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Exam 2.2.2 Food Analysis

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes sensory analysis in food evaluation?

a)

Relies solely on instrumental odor detectors

b)

Measures nutrient content using spectrometry

c)

Applies chromatographic separation of flavors

d)

Uses human panels for taste and aroma

2.

Which factor is most critical when selecting an analytical technique for a specific food product?

a)

The number of personnel available

b)

The brand of laboratory instruments

c)

The marketing claims of the product

d)

The analyte or property to be measured

3.

Which source is appropriate for finding validated procedures for food analysis?

a)

Personal blogs by food enthusiasts

b)

Official method repositories like AOAC

c)

Vendor advertisements for reagents

d)

General news articles on nutrition

4.

Which criterion reflects accuracy in analytical method selection?

a)

Closeness of measured values to true values

b)

Ability to detect the lowest analyte concentration

c)

Consistency across different analysts

d)

Repeatability within the same laboratory

5.

A laboratory needs rapid results for safety testing. Which criterion directly addresses this need?

a)

Sensitivity: Lowest analyte concentration detectable

b)

Precision: Repeatability within one laboratory

c)

Simplicity: Ease of use by personnel

d)

Speed: Duration required to achieve results

6.

Why is categorization of food samples essential before analysis?

a)

Guarantees samples never change during extraction

b)

Eliminates the need for cleanup steps entirely

c)

Allows ignoring matrix complexity in measurements

d)

Ensures representative sampling and suitable methods

7.

Which step in sample preparation primarily targets analyte isolation from complex matrices?

a)

Storage maintains cold chain conditions

b)

Cleanup removes interfering substances

c)

Homogenization creates a uniform mass

d)

Extraction isolates the target analytes

8.

A method must detect an analyte present among similar matrix compounds. Which selection criterion applies?

a)

Specificity: Detects analyte despite similar compounds

b)

Safety: Low hazard reagents and procedures

c)

Official approval by ISO and AOAC bodies

d)

Matrix nature like polarity and optical properties

9.

Which formula correctly expresses moisture content by oven drying on a wet basis?

a)

wt of wet sample ÷ wt of dry sample × 100

b)

wt of dry sample ÷ wt of wet sample × 100

c)

wt H2O lost ÷ wt of dry sample × 100

d)

wt H2O in sample ÷ wt of wet sample × 100

10.

In oven drying, which calculation gives total solids on a wet basis?

a)

wt of dry sample ÷ wt of wet sample × 100

b)

wt of wet sample ÷ wt of dry sample × 100

c)

wt H2O in sample ÷ wt of wet sample × 100

d)

wt volatile solids ÷ wt of wet sample × 100

11.

Reflux distillation moisture is computed for a 50 g sample as:

a)

Volume of H2O × 2

b)

Mass of distillate × 2

c)

Volume of solvent × 2

d)

Volume of H2O ÷ 2

12.

Karl Fischer titration requires determining which parameter before sample titration?

a)

KFR water equivalence (KFReq)

b)

Sample response factor

c)

Ashing temperature

d)

Protein conversion factor

13.

Moisture by Karl Fischer is calculated using:

a)

%Moisture = S ÷ KFReq × 100

b)

%Moisture = S × KFReq ÷ Ks × 100

c)

%Moisture = KFReq × Ks ÷ S × 100

d)

%Moisture = Ks ÷ S × 100

14.

In the Goldfish method, fat is determined by:

a)

Sample’s weight loss or fat collected

b)

Ash remaining after incineration

c)

Increase in solvent mass after reflux

d)

Protein nitrogen converted to ammonia

15.

Which expression computes weight of fat in sample during continuous extraction?

a)

beaker ÷ fat

b)

(fat + thimble) − beaker

c)

beaker − (beaker + fat)

d)

(beaker + fat) − beaker

16.

Soxhlet (semicontinuous) fat on dry weight basis is calculated as:

a)

g of fat lost ÷ g of blank residue × 100

b)

g of fat in sample ÷ g of dried sample × 100

c)

g of fat in sample ÷ g of wet sample × 100

d)

g of fat recovered ÷ g of solvent × 100

17.

In discontinuous methods like Mojonnier, percent fat is computed using:

a)

peak area of methyl esters × response factor

b)

100 × {[(wt dish + fat) − (wt dish)] − (avg wt blank residue)} ÷ wt sample

c)

(beaker + fat − beaker) ÷ wt sample × 100

d)

g fat ÷ g dried sample × 100

18.

For GC fat by AOAC 996.06, results are based on:

a)

Peak height or area

b)

Karl Fischer reagent volume

c)

Titrant normality alone

d)

Dry ash weight

19.

