

Which taste can enhance lemon aroma when combined with it?

a)

Sweetness

b)

Saltiness

c)

Bitterness

d)

Umami

46.

Sweetness can reduce the perception of which taste?

a)

Sourness only

b)

Bitterness, sourness, and astringency

c)

Saltiness only

d)

Umami only

47.

Which tastes can reduce the perception of chili heat?

a)

Sweet, sour, and salty

b)

Bitter and umami

c)

Only sweet

d)

Only salty

48.

What is sensory masking?

a)

When one stimulus is enhanced by another

b)

When tasting is influenced by totality of combined sensations

c)

When adaptation reduces sensitivity

d)

When panelists cannot detect any stimulus

49.

Two people taste two identical drinks with a tiny amount of sugar added. One detects sweetness and one does not. Why?

a)

Different expectation bias

b)

Different detection thresholds

c)

Different training level

d)

Different serving order

50.

Which threshold is the lowest intensity at which a sensation is identified as a specific quality?

a)

Recognition threshold

b)

Detection threshold

c)

Terminal threshold

d)

Difference threshold

51.

Which threshold is the minimum stimulus needed to elicit any sensation?

a)

Recognition threshold

b)

Detection (absolute) threshold

c)

Terminal (saturation) threshold

d)

Just-noticeable difference

52.

Which threshold is the intensity beyond which further increases in stimulus do not increase sensation?

a)

Recognition threshold

b)

Difference threshold

c)

Terminal (saturation) threshold

d)

Adaptation threshold

53.

Which threshold is the smallest change in stimulus that can be perceived?

a)

Difference threshold

b)

Recognition threshold

c)

Terminal threshold

d)

Adaptation point

54.

Which region is reached when increasing stimulus intensity no longer increases sensation?

a)

Sub-liminal region

b)

Saturation region

c)

Recognition region

d)

Expectation region

55.

Which region is where sensations are not yet formed clearly and remain within a noisy background?

a)

Sub-threshold region

b)

Recognition region

c)

Above-threshold region

d)

Adaptation region

56.

Which region is where sensations begin to form but are not yet distinct?

a)

Recognition region

b)

Formation region

c)

Emerging region

d)

Threshold region

57.

Which region shows rapid growth in perceived intensity with increasing stimulus?

a)

Below-threshold region

b)

Above-threshold region

c)

Recognition plateau

d)

Adaptation zone

58.

Which factor is a physiological attribute of tasters?

a)

Expectation from branding

b)

Serving temperature

c)

Structure of taste papillae

d)

Lighting conditions

59.

What is taste (vị giác)?

a)

A mechanical sense perceived by tactile receptors

b)

A chemical sense perceived by taste centers recognizing characteristic qualities

c)

A thermal sense perceived by temperature receptors

d)

An olfactory sense perceived by the nose only

60.

What is smell (mùi)?

a)

A chemical sense created by interaction between odor molecules and olfactory receptors

b)

A visual cue influenced by colorants

c)

A tactile sensation caused by carbonation

d)

A thermal sensation from capsaicin

61.

Which statement best defines vision in the context of sensory evaluation?

a)

Perception of sound waves by the ear

b)

Perception of color due to light rays striking the eye

c)

Perception of dissolved chemicals on the tongue

d)

Perception of odorants in the nasal cavity

62.

What is the fundamental nature of the stimulus for hearing?

a)

Mechanical vibrations of sound waves

b)

Dissolved ions in solution

c)

Volatile organic compounds

d)

Thermal gradients across the skin

63.

Where are taste receptors primarily concentrated according to the material?

a)

On the fingertips and lips

b)

On the surface of the tongue, palate, and pharynx

c)

Only on the tip of the tongue

d)

Deep within the esophagus

64.

What is the basic nature of the stimulus that activates vision?

a)

Chemical

b)

Mechanical

c)

Physical

d)

Electrical

65.

Taste stimuli are best described as which of the following?

a)

Insoluble particles adhering to papillae

b)

Volatile gases entering the nasal cavity

c)

Soluble substances or ions in solution

d)

Temperature differences across the tongue

66.

What is the basic nature of the stimulus for taste?

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

c)

Thermal

d)

Magnetic

67.

What is the basic nature of the stimulus for smell (olfaction)?

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

c)

Gravitational

d)

Electrical

68.

Approximately how many receptor cells does a taste bud contain?

a)

3–10 cells

b)

30–50 cells

c)

70–120 cells

d)

200–300 cells

69.

What is the typical lifespan of a taste bud cell according to the text?

a)

1–3 days

b)

7–10 days

c)

14–21 days

d)

1–2 months

70.

