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Chapter 3: Nutrition and the Human Body

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which definition best aligns with functional foods as described by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics?

a)

Whole foods plus fortification with health benefits

b)

Any low-calorie foods that aid weight loss

c)

Highly processed foods engineered for taste only

d)

Medicinal supplements replacing regular meals

2.

Which statement accurately distinguishes probiotics from prebiotics?

a)

Probiotics and prebiotics both refer to the same live cultures

b)

Prebiotics are antibiotics that kill harmful bacteria

c)

Probiotics are dietary fibers; prebiotics are live gut bacteria

d)

Probiotics are live beneficial microbes; prebiotics are non-digestible fibers

3.

Select all foods that commonly contain probiotics. Select all that apply.

a)

Yogurt and some cheeses

b)

Garlic, onions, asparagus

c)

Kefir, tempeh, kombucha

d)

Fermented vegetables like kimchi

4.

Which options list typical sources of prebiotics? Select all that apply.

a)

Asparagus and leeks

b)

Kefir and yogurt

c)

Bananas and oats

d)

Garlic and onions

5.

Recent studies associate probiotic supplementation with which downstream effect?

a)

Enhanced intestinal microbial balance supporting immune function

b)

Immediate elimination of all gut pathogens

c)

Complete replacement of dietary fiber requirements

d)

Permanent alteration of human genetic material

6.

The term kefir originates from a Turkish word meaning what?

a)

Pleasure or good feeling

b)

Culture or fermentation

c)

Medicine or cure-all

d)

Milk or dairy drink

7.

Which narrative element helped spread kefir beyond the Caucasus according to the story?

a)

Global television advertising campaigns

b)

Discovery in a modern biotechnology lab

c)

Government health mandates and taxation

d)

Corporate intrigue and a prince’s kidnapping

8.

Which structure is NOT part of the primary continuous tube of the alimentary canal?

a)

Pharynx

b)

Pancreas

c)

Esophagus

d)

Rectum

9.

Which pair correctly distinguishes mechanical from chemical digestion in the mouth?

a)

Bolus formation is chemical; mastication is enzymatic

b)

Peristalsis grinds food; mastication secretes proteases

c)

Saliva moistens food; mastication releases amylase enzymes

d)

Mastication breaks food; saliva enzymes begin hydrolysis

10.

What term describes the wave-like muscular contractions that propel the bolus down the esophagus?

a)

Pendular motion

b)

Peristalsis

c)

Segmentation

d)

Tonicity

11.

During swallowing, which structure closes to prevent food entering the trachea?

a)

Soft palate

b)

Glottis

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Uvula

12.

Arrange the early digestive steps: choose the option that lists them in correct order from mouth to stomach entry.

a)

Mastication, peristalsis, ingestion, bolus forms

b)

Bolus forms, mastication begins, peristalsis, sphincter opens

c)

Ingestion triggers salivation, mastication, bolus forms, peristalsis

d)

Peristalsis, bolus forms, ingestion, sphincter opens

13.

Which statement best describes the bolus?

a)

A semi-solid mass formed by gastric mixing

b)

A lipid micelle created by bile salts

c)

A protein-rich chyme produced by stomach acid

d)

A slippery mass of chewed food pushed by the tongue

14.

Which salivary glands contribute enzymes to begin chemical digestion in the mouth?

a)

Adrenal, pituitary, thyroid glands

b)

Brunner’s, Peyer’s, Lieberkühn glands

c)

Pancreatic, hepatic, gastric glands

d)

Parotid, sublingual, submandibular glands

15.

What is the function of the lower esophageal sphincter during the swallowing process?

a)

Prevents air into the esophagus during breathing

b)

Grinds food before stomach entry

c)

Acts as a one-way door allowing bolus into stomach

d)

Secretes enzymes initiating protein digestion

16.

In the esophagus, transit speed differs for solids and liquids. Which timing is accurate?

a)

Solids and liquids both ~5 sec

b)

Solids: ~1 sec; Liquids: 4–8 sec

c)

Solids: 4–8 sec; Liquids: ~1 sec

d)

Solids: 10–15 sec; Liquids: 4–8 sec

17.

Which statement best describes chyme as it leaves the stomach and enters the duodenum?

a)

A semiliquid mix of partially digested food

b)

A dry bolus of unaltered swallowed materials

c)

A gaseous suspension produced by peristalsis

d)

A fully absorbed solution of nutrients

18.

Which component of gastric juice primarily creates the stomach’s highly acidic environment?

a)

Hydrochloric acid secreted by parietal cells

b)

Amylase secreted in saliva

c)

Bicarbonate ions released by pancreas

d)

Bile acids stored in gallbladder

19.

In the stomach, which combination correctly pairs mechanical action with its function?

a)

Pancreatic juice neutralizes acidic chyme

b)

Trypsinogen initiates carbohydrate digestion

c)

Peristaltic contractions mash and churn food

d)

Segmentation waves emulsify dietary fats

20.

Which enzymes from the stomach contribute mainly to protein and fat breakdown?

a)

Lactase and sucrase

b)

Trypsin and chymotrypsin

c)

Amylase and maltase

d)

Pepsinogen and gastric lipase

21.

When chyme enters the duodenum, what is the immediate signaling outcome for accessory organs?

a)

Spleen mobilizes immune cells

b)

Kidneys excrete excess bicarbonate

c)

Salivary glands increase amylase secretion

d)

Pancreas and gallbladder release digestive juices

22.

Which constituents are found in pancreatic juice to facilitate final breakdown? Select all that apply.

a)

Bile salts to emulsify fats

b)

Bicarbonate ions to neutralize acidity

c)

Amylase to hydrolyze carbohydrates

d)

Trypsinogen to target proteins

23.