Kjeldahl method initially converts sample nitrogen to which compound?

a)

Ammonium sulfate

b)

Nitric oxide

c)

Ammonium nitrate

d)

Urea

20.

In Kjeldahl, moles of HCl used in titration equal:

a)

Moles of NH3

b)

Moles of protein

c)

Moles of sulfuric acid

d)

Moles of NaOH

21.

Kjeldahl percent nitrogen is calculated using:

a)

%N = N HCl × g sample ÷ corrected acid volume × 100

b)

%N = 14 × g sample ÷ corrected acid volume × 100

c)

%N = corrected acid volume ÷ N HCl × 14 × 100

d)

%N = N HCl × corrected acid volume ÷ g sample × 14 g/mol × 100

22.

Which conversion factor is commonly used to express protein from %N?

a)

%N × 2.0

b)

%N × 5.0

c)

%N × 6.25

d)

%N × 0.16

23.

Total carbohydrates for labeling are computed as:

a)

100 − (%Water + %Protein + %Fat + %Ash)

b)

%Protein + %Fat + %Moisture + %Ash

c)

100 − (%Water + %Protein)

d)

%Fiber + %Sugars + %Starch

24.

Ash represents which component in food analysis?

a)

Total minerals

b)

Total moisture

c)

Total nitrogen

d)

Total carbohydrates

25.

Dry ashing typically occurs at which temperature range?

a)

800°C to 900°C

b)

250°C to 300°C

c)

100°C to 150°C

d)

525°C or higher

26.

Percent ash on wet basis is calculated as:

a)

M_wet ÷ M_ash × 100

b)

M_ash ÷ M_dry × 100

c)

(M_dry − M_ash) ÷ M_wet × 100

d)

M_ash ÷ M_wet × 100

27.

Which method is commonly used for declared protein in milk powder batches during nutrition labeling and QC?

a)

Dumas combustion rapid nitrogen screening

b)

Soxhlet crude fat extraction

c)

Kjeldahl (AOAC) total nitrogen determination

d)

HPLC-RID sugar profiling

28.

In high-fat matrices like cheese, what sampling precaution helps prevent nitrogen loss during protein analysis?

a)

Adding antioxidants during extraction

b)

Stratified sampling to reduce heterogeneity

c)

Drying to remove bound moisture

d)

Defatting to minimize nitrogen volatilization

29.

Which technique is used for crude fat in proximate labeling of edible oils and nut products?

a)

Soxhlet continuous extraction

b)

Accelerated Solvent Extraction

c)

GC-FID for fatty acids

d)

NIR rapid screening

30.

For frying oil quality assessment, which combination is applied to determine fatty acid composition?

a)

ICP-MS multi-element screening

b)

GC-FID/FAME analysis workflow

c)

HPLC-RID carbohydrate profiling

d)

UPLC fluorescence vitamin testing

31.

When collecting lipid samples to avoid oxidation, what container recommendation is indicated?

a)

Permeable plastic tubes

b)

Open, clear bottles

c)

Sealed, dark containers

d)

Uncovered metal dishes

32.

Which carbohydrate method is noted for routine QC quantification of sucrose, glucose, and fructose in cereal reformulation?

a)

GC-MS volatile analysis

b)

Colorimetric reducing sugar assay

c)

FT-NIR rapid screening

d)

HPLC-RID sugar profiling

33.

Matrix interferences from fiber during carbohydrate analysis may require which corrective action?

a)

Cleanup or correction steps

b)

Increasing oven drying time

c)

Defatting the sample first

d)

Adding spiking antioxidants

34.

Which moisture method offers more accurate water content in fat-rich or low-moisture matrices like chocolate powders?

a)

Dumas combustion

b)

Oven drying (LOD)

c)

Karl-Fischer titration

d)

NIR rapid screening

35.

During oven drying for shelf-life control in bakery QC, what sampling guidance is emphasized due to moisture heterogeneity?

a)

Apply stratified replicate sets

b)

Use representative sampling

c)

Select dark containers

d)

Perform solvent methylation

36.

Which instrument is applied for multi-element verification of mineral fortification after acid digestion?

a)

ICP-OES/ICP-MS platforms

b)

Atomic absorption spectrometry

c)

HPLC-PDA chromatography

d)

LC-MS/MS tandem analysis

37.

For single-element checks like Fe or Zn, which method is applied routinely?

a)

Karl-Fischer moisture titration

b)

GC-FID fatty acid profiling

c)

UPLC high-resolution testing

d)

AAS single-element analysis

38.