Where are taste buds located?

a)

Within taste papillae

b)

In the nasal epithelium

c)

Inside salivary glands

d)

On the retina

71.

Where are fungiform papillae primarily located and which taste do they most strongly detect?

a)

On the posterior tongue; bitter

b)

On the sides of the tongue; sour

c)

On the tip of the tongue; sweet

d)

On the root of the tongue; umami

72.

Where are foliate (leaf-like) papillae located and which taste are they associated with?

a)

Two sides near the tongue margins toward the root; sour

b)

Scattered across the dorsum; sweet

c)

At the tip; salty

d)

On the epiglottis; bitter

73.

Where are circumvallate papillae located and what are their characteristics?

a)

Anterior edge; smallest size

b)

Tongue margins; flat and numerous

c)

Tongue root; detect bitter and have the largest size

d)

Soft palate; detect salty

74.

Through which anatomical region is odor perceived?

a)

Behind the ear

b)

Behind the nose

c)

Directly in front of the nose

d)

Inside the oral cavity

75.

What cell type serves as the receptor for the sense of smell?

a)

Epithelial support cells

b)

Taste receptor cells

c)

Neurons (nerve cells)

d)

Hair cells of the ear

76.

What range of wavelengths is visible to the human eye according to the material?

a)

100–300 nm

b)

280–400 nm

c)

380–740 nm

d)

750–900 nm

77.

Which layers constitute the basic structure of the eye as described?

a)

Cornea only

b)

Three coats: outer sclera, middle choroid, inner retina

c)

Two layers: iris and lens

d)

Four layers including the vitreous coat

78.

Which cells are located in the retina and function in photoreception?

a)

Olfactory neurons and taste cells

b)

Cone cells and rod cells

c)

Hair cells and supporting cells

d)

Fungiform and circumvallate cells

79.

How many primary color pigments are noted, and which are they?

a)

Two: red and blue

b)

Three: red, green, and blue

c)

Three: red, yellow, and black

d)

Four: red, green, blue, and yellow

80.

What frequency range of sound can humans perceive as stated in the material?

a)

2–200 Hz

b)

200–2,000 Hz

c)

20–20,000 Hz

d)

2,000–200,000 Hz

81.

Which parts make up the auditory system mentioned in the text?

a)

Outer ear only

b)

Outer, middle, and inner ear

c)

Middle and inner ear only

d)

Pinna and auditory cortex

82.

Which test group is suited to the question: Do product properties change after processing?

a)

Affective tests

b)

Descriptive profiling

c)

Discrimination (difference) tests

d)

Time–intensity tests

83.

According to the council’s standard list, how many sensory attributes should be included at minimum?

a)

At least 5 attributes

b)

At least 8 attributes

c)

At least 10 attributes

d)

At least 12 attributes

84.

Which description best defines sensory evaluation (ĐGCQ) in the text?

a)

A casual tasting of products by untrained consumers

b)

A scientific method to evoke, measure, analyze, and interpret human responses to product attributes using vision, smell, taste, touch, and hearing

c)

A marketing survey of consumer preferences only

d)

A chemical analysis of flavor compounds

85.

What does the term “elicitation” (gợi lên) refer to in sensory testing?

a)

Statistical modeling of panel data

b)

A controlled preparation of experiments and serving of samples to minimize external influences

c)

Post-test interpretation of results

d)

Calibrating instruments for color measurement

86.

What does “measurement” (đo đạc) entail in sensory evaluation?

a)

Qualitative storytelling

b)

Quantifying panelist responses by scoring, describing, or comparing

c)

Only counting the number of panelists

d)

Weighing sample mass

87.

What is meant by “analysis” (phân tích) in sensory evaluation?

a)

Collecting and organizing raw data after the test

b)

Designing new products based on consumer feedback

c)

Cleaning the laboratory space

d)

Training panelists

88.

What does “interpretation” (giải thích) involve in this context?

a)

Explaining the obtained results

b)

Recruiting participants

c)

Serving temperature control

d)

Instrument calibration

89.

Sensory evaluation is closely related to which scientific domains according to the material?

a)

Astrophysics and geology

b)

Natural sciences and human behavioral sciences

c)

Only culinary arts

d)

Only marketing and finance

90.

Which three sectors is sensory evaluation tightly linked with?

a)

Education, government, and law

b)

Product manufacturing, product R&D, and consumer markets

c)

Farming, logistics, and retail pricing

d)

Healthcare, insurance, and policy

91.

To determine key sensory attributes of a food product using a council, about how many panelists are needed?

a)

3–5 people

b)

8–12 people

c)

20–30 people

d)

60 or more people

92.

