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GLIEM Section 7: Aviation Weather

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In a thunderstorm, what indicates extreme turbulence on the leading edge of cumulonimbus clouds?

a)

Frequent lightning and roll clouds

b)

Smooth stratiform cloud deck

c)

Virga with no lightning

d)

Calm surface winds

2.

Which condition is necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds?

a)

Stable, dry air

b)

Lifting action with unstable, moist air

c)

Strong surface temperature inversion

d)

Subsiding motion and low humidity

3.

Which thunderstorm stage is associated with continuous updraft?

a)

Mature stage

b)

Dissipating stage

c)

Cumulus stage

d)

Anvil stage

4.

Which event marks the start of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

Appearance of roll clouds

b)

Start of rain at the Earth's surface

c)

End of lightning activity

d)

Formation of stratiform cloud deck

5.

Which characteristic predominates during the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

Continuous updrafts

b)

Start of rain

c)

Predominant downdrafts

d)

Formation of towering cumulus

6.

Outside thunderstorm clouds, how far laterally from severe storms can shear turbulence be encountered?

a)

5 NM

b)

10 NM

c)

20 NM

d)

40 NM

7.

Why should you not attempt to fly under the anvil of a thunderstorm?

a)

Low oxygen levels

b)

Potential for severe and extreme clear air turbulence

c)

Icing only occurs there

d)

Navigation instruments fail below anvils

8.

What is a squall line?

a)

A warm front of stratiform clouds

b)

A non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms

c)

A ridge of high pressure

d)

A line of sea-breeze convergence

9.

Which statement best describes the hazard presented by a squall line to aircraft?

a)

Least intense turbulence of any thunderstorm type

b)

Single most intense steady-state thunderstorm hazard

c)

Weak winds with light rain

d)

Primarily affects visibility but not stability

10.

Which phenomena are commonly associated with squall lines?

a)

Destructive winds

b)

Heavy hail

c)

Tornadoes

d)

Gentle stratiform rain

11.

Airborne weather avoidance radar is designed primarily to identify which areas?

a)

Clear air turbulence

b)

Precipitation

c)

Mountain waves

d)

Temperature inversions

12.

Why can instrument weather conditions occur even when radar does not indicate clouds?

a)

Radar only detects wind shear

b)

Some clouds are not indicated on radar screens

c)

Radar detects only surface precipitation

d)

Radar misreads warm fronts as clear air

13.

How far should intense radar echoes be avoided?

a)

At least 10 NM

b)

At least 20 NM

c)

At least 30 NM

d)

At least 40 NM

14.

Before attempting to fly between intense radar echoes, how much separation should exist between them?

a)

10 NM

b)

20 NM

c)

30 NM

d)

40 NM

15.

Hail as an in-flight hazard is likely to be associated with which cloud type?

a)

Stratus

b)

Cumulonimbus

c)

Cirrus

d)

Nimbostratus

16.

Where may hailstones be encountered relative to a thunderstorm?

a)

Only within the rain shaft

b)

Only directly under the storm center

c)

In clear air several miles from a thunderstorm

d)

Only above 15,000 ft AGL

17.

When flying near thunderstorms, where should pilots anticipate possible hail especially?

a)

Above the warm front

b)

Beneath the anvil of a large cumulonimbus

c)

On the leeward side of mountains

d)

Within stratiform layers

18.

As a warm or cold front is about to pass, what happens to rain falling from the warmer air into air at or below 32 ∘F32\,^{\circ}\mathrm{F} ?

a)

It evaporates before reaching the surface

b)

It freezes as it falls

c)

It warms the surface air

d)

It turns to graupel after melting

19.

As freezing rain continues to fall, what does it turn into?

a)

Snow

b)

Ice pellets

c)

Supercooled drizzle

d)

Hailstones

20.

What do ice pellets indicate about conditions aloft?

a)

Snow at lower altitude

b)

Freezing rain at a higher altitude

c)

Dry adiabatic lapse rate

d)

Strong mountain waves

21.

What caution is advised when flying in or around freezing conditions, especially with autopilot engaged?

a)

Reduce airspeed to minimum

b)

Extreme vigilance should be exercised

c)

Disable pitot heat

d)

Descend immediately below 10,00010{,}000 ft

22.