In vitamin analysis of fortified beverages, which approach improves speed and resolution for routine QC?

a)

UPLC with appropriate detectors

b)

GC-MS volatile additive screening

c)

ICP-MS multi-element scanning

d)

Soxhlet solvent extraction

39.

To prevent vitamin degradation during sampling and extraction, what selection is advised?

a)

Microwave digestion protocol

b)

Appropriate solvent and stabilizers

c)

Composite homogenization only

d)

Defatting prior to titration

40.

Which analytical method is employed for volatile additives among processed foods?

a)

HPLC UV absorbance

b)

Karl-Fischer reagent titration

c)

GC-MS targeted analysis

d)

ICP-OES elemental reads

41.

Complex additive matrices may require which sample cleanup technique before LC-MS quantitation of sorbates or benzoates?

a)

Solid-phase extraction (SPE)

b)

Defatting with petroleum ether

c)

QuEChERS partitioning

d)

Microwave acid digestion

42.

For routine multi-residue pesticide monitoring, which pairing is standard after QuEChERS cleanup?

a)

HPLC-RID carbohydrate detection

b)

GC-FID fatty acid workflow

c)

AAS single-element screening

d)

LC-MS/MS tandem detection

43.

Aflatoxins and mycotoxins in grains at low microgram-per-kilogram levels are typically detected using which method?

a)

LC-MS/MS sensitive analysis

b)

UV-Vis dye measurement

c)

ICP-OES elemental profiling

d)

Soxhlet crude fat assay

44.

Heavy metals like Pb and Cd in spices and seafood are measured with which technique?

a)

ICP-MS trace metal analysis

b)

Karl-Fischer titrimetric moisture

c)

HPLC-PDA absorbance assays

d)

GC-MS volatile fractionation

45.

When contamination is heterogeneous, which sampling strategy is recommended to improve representativeness?

a)

Duplicate Soxhlet extraction

b)

Sequential aliquot drying

c)

Single grab sampling

d)

Stratified/composite sampling

46.

What sample preparation step helps reduce matrix suppression in MS-based contaminant analyses?

a)

Robust cleanup using QuEChERS or SPE

b)

Extended oven drying of aliquots

c)

Addition of antioxidants to extracts

d)

Defatting followed by NIR screening

47.

Which statistic best estimates the true value of an analyte from replicate measurements?

a)

Median of replicate values

b)

Mode of replicate values

c)

Mean of replicate values

d)

Range of replicate values

48.

Standard deviation in analytical chemistry primarily measures what aspect of data?

a)

Instrument calibration slope

b)

Central value location

c)

Systematic bias magnitude

d)

Scatter around the mean

49.

Which statement about coefficient of variation (CV) is correct?

a)

CV is mean divided by standard deviation

b)

CV is standard deviation divided by mean

c)

CV equals variance times sample size

d)

CV is range divided by sample size

50.

A low CV in replicate measurements indicates what?

a)

Significant systematic error

b)

High precision of the method

c)

High accuracy of the method

d)

Large random variation

51.

For N replicate results xi, which formula expresses sample standard deviation s?

a)

s = Σ(xi − x̄) / N

b)

s = √[Σ(xi − x̄)² / (N − 1)]

c)

s = Σ(xi)/N

d)

s = (xmax − xmin)/N

52.

Confidence interval around the mean is typically expressed as:

a)

x̄ ± s·t·N

b)

x̄ ± t/(s√N)

c)

x̄ ± N/s·t

d)

x̄ ± t·s/√N

53.

The t-test is used in food analysis to:

a)

Estimate detection limits

b)

Compare variances among groups

c)

Construct calibration curves

d)

Compare means of two groups

54.

ANOVA is appropriate when the goal is to:

a)

Compare three or more group means

b)

Compare two group means

c)

Detect instrument drift over time

d)

Estimate a single population mean

55.

In regression-based calibration, the instrument response y is modeled as:

a)

y = x/b − m

b)

y = b/x + m

c)

y = m·x + b

d)

y = m + x + b

56.

A high R² value close to 1.0 in a calibration curve indicates:

a)

Nonlinear instrument response

b)

Strong linear relationship

c)

Large residual standard deviation

d)

High detection limit for analyte

57.

Which criterion allows rejecting a questionable data point using the Q-test?

a)

Q calculated equal to sample mean

b)

Q calculated less than table value

c)

Q calculated equal to zero

d)

Q calculated larger than table value

58.

For the Q-test, the spread W used in calculation is defined as:

a)

Average of all replicate values

b)

Difference between highest and lowest

c)

Product of extreme values

d)

Sum of all values measured

59.