To assess whether panelists perceive products similarly or differently across several items, how many participants are recommended?

a)

8–12 people

b)

20–30 people

c)

60 or more people

d)

At least 100 people

93.

To evaluate consumer liking of a single product, what is the minimum recommended sample size?

a)

30 people

b)

60 people

c)

100 people or more

d)

300 people or more

94.

Which rooms are essential for a standardized sensory laboratory as listed in the material?

a)

Only one combined tasting hall

b)

Waiting area, testing booths, sample preparation area, serving area, sample storage area, and discussion room

c)

Kitchen and office only

d)

Auditorium and warehouse

95.

Where should the waiting room be situated and how should it be furnished?

a)

Next to a noisy street; with televisions and games

b)

Like a hospital waiting room; with a few newspapers or magazines

c)

Inside the testing booths; with no seating

d)

In the preparation area; with cooking tools

96.

Which items are specified for a standard testing booth setup?

a)

Dining table, sofa, and decorative lights

b)

Bench, chair, sink, water supply, drawers, bell, computer, and standardized lighting and color control, with partitions not facing each other

c)

Only a standing counter and trash bin

d)

Refrigerator and oven only

97.

According to best practice, how many samples should a panelist evaluate in one session, and what is the optimal booth size per panelist?

a)

From 3 to 25 samples; 1 meter by 1 meter

b)

From 1 to 50 samples; 2 meters by 2 meters

c)

Exactly 10 samples; 0.5 meter by 0.5 meter

d)

From 5 to 15 samples; 1.5 meters by 1 meter

98.

What is the minimum size for an open partition used to separate tasting booths from each other and the work surface?

a)

Height 1 m, width 50 cm

b)

Height 50 cm, width 1 m

c)

Height 1.5 m, width 75 cm

d)

Height 2 m, width 1 m

99.

Which area should be allocated the largest space in a sensory laboratory layout?

a)

Panelist booths

b)

Sample preparation

c)

Data analysis office

d)

Sample storage (holding)

100.

Which psychological factor is specifically linked to coding, label information, and the way samples are identified?

a)

Expectation effects

b)

Physiological factors

c)

Social factors (culture)

d)

Time-on-task effects

101.

Which factor is most directly associated with how the samples are arranged or sequenced for panelists?

a)

Logical factors

b)

Physiological factors

c)

Social (cultural) factors

d)

Expectation effects

102.

A panel leader shortens rest breaks between samples to increase throughput. Which factor is most likely to compromise data quality as a result?

a)

Physiological factors

b)

Social (cultural) factors

c)

Expectation effects

d)

Logical factors

103.

There are 22 good practice principles mentioned for sensory evaluation. How many are identified as key principles?

a)

9 key principles

b)

12 key principles

c)

6 key principles

d)

22 key principles

104.

Which question is most appropriate for a paired preference test?

a)

Which sample is sweeter?

b)

Which sample do you prefer?

c)

Rank the samples from least to most preferred.

d)

Rate your preference using a scoring scale.

105.

During a hedonic ranking (preference ranking) test, how should servers present samples?

a)

Serve all samples at once in any order.

b)

Serve any order; order does not matter.

c)

Serve one sample first, then the rest later.

d)

Serve each sample sequentially following the prescribed order.

106.

In a paired preference test with 100 participants at alpha = 0.05, what is the minimum number who must choose A over B to conclude A is preferred?

a)

61

b)

59

c)

51

d)

55

107.

A hedonic ranking test yields total ranks: A = 156, B = 224, C = 88, D = 132 (letters indicate statistically different groups at p < 0.05). Which conclusion is incorrect?

a)

A and B differ in liking.

b)

A and C differ in liking.

c)

A and D differ in liking.

d)

B and D differ in liking.

108.

To determine whether two cookies differ in crispness, which test is most appropriate?

a)

Triangle test

b)

3-AFC test

c)

Paired-comparison for attribute (2-AFC)

d)

No available test is suitable

109.

A triangle test is conducted with 36 assessors at 5% risk. What is the minimum number of correct responses needed to conclude the products are different?

a)

30

b)

20

c)

15

d)

18

110.

What is the correct serving protocol for the 2-3 (duo–trio) test?

a)

Present three samples at once with reference R on the left and two coded samples on the right.

b)

Serve R first, then the two coded samples sequentially.

c)

Serve R first, then present both coded samples simultaneously.

d)

Present three samples at once with R on the right and two coded samples on the left.

111.

Which similarity exists between the Two-out-of-Five test and the A–not A test?

a)

The order of presentation is identical.

b)

They use the same decision tables.

c)

They use a constant reference sample.

d)

Each assessor evaluates three samples per trial.