During climbs or cruise with autopilot engaged in freezing conditions, what behavior can lead to a stall?

a)

Autopilot disengages at random

b)

Autopilot holds vertical speed or altitude regardless of deicing function

c)

Autopilot increases bank angle automatically

d)

Autopilot limits angle of attack

23.

What does light turbulence typically cause?

a)

Large altitude changes with loss of control

b)

Slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude

c)

No noticeable motion

d)

Structural damage

24.

How does moderate turbulence affect aircraft control?

a)

Control becomes impossible

b)

Aircraft control remains positive despite changes in altitude and/or attitude

c)

Only attitude changes occur

d)

Only altitude changes occur with no control impact

25.

Where should moderate turbulence be expected in terms of vertical wind shear?

a)

Less than 2 kt per 1,000 ft

b)

3 kt per 1,000 ft

c)

Exceeds 5 kt per 1,000 ft

d)

Exactly 10 kt per 1,000 ft

26.

Clear air turbulence (CAT) is typically found where and is not associated with which cloud type?

a)

Below 5,000 ft AGL; nimbostratus

b)

Above 15,00015{,}000 ft AGL; cumuliform cloudiness

c)

Near the surface; cirrus

d)

At mountaintop; stratiform cloudiness

27.

When wind flows over mountain ranges, how does it move relative to the slopes?

a)

Down the windward, up the leeward

b)

Up the windward, down the leeward

c)

Uniform across both sides

d)

Only along ridgelines

28.

Which hazard may affect a pilot approaching mountainous terrain from the leeward side?

a)

Forced into upward-flowing air by windward slope

b)

Forced into the side of the mountain by downward-flowing air

c)

No effect due to laminar flow

d)

Only icing concerns

29.

Under what conditions should wave formation be expected in mountainous areas?

a)

Unstable air with light winds

b)

Stable air at mountaintop altitude with winds of at least 20 kt across the mountaintop

c)

Surface inversion with calm winds

d)

Thunderstorms directly over the peak

30.

What is the most dangerous feature of mountain waves?

a)

Strong tailwinds on the windward side

b)

Turbulent areas in and below rotor clouds

c)

Smooth laminar flow above the crest

d)

Rapid warming on the leeward side

31.

When are convective currents most active?

a)

Cold winter mornings with strong winds

b)

Warm summer afternoons when winds are light

c)

During nocturnal inversions

d)

Only near coastlines

32.

What defines wind shear?

a)

Gradual change in wind over large areas

b)

Change in wind direction and/or speed within a very short distance in the atmosphere

c)

Only vertical wind speed change

d)

Only horizontal directional change

33.

At what levels and orientations can wind shear be present?

a)

Only near the surface in the horizontal

b)

Any level, in both horizontal and vertical directions

c)

Only above 15,00015{,}000 ft in the vertical

d)

Only within thunderstorms

34.

When is hazardous wind shear commonly encountered?

a)

During light winds and clear skies

b)

Periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms

c)

Only above mountains

d)

Only over oceans

35.

Which situation can produce low-level wind shear?

a)

Low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion

b)

Uniform temperature profile and calm winds

c)

Cold front passage with no inversion

d)

Sea breeze circulation

36.

During an approach, what may indicate possible wind shear?

a)

Stable power setting and constant vertical velocity

b)

Changes in the power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glide path

c)

Increase in groundspeed with constant indicated airspeed

d)

Only variations in lateral alignment

37.

What is the effect of a sudden decrease in headwind during approach?

a)

Gain in indicated airspeed equal to the increase in wind velocity

b)

Loss of indicated airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity

c)

No effect on indicated airspeed

d)

Immediate climb without control input

38.

When approaching for landing with possible wind shear or convective turbulence indicated, what should you do to avoid stalling?

a)

Maintain normal approach airspeed

b)

Reduce airspeed to minimum

c)

Increase approach airspeed slightly above normal

d)

Extend flaps fully regardless of speed

39.

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of

a)

heat exchange.

b)

the movement of air.

c)

a pressure differential.

40.

Moisture is added to a parcel of air by

a)

sublimation and condensation.

b)

evaporation and condensation.

c)

evaporation and sublimation.

41.

Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?

a)

Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.

b)

Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a line connecting the highs and lows.

c)

Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient.

42.

In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the

a)

right by Coriolis force.

b)

right by surface friction.

c)

left by Coriolis force.

43.

With regard to windflow patterns shown on surface analysis charts; when the isobars are

a)

close together, the pressure gradient force is slight and wind velocities are weaker.

b)

not close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.

c)

close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.

44.

What causes wind?

a)

The Earth’s rotation.

b)

Air mass modification.

c)

Pressure differences.

45.

Which is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front

a)

is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

b)

is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

c)

has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front.

46.

You have delayed your flight to allow a fast moving cold front to clear your destination airport before your arrival. What type of flying conditions would you expect after the front has passed?

a)

A fast moving squall line with high winds and thunderstorms.

b)

Clear skies with gusty, turbulent winds and cooler temperatures.

c)

Low clouds, reduced visibility and showery, misty conditions.

47.

On Surface Analysis Charts, widely spaced isobars indicate a

a)

weak pressure gradient.

b)

strong pressure gradient.

c)

relatively turbulent wind.

48.

While flying cross-country in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major wind system. This indicates that you

a)

are flying toward an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions.

b)

have flown from an area of unfavorable weather conditions.

c)

cannot determine weather conditions without knowing pressure changes.

49.

Which is true with respect to a high- or low-pressure system?

a)

A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.

b)

A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air.

c)

A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.

50.

Which is true regarding high- or low-pressure systems?

a)

A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.

b)

A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.

c)

Both high- and low-pressure areas are characterized by descending air.

51.

When flying into a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind direction and velocity will be from the

a)

left and decreasing.

b)

left and increasing.

c)

right and decreasing.

52.

What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas?

a)

Coriolis force.

b)

Surface friction.

c)

Pressure gradient force.

53.

The general circulation of air associated with a high-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is

a)

outward, downward, and clockwise.

b)

outward, upward, and clockwise.

c)

inward, downward, and clockwise.

54.

The wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is

a)

an anticyclone and is caused by descending cold air.

b)

a cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.

c)

an anticyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.

55.

There is a high pressure system that is located north of your planned route in the Northern Hemisphere on a west to east cross-country flight. To take advantage of favorable winds, you would plan your route

a)

on the north side of the high pressure area.

b)

on the south side of the high pressure area.

c)

through the middle of the high pressure area.

56.

During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the

a)

north and speed decreases.

b)

south and speed increases.

c)

north and speed increases.

57.

The strength and location of the jet stream is normally

a)

weaker and farther north in the summer.

b)

stronger and farther north in the winter.

c)

stronger and farther north in the summer.

58.

A common location of clear air turbulence is

a)

in an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream.

b)

near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high-pressure flow.

c)

south of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in its dissipating stage.

59.

A strong wind shear can be expected

a)

in the jetstream front above a core having a speed of 60 to 90 knots.

b)

if the 5°C isotherms are spaced between 7° to 10° of latitude.

c)

on the low-pressure side of a jetstream core where the speed at the core is stronger than 110 knots.

60.

The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by

a)

dust or haze at flight level.

b)

long, thin streaks of cirrus clouds.

c)

a constant outside air temperature.

61.

Which type of jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?

a)

A straight jetstream associated with a low-pressure trough.

b)

A curving jetstream associated with a deep low-pressure trough.

c)

A jetstream occurring during the summer at the lower latitudes.

62.

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

a)

Constant height above the Earth.

b)

Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

c)

Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.

63.

What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?

a)

-5°C

b)

-15°C

c)

+5°C

64.

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

a)

15°C and 29.92 in Hg

b)

59°F and 1013.2 mb

c)

15°C and 29.92 mb

65.

Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dew point temperature spread? The temperature spread

a)

decreases as the relative humidity decreases.

b)

decreases as the relative humidity increases.

c)

increases as the relative humidity increases.

66.

What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet?

a)

-15°C

b)

-20°C

c)

-25°C

67.

What is the standard temperature at 6,500 feet?

a)

15°C

b)

2°C

c)

38°F

68.

An increase in temperature with an altitude increase

a)

is an indication of an inversion.

b)

denotes the beginning of the stratosphere.

c)

means a cold front passage.

69.

Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

a)

Cirrus clouds.

b)

Nimbostratus clouds.

c)

Towering cumulus clouds.

70.

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at 2,000 feet MSL is 10°C and the dew point is 1°C?

a)

3,000 feet MSL.

b)

4,000 feet MSL.

c)

6,000 feet MSL.

71.

What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

a)

The method by which the air is lifted.

b)

The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

c)

The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs.

72.

Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?

a)

Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.

b)

Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.

c)

Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.

73.

Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, and showery rain?

a)

Stable, moist air and orographic lifting.

b)

Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting.

c)

Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism.

74.

Virga is best described as

a)

streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporate before reaching the ground.

b)

wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground.

c)

turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.

75.

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of

a)

lenticular ice formation in calm air.

b)

very strong turbulence.

c)

heavy icing conditions.

76.

As you approach an airport to land, you observe a convective cloud over the airport with virga below it. This could indicate

a)

smooth air.

b)

heavy rain showers.

c)

the presence of a microburst.

77.

Cumulus clouds often indicate

a)

possible turbulence.

b)

a temperature inversion.

c)

a dry adiabatic lapse rate.

78.

Clouds with extensive vertical development over mountainous terrain are a sign of

a)

a dry adiabatic lapse rate.

b)

a stable air mass.

c)

an unstable air mass.

79.

The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by

a)

the height of the tropopause.

b)

measuring the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

c)

cloud types and the type of precipitation.

80.

In what ways do advection fog, radiation fog, and steam fog differ in their formation or location?

a)

Radiation fog is restricted to land areas; advection fog is most common along coastal areas; steam fog forms over a water surface.

b)

Advection fog deepens as windspeed increases up to 20 knots; steam fog requires calm or very light wind; radiation fog forms when the ground or water cools the air by radiation.

c)

Steam fog forms from moist air moving over a colder surface; advection fog requires cold air over a warmer surface; radiation fog is produced by radiational cooling of the ground.

81.

Fog produced by frontal activity is a result of saturation due to

a)

nocturnal cooling.

b)

adiabatic cooling.

c)

evaporation of precipitation.

82.

Which in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with warm fronts?

a)

Advection fog.

b)

Radiation fog.

c)

Precipitation-induced fog.

83.

A situation most conducive to the formation of advection fog is

a)

a light breeze moving colder air over a water surface.

b)

an air mass moving inland from the coastline during the winter.

c)

a warm, moist air mass settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions.

84.

Advection fog has drifted over a coastal airport during the day. What may tend to dissipate or lift this fog into low stratus clouds?

a)

Nighttime cooling.

b)

Surface radiation.

c)

Wind 15 knots or stronger.

85.

What lifts advection fog into low stratus clouds?

a)

Nighttime cooling.

b)

Dryness of the underlying land mass.

c)

Surface winds of approximately 15 knots or stronger.

86.

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion?

a)

Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind.

b)

Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface.

c)

Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude.

87.

With respect to advection fog, which statement is true?

a)

It is slow to develop and dissipates quite rapidly.

b)

It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.

c)

It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.

88.

Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to

a)

minimum temperature occurring after sunrise

b)

outgoing terrestrial radiation peaking at noon

c)

temperature reaching a maximum closer to noon than to sunset

89.

Penetrating fog while flying an approach at night, you might experience the illusion of

a)

pitching up

b)

flying at a lower altitude

c)

constant turning

90.

What are the characteristics of stable air?

a)

Good visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds

b)

Poor visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds

c)

Poor visibility; intermittent precipitation; cumulus clouds

91.

Which would decrease the stability of an air mass?

a)

Warming from below

b)

Cooling from below

c)

Decrease in water vapor

92.

What is a characteristic of stable air?

a)

Stratiform clouds

b)

Fair weather cumulus clouds

c)

Temperature decreases rapidly with altitude

93.

Which would increase the stability of an air mass?

a)

Warming from below

b)

Cooling from below

c)

Decrease in water vapor

94.

Which is a characteristic of stable air?

a)

Cumuliform clouds

b)

Excellent visibility

c)

Restricted visibility

95.

Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass?

a)

Cumuliform clouds

b)

Showery precipitation

c)

Continuous precipitation

96.