Interpreting analytical results should include which action when unusually high values appear?

a)

Discard without documentation

b)

Average with other results

c)

Repeat testing and validation

d)

Report with no comment

60.

Which practice strengthens internal validation when explaining final results?

a)

Using certified reference materials

b)

Ignoring blank corrections

c)

Rounding to fewer significant figures

d)

Only reporting nominal values

61.

Percent recovery in external validation is calculated as:

a)

(Conc. unspiked − Conc. spiked)/Spike added

b)

(Conc. spiked − Conc. unspiked)/Spike added

c)

Spike added/(Conc. spiked − Conc. unspiked)

d)

(Conc. spiked + Conc. unspiked)/Spike added

62.

Which statement best describes how an electronic nose generates a “smell fingerprint” for food analysis?

a)

It uses non-selective sensors converting chemical signals to electrical patterns

b)

It measures temperature changes from enzymatic reactions in food

c)

It relies on human tasters to calibrate sensor outputs

d)

It isolates single volatile molecules for targeted detection

63.

Which algorithm is most suitable for reducing dimensionality of complex e-nose signal datasets before classification?

a)

Support Vector Machines for hyperplane separation

b)

Artificial neural networks for deep feature extraction

c)

Linear Discriminant Analysis for group mean separation

d)

Principal Component Analysis for variance-based projection

64.

An e-nose reports a pattern indicating increased amines and sulfur volatiles in stored fish. What is the most appropriate interpretation for quality control?

a)

Spoilage is likely due to microbial degradation

b)

Sensor drift caused random signal variation

c)

Adulteration with non-fish proteins occurred

d)

Freshness has improved during cold storage

65.

Which application best aligns with using e-noses to detect food adulteration rather than spoilage?

a)

Classifying fruit ripeness by ester profiles

b)

Identifying papaya seeds mixed with peppercorns

c)

Predicting shelf-life of packaged bread

d)

Monitoring fermentation consistency in yogurt

66.

Which advantage of e-noses directly contrasts with traditional human sensory panels?

a)

Non-destructive sampling of food matrices

b)

Objective and repeatable measurements

c)

Rapid analysis in minutes

d)

Enhanced aroma intensity perception

67.

A manufacturer needs to decide if incoming wine shipments are authentic. Which workflow is most appropriate for the e-nose system?

a)

Measure pH, compare to supplier certificate, accept shipment

b)

Run GC-MS, manually compare peaks without algorithms

c)

Collect volatile profile, apply PCA, classify with LDA or SVM

d)

Heat samples to increase aroma, rely on operator judgment

68.

Which limitation most likely affects long-term deployment of e-noses in production lines?

a)

Sensor drift requiring recalibration over time

b)

Excessive sample destruction during testing

c)

Lack of any pattern recognition methods

d)

Inability to detect any volatile compounds

69.

Which statement best describes the equilibrium concept in SPME?

a)

Analytes irreversibly bind to fiber coating

b)

Fiber releases analytes to sample continuously

c)

A balance forms between sample and coating

d)

Analytes precipitate out of solution instantly

70.

What is the primary role of the SPME fiber coating during extraction?

a)

Dilute the analytes for easier injection

b)

Increase sample temperature for desorption

c)

Act like a magnet for specific analytes

d)

Catalyze reactions in the sample

71.

Which feature makes SPME considered a greener sample preparation method?

a)

Uses large solvent volumes for washing

b)

Requires extensive sample derivatization steps

c)

Performs sampling and concentration without solvents

d)

Depends on high-pressure liquid flows

72.

During SPME, how do analytes move from the sample to the fiber?

a)

They are electrochemically reduced onto fiber

b)

They crystallize onto the fiber surface

c)

They naturally diffuse toward attractive coating

d)

They are pumped mechanically into coating

73.

After extraction, where is the SPME fiber typically inserted for analysis?

a)

Into a UV-Vis cuvette

b)

Into a lyophilizer chamber

c)

Into GC or HPLC instruments

d)

Into a centrifuge rotor

74.

Which setup is specifically designed to sample volatile analytes above a liquid or solid?

a)

Fiber-in-solution immersion

b)

In-tube microextraction mode

c)

Thin-film microextraction mode

d)

Headspace SPME configuration

75.

Which pair lists adsorbent families commonly used to enhance SPME performance?

a)

Enzymes and phospholipids

b)

CNTs and MOFs

c)

Cellulose and starch

d)

Proteins and peptides

76.

Which statement correctly contrasts fiber-based and thin-film microextraction?

a)

Fibers only work in headspace modes

b)

Thin films offer larger surface area than fibers

c)

Fibers provide larger area than thin films

d)

Thin films require solvents while fibers do not

77.