112.

A 3-AFC test with 30 assessors evaluates whether two strawberry ice creams differ in aroma. With 17 correct responses at alpha = 0.05, which conclusion is appropriate?

a)

The products do not differ in strawberry aroma at alpha = 0.05.

b)

The products differ in strawberry aroma at alpha = 0.05.

c)

The products do not differ in strawberry aroma with no alpha specified.

d)

The products differ in strawberry aroma but significance is not established.

113.

In a hedonic difference test using LSD = 0.58, mean liking scores are A = 7.16, B = 6.69, C = 6.34, D = 6.28. Which pairs are significantly different?

a)

A vs B; C vs D

b)

B vs C; B vs D

c)

A vs B; C vs A

d)

A vs C; A vs D

114.

The Flavour Profile descriptive method primarily provides what type of description?

a)

Quantitative description

b)

Both qualitative and quantitative description

c)

Qualitative description

d)

Interaction-based flavour mapping

115.

During descriptor training for a descriptive panel, what should panelists do first?

a)

Memorize a predefined product lexicon.

b)

Independently evaluate samples to generate candidate terms, then discuss to agree on a common lexicon.

c)

Hold group debates about terms before any tasting.

d)

Search external definitions for existing product descriptors.

116.

Which of the following is an intensity descriptor of a sensory attribute?

a)

Aroma pleasantness

b)

Delicious

c)

Beautiful appearance

d)

Strong sweet taste

117.

Which standard is suitable for training sour taste for a pickled product?

a)

Zingerone

b)

Lactic acid

c)

Sulfuric acid

d)

Inorganic acid mixture

118.

What is the first stage in training assessors for quantitative descriptive analysis?

a)

Identify basic tastes

b)

Establish intensity scaling

c)

Develop estimation ability

d)

Develop sensory vocabulary

119.

Which statistical method is most appropriate for grouping products and identifying sensory attributes in descriptive quantitative analysis?

a)

Mean and standard deviation

b)

Radar network plots

c)

Principal Component Analysis (PCA)

d)

Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)

120.

Who is recognized as a foundational pioneer in the field of sensory evaluation?

a)

Professor Harry T. Lawless

b)

Professor Rose Marie Pangborn

c)

Professor Sarah E. Kemp

d)

Professor Hà Duyên Tư

121.

Which set best represents roles and applications of sensory evaluation in food manufacturing?

a)

Product improvement only

b)

Risk reduction and cost reduction only

c)

Quality control of stored products only

d)

Product improvement, process/formula changes, risk and cost reduction, and quality control

122.

Which test group best fits the question: Do products change when processing technology is altered?

a)

Affective tests

b)

Descriptive tests

c)

Discrimination tests

d)

All of the above

123.

For which test groups is an analytical “analysis” phase typically applied?

a)

Discrimination and affective tests

b)

Descriptive and affective tests

c)

Discrimination, descriptive, and affective tests

d)

Discrimination and descriptive tests

124.

Which international meeting on sensory evaluation has been held in Vietnam?

a)

QMFS: Quality Management and Food Safety

b)

EuroSense: European Conference on Sensory and Consumer Research

c)

Pangborn Sensory Science Symposium

d)

SPISE: Summer Program in Sensory Evaluation

125.

Where are taste perception centers primarily concentrated?

a)

On the surface of the tongue

b)

On the tongue and palate

c)

Tongue, palate, and gums

d)

On the tongue surface, palate, and pharynx

126.

Which of the following is a physiological factor of panelists rather than a psychological or social factor?

a)

Emotions and mood

b)

Anatomy of taste receptors

c)

Habits and behaviors

d)

Personal income

127.

The smallest stimulus intensity that allows a sensation to be detected is called the:

a)

Detection threshold

b)

Recognition threshold

c)

Difference threshold

d)

Saturation threshold

128.

Two people taste two similar glasses of water with a trace of sugar; one perceives sweetness and the other does not. What best explains this?

a)

Different detection thresholds between the two people

b)

Different recognition thresholds between the two people

c)

Different difference thresholds between the two people

d)

Different saturation thresholds between the two people

129.

Sweetness perception tends to be enhanced when combined with which aroma pair?

a)

Strawberry aroma

b)

Peanut butter aroma

c)

Caramel aroma

d)

Strawberry and caramel aromas together

130.

How is the principle of “sample anonymity” commonly implemented in sensory tests?

a)

Serving samples under controlled temperature and light

b)

Coding samples with three-digit blinding codes

c)

Balancing sample presentation orders only

d)

All of the above

131.