What type of weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperature?

a)

Fog and low stratus clouds

b)

Continuous heavy precipitation

c)

Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds

97.

A moist, unstable air mass is characterized by

a)

poor visibility and smooth air

b)

cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation

c)

stratiform clouds and continuous precipitation

98.

If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be

a)

cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence

b)

cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence

c)

stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence

99.

The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon the

a)

source of lift

b)

stability of the air being lifted

c)

temperature of the air being lifted

100.

When an air mass is stable, which of these conditions is most likely to exist?

a)

Numerous towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds

b)

Moderate to severe turbulence at the lower levels

c)

Smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower levels with resulting poor visibility

101.

Which is true regarding the development of convective circulation?

a)

Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward

b)

Warm air is less dense and rises on its own accord

c)

Warmer air covers a larger surface area than the cool air; therefore, the warmer air is less dense and rises

102.

When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is forecast, one can expect what type of weather?

a)

Strong updrafts and stratominbus clouds

b)

Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area

c)

Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds

103.

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by

a)

water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land

b)

land absorbing and radiating heat faster than the water

c)

cool and less dense air moving inland from over the water, causing it to rise

104.

The difference found by subtracting the temperature of a parcel of air theoretically lifted from the surface to 500 millibars and the existing temperature at 500 millibars is called the

a)

lifted index

b)

negative index

c)

positive index

105.

From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?

a)

Atmospheric pressure

b)

The ambient lapse rate

c)

The dry adiabatic lapse rate

106.

The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and

a)

unstable, dry air

b)

stable, moist air

c)

unstable, moist air

107.

What are the characteristics of an unstable atmosphere?

a)

A cool, dry air mass

b)

A warm, humid air mass

c)

Descending air in the northern hemisphere

108.

What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorms?

a)

Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail

b)

Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static

c)

Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds

109.

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

Roll cloud

b)

Continuous updraft

c)

Beginning of rain at the surface

110.

The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with

a)

slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause

b)

squall lines

c)

fast-moving occluded fronts

111.

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and

a)

unstable, dry air

b)

stable, moist air

c)

unstable, moist air

112.

Which statement is true regarding squall lines?

a)

They are always associated with cold fronts

b)

They are slow in forming, but rapid in movement

c)

They are nonfrontal and often contain severe, steady-state thunderstorms

113.

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

a)

Mature

b)

Developing

c)

Dissipating

114.

Which statement is true concerning squall lines?

a)

They form slowly, but move rapidly.

b)

They are associated with frontal systems only.

c)

They offer the most intense weather hazards to aircraft.

115.

Which is accurate regarding turbulence associated with thunderstorms?

a)

Outside the clouds, shear turbulence can be encountered 50 miles laterally from a severe storm.

b)

Shear turbulence is encountered only inside cumulonimbus clouds or within a 5-mile radius of them.

c)

Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a severe storm.

116.

Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm.

a)

Updrafts continue to develop throughout the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm.

b)

The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm.

c)

The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm.

117.

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

The start of rain.

b)

The appearance of an anvil top.

c)

Growth rate of cloud is maximum.

118.

Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?

a)

The radar scope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.

b)

The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.

c)

The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.

119.

What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms?

a)

20 miles.

b)

30 miles.

c)

40 miles.

120.

Which situation would most likely result in freezing precipitation? Rain falling from air which has a temperature of

a)

32°F or less into air having a temperature of more than 32°F.

b)

0°C or less into air having a temperature of 0°C or more.

c)

more than 32°F into air having a temperature of 32°F or less.

121.

What course of action should the pilot take if encountering freezing rain?

a)

Climb because the temperature is warmer at a higher altitude.

b)

Descend because the temperature is warmer at a lower altitude.

c)

No change is necessary if all anti-ice/deice equipment is working.

122.

Hail is most likely to be associated with

a)

cumulus clouds.

b)

cumulonimbus clouds.

c)

stratocumulus clouds.

123.

The greatest threats to an aircraft operating in the vicinity of thunderstorms are:

a)

thunder and heavy rain.

b)

hail and turbulence.

c)

precipitation static and low visibility.

124.

If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least

a)

20 miles.

b)

10 miles.

c)

5 miles.

125.