Which factor does the working approach of SPME depend on?

a)

The price of the instrument

b)

The color of the coating

c)

The pH of laboratory air

d)

The origin of the analyte

78.

In the magnetic SPME method for ascorbic acid by Su et al. (2020), which material served as the adsorbent?

a)

Iron oxide-based magnetic adsorbent

b)

Silver nanoparticle composite

c)

Titanium dioxide-coated fiber

d)

Carbon nanotube thin film

79.

What performance outcome was highlighted for PCB removal from milk using MoS2/RGO fiber coating?

a)

Formation of stable PCB emulsions

b)

Complete solvent dissolution of PCBs

c)

Rapid enzymatic degradation of PCBs

d)

Detection of PCBs at ultra-trace levels

80.

Which technique combination was used to determine selenium after magnetic SPME in food?

a)

GC-MS with derivatization

b)

ETAAS following magnetic SPME

c)

HPLC with fluorescence detection

d)

ICP-OES without preconcentration

81.

Which statement best describes liquid-phase microextraction (LPME) in food analysis?

a)

Uses tiny organic solvent for analyte transfer

b)

Relies on large solvent volumes for extraction

c)

Requires strong heating of aqueous samples

d)

Depends on solid sorbents for analyte capture

82.

In LPME, which phase typically acts as the donor phase?

a)

Membrane polymer phase

b)

Supercritical CO2 stream

c)

Organic acceptor solvent

d)

Aqueous sample matrix

83.

What is the main role of the acceptor phase in LPME?

a)

Remove particulate matter

b)

Stabilize membrane pores

c)

Provide sample dilution

d)

Collect concentrated analytes

84.

Why are membranes with very small pores used in HF-LPME setups?

a)

Accelerate solvent evaporation

b)

Trap proteins as analytes

c)

Permit small target molecules

d)

Increase sample turbulence

85.

Which instrument is commonly used to analyze LPME extracts containing concentrated analytes?

a)

Atomic force microscopes

b)

Gas chromatography systems

c)

Titration burettes

d)

X-ray diffraction units

86.

Which LPME variant uses a single droplet of organic solvent at a syringe tip?

a)

Ionic liquid DLLME

b)

Single-drop microextraction

c)

Membrane-assisted extraction

d)

Hollow-fiber LPME

87.

Which application pairs correctly with its LPME method from recent studies?

a)

Cadmium detection via VA-DES-ELLME

b)

Milk sulfonamides via GC–FID

c)

Cobalt in foods via UV/Vis

d)

Wine catechins via MI-LLME

88.

Which mass spectrometry technique is most widely used for wine polyphenol profiling?

a)

Ambient MS

b)

LC–MS platforms

c)

HRMS only

d)

GC×GC–MS

89.

Which compounds are typically targeted by HPLC–MS or UPLC–MS in wines?

a)

Metal ions

b)

Fat-soluble vitamins

c)

Protein allergens

d)

Catechins and quercetin

90.

What advantage does GC×GC–MS offer in wine polyphenol analysis?

a)

Better differentiation by origin

b)

Lower solvent consumption

c)

Non-contact ionization mode

d)

Real-time fermentation control

91.

Ambient MS techniques in wine analysis are characterized by which feature?

a)

Rapid, solvent-free sampling

b)

High-temperature derivatization

c)

Extensive chromatographic steps

d)

Requirement of vacuum systems

92.

Which benefit aligns with green chemistry goals in supercritical CO2 extraction?

a)

Enhanced protein precipitation

b)

Greater metal chelation capacity

c)

No harmful solvent residues

d)

Higher boiling point solvents

93.

Supercritical CO2 behaves like both a liquid and a gas. What practical outcome does this enable during extraction?

a)

Thermal degradation of pigments

b)

Ionic exchange within membranes

c)

Evaporation-resistant analytes

d)

Efficient penetration and dissolution

94.

Which target compounds are emphasized for SC-CO2 extraction from microalgae?

a)

Inorganic salts and metals

b)

Sugars and organic acids

c)

Polysaccharides and peptides

d)

Carotenoids and fat-soluble vitamins

95.

What was demonstrated by using a design of experiments (DoE) in optimizing SC-CO2 extraction?

a)

High recovery with maintained bioactivity

b)

Need for extreme temperatures

c)

Reduced selectivity and purity

d)

Preference for aqueous donors

96.

Which statement reflects a key advantage of SC-CO2 for heat-sensitive compounds?

a)

Higher boiling points protect analytes

b)

Reactive radicals enhance stability

c)

Gentle conditions minimize degradation

d)

Membrane pores retain pigments