When preparing two instant coffee products from two companies for comparison, how should they be reconstituted?

a)

According to the instructions on a single generic label

b)

Both at the same concentration in 100 mL water

c)

At a fixed concentration chosen by the panel leader

d)

According to the preparation instructions on each product’s packaging

132.

Knowing the brand of a test sample can bias sensory results primarily due to which psychological factor?

a)

Cultural consumption habits

b)

Physiological health status

c)

Expectation effects

d)

Peer influence

133.

Which instruction should a test administrator give to avoid brand-expectation bias when serving three samples of carbonated soft drinks?

a)

You will receive three samples of Sting energy drink

b)

You will receive three samples of carbonated soft drinks

c)

You will receive three samples of orange juice from developed countries

d)

You will receive three samples of handmade vs. industrial cookies

134.

A snack manufacturer wants to study how slice thickness affects perceived crispness for R&D. Which discrimination test is most appropriate?

a)

Triangle test

b)

A–not A test

c)

Duo–trio test

d)

Tetrad test

135.

Which application is NOT appropriate for a consumer test of liking?

a)

New product development

b)

Market potential assessment

c)

Product improvement

d)

Quality control inspection

136.

When serving 6 carbonated beverage samples in a hedonic test, how should the server present them?

a)

Serve each sample sequentially following the prescribed order

b)

Serve all samples simultaneously without order

c)

Serve three samples once

d)

Any order is acceptable

137.

In descriptive analysis using a continuous scale, what is the typical length of the line scale used by panelists?

a)

Unbounded line labeled 0–9

b)

Free-length line chosen by the panelist

c)

Continuous line 120–150 mm

d)

Continuous line of 10 cm only

138.

The technique described as providing an ordered set of identified odors with their intensities, recognition order, aftertastes, and common sensations—yielding repeatable results with proper training—refers to which method?

a)

Quantitative Descriptive Analysis (QDA)

b)

Flash profile

c)

Texture Profile

d)

Odor profile method

139.

How long does comprehensive training for a descriptive analysis panel typically last?

a)

2 weeks

b)

2 months

c)

Until the panel decides to stop

d)

Until panelists’ abilities are equal

140.

In computing the average weighted score for one attribute in a quality scoring method, what value should be used?

a)

The best individual score for that attribute

b)

The arithmetic mean of panelists’ scores for that attribute

c)

Each member’s score multiplied by an individual weight factor

d)

The average of weighted scores for all attributes across the panel

141.

According to TCVN 3215:1979, which scale format is used for attribute quality scoring?

a)

Ten-point scale for each attribute

b)

Non-structured continuous line scale

c)

A 6-level, 5-point system built from a 10-point base

d)

A 100-point system mapped to 10 points per attribute

142.

Which Vietnamese standard specifies the method for sensory quality scoring of tea?

a)

TCVN 3216:1994

b)

TCVN 2818:2012

c)

TCVN 8373:2010

d)

TCVN 3215:15

143.

In TCVN 3215:79, what is the importance coefficient assigned to flavor in beer sensory evaluation?

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

40%

d)

50%

144.

A company wants to test whether the sensory quality of the same energy drink differs between two packages: can (A) and PET bottle (B). Which discrimination test is most appropriate?

a)

Triangle test

b)

2-AFC

c)

Paired preference

d)

3-AFC

145.

For the test above with 24 panelists where each sample serving is 30 ml, what total volumes should be prepared?

a)

1620 ml A, 540 ml B

b)

1080 ml A, 1080 ml B

c)

540 ml A, 1620 ml B

d)

2160 ml A, 2160 ml B

146.

For the same 24-person session, how many cups, codes, and ballots are needed?

a)

720 cups, 24 codes, 72 ballots

b)

72 cups, 24 codes, 24 ballots

c)

90 cups, 24 codes, 72 ballots

d)

24 cups, 24 codes, 24 ballots

147.

Why must all samples be presented in identical containers and appearance during a discrimination or descriptive test?

a)

To make serving faster

b)

To prevent bias from visual cues that could prime responses

c)

To make trays look neat

d)

To allow direct visual comparison of colors

148.

A participant receives three cups: two plain water and one with citric acid. The participant chooses a cup different from the other two but cannot name the taste. Which sensory region is involved?

a)

Subthreshold region

b)

Absolute threshold region

c)

Difference threshold region

d)

Saturation region

149.

What term describes “the smallest change in stimulus intensity that can be detected”?

a)

Detection threshold

b)

Recognition threshold

c)

Difference threshold

d)

Saturation threshold

150.

Which anatomical region houses the cochlea ("ốc tai")?

a)

Outer ear

b)

Eardrum

c)

Middle ear

d)

Inner ear