Ice pellets encountered during flight normally are evidence that

a)

a warm front has passed.

b)

a warm front is about to pass.

c)

there are thunderstorms in the area.

126.

Which statement is true concerning the hazards of hail?

a)

Hail damage in horizontal flight is minimal due to the vertical movement of hail in the clouds.

b)

Rain at the surface is a reliable indication of hail aloft.

c)

Hailstones may be encountered in clear air several miles from a thunderstorm.

127.

Ice pellets encountered during flight are normally evidence that

a)

a cold front has passed.

b)

there are thunderstorms in the area.

c)

freezing rain exists at higher altitude.

128.

What is indicated if ice pellets are encountered at 8,000 feet?

a)

Freezing rain at higher altitude.

b)

You are approaching an area of thunderstorms.

c)

You will encounter hail if you continue your flight.

129.

Thunderstorms identified as severe or giving an intense radar echo should be avoided by what distance?

a)

5 miles.

b)

At least 25 miles.

c)

At least 20 miles.

130.

On initial climbout after takeoff and with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation you can expect

a)

ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA.

b)

the autopilot to hold the vertical speed, if the anti-icing boots are working.

c)

the increased airflow under the wings to prevent the accumulation of ice.

131.

You are avoiding a thunderstorm that is in your flightpath. You are over 20 miles from the cell; however, you are under the anvil of the cell. Is this a hazard?

a)

No, you are at a safe distance from the cell.

b)

Yes, hail can be discharged from the anvil.

c)

Yes, this is still in the area of dissipation.

132.

Airborne weather radar is installed to help the pilot

a)

penetrate weather between storm cells.

b)

avoid severe weather.

c)

avoid storm turbulence and hail.

133.

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as

a)

light chop.

b)

light turbulence.

c)

moderate turbulence.

134.

When turbulence causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, but aircraft control remains positive, that should be reported as

a)

light.

b)

severe.

c)

moderate.

135.

Turbulence that is encountered above 15,000 feet AGL not associated with cumuliform cloudiness, including thunderstorms, should be reported as

a)

severe turbulence.

b)

clear air turbulence.

c)

convective turbulence.

136.

The minimum vertical wind shear value critical for probable moderate or greater turbulence is

a)

4 knots per 1,000 feet.

b)

5 knots per 1,000 feet.

c)

8 knots per 1,000 feet.

137.

One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and

a)

below rotor clouds.

b)

above rotor clouds.

c)

below lenticular clouds.

138.

The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of

a)

stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

b)

unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

c)

moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge.

139.

When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the

a)

leeward side when flying with a tailwind.

b)

leeward side when flying into the wind.

c)

windward side when flying into the wind.

140.

Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are

a)

light.

b)

moderate.

c)

strong.

141.

During departure, under conditions of suspected low-level wind shear, a sudden decrease in headwind will cause

a)

a loss in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity.

b)

a gain in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity.

c)

no change in airspeed, but groundspeed will decrease.

142.

During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the

a)

amount of trim required to relieve control pressures.

b)

heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.

c)

power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.

143.

The Low Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) provides wind data and software processes to detect the presence of a

a)

rotating column of air extending from a cumulonimbus cloud.

b)

change in wind direction and/or speed within a very short distance above the airport.

c)

downward motion of the air associated with continuous winds blowing with an easterly component due to the rotation of the Earth.

144.

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

a)

It is present at only lower levels and exists in a horizontal direction.

b)

It is present at any level and exists in only a vertical direction.

c)

It can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction.

145.

Low-level wind shear may occur when

a)

surface winds are light and variable.

b)

there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion.

c)

surface winds are above 15 knots and there is no change in wind direction and windspeed with height.

146.

Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered

a)

near warm or stationary frontal activity.

b)

when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.

c)

in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.

147.

If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to

a)

wind shear.

b)

strong surface winds.

c)

strong convective currents.

148.

GIVEN: Winds at 3,000 feet AGL 30 kts; Surface winds Calm. While on approach for landing, under clear skies with convective turbulence a few hours after sunrise, one should

a)

increase approach airspeed slightly above normal to avoid stalling.

b)

keep the approach airspeed at or slightly below normal to compensate for floating.

c)

not alter the approach airspeed, these conditions are nearly ideal.