What is bile’s principal role in the duodenum during digestion?

a)

Neutralizing gastric acid with bicarbonate

b)

Hydrolyzing polysaccharides to monosaccharides

c)

Activating pepsinogen into pepsin

d)

Emulsifying lipids for efficient processing

24.

Within the first 25 cm of the small intestine, food is predominantly reduced to which absorbable units?

a)

Large peptides for further transport

b)

Amino acids from proteins

c)

Monosaccharides from carbohydrates

d)

Emulsified fatty acids from lipids

25.

Which meal composition typically prolongs gastric residence time before chyme enters the duodenum?

a)

Carbohydrate-rich small snacks

b)

Fiber-free liquid meals

c)

High-protein or high-fat meals

d)

Pure monosaccharide solutions

26.

Which statement best explains why microvilli increase nutrient absorption efficiency?

a)

They store fatty acids inside epithelial cells

b)

They massively expand apical surface area

c)

They reduce diffusion distance for gases

d)

They secrete digestive hormones extensively

27.

Less than what fraction of consumed food typically reaches the large intestine, and what is it mostly composed of?

a)

Half, primarily simple sugars

b)

One-fifth, mostly emulsified fats

c)

Less than one-tenth, mostly indigestible fiber

d)

One-third, mainly starch residues

28.

Which statements about the large intestine microbiome are accurate? Select all that apply.

a)

Many microbes help break down fiber

b)

Most resident bacteria are harmful pathogens

c)

Microbial cells can outnumber human cells

d)

Microbiota produce useful compounds

29.

Approximately how long after entering the colon are indigestible residues and bacteria formed into feces for elimination?

a)

About 36 hours

b)

About 16 hours

c)

About 8 hours

d)

About 4 hours

30.

Which statement best describes metabolic homeostasis in humans?

a)

A hormonal surge that speeds cellular respiration

b)

A condition where energy intake exceeds energy use

c)

A steady state where energy intake equals energy output

d)

A temporary spike in blood glucose after meals

31.

After absorption, which organ serves as the first checkpoint for most nutrients?

a)

Pancreas for insulin secretion

b)

Small intestine for peristalsis

c)

Kidneys for filtration

d)

Liver for nutrient regulation

32.

During the fed state after a meal, what does the liver primarily do?

a)

Converts all lipids to ketone bodies

b)

Takes up and stores incoming nutrients

c)

Oxidizes amino acids immediately

d)

Exports stored fuels to tissues

33.

In the fasted state between meals, the liver’s dominant role is to:

a)

Sequester glucose to lower blood sugar

b)

Export stored nutrients to supply energy

c)

Convert ethanol into triglycerides

d)

Increase bile production for digestion

34.

Which statement about the delivery of nutrients to the liver is accurate?

a)

All macronutrients share the same route

b)

Glucose and amino acids travel via lymphatics

c)

Lipids reach the liver directly by portal blood

d)

Glucose and amino acids go by blood vessels

35.

Which description correctly defines a calorie in scientific terms?

a)

Heat to raise 1 kilogram of water 1°C

b)

Energy to raise 1 gram of water 1°C

c)

Work to move 1 mole of glucose 1 cm

d)

Power needed to heat 100 mL water 10°C

36.

Food label Calories are best interpreted as:

a)

Therms of metabolic heat production

b)

Kilocalories, one thousand small calories

c)

Net ATP molecules per serving

d)

Exact joules used by mitochondria

37.

Which macronutrient provides the highest energy per gram?

a)

Alcohol at 7 kcal per gram

b)

Carbohydrates at 4 kcal per gram

c)

Fat at 9 kcal per gram

d)

Protein at 4 kcal per gram

38.

A yogurt contains 15 g of protein and 80 kcal total. How many kilocalories come from protein, and what fraction of total energy is that?

a)

30 kcal, which is 38% of total

b)

60 kcal, which is 75% of total

c)

45 kcal, which is 56% of total

d)

75 kcal, which is 94% of total

39.

Select all true statements about routes of nutrient transport to the liver.

a)

Amino acids are carried directly by blood vessels

b)

All nutrients bypass the liver initially

c)

Glucose reaches the liver via portal blood

d)

Dietary lipids primarily travel through lymphatics

40.

Which mechanism most directly explains symptoms in GERD?

a)

Colon spasms push acid into stomach

b)

Pancreatic enzymes overproduce acid

c)

Hyperactive pyloric sphincter prevents emptying

d)

Weak lower esophageal sphincter allows reflux

41.

A patient has heartburn more than twice weekly with acidic contents leaking into the esophagus. What condition fits best?

a)

Peptic ulcer disease

b)

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

c)

Irritable bowel syndrome

d)

Celiac sprue

42.

Which are common dietary triggers that can worsen GERD symptoms?

a)

High-fiber vegetables

b)

Alcohol and garlic

c)

Spicy and fried foods

d)

Chocolate and caffeine

43.

Which management strategy is recommended for GERD?

a)

Add high-fat foods to neutralize acid

b)

Increase meal size, lie down after eating

c)

Rely solely on fiber supplements

d)

Eat smaller meals, avoid triggers

44.

Which statement best distinguishes IBS from GERD?

a)

IBS is cured by surgery on the LES

b)

IBS causes colon spasms without structural damage

c)

IBS is defined by acid leaking into the esophagus

d)

IBS primarily affects the esophagus and sphincter

45.

Common IBS symptoms include which combination?

a)

Heartburn and regurgitation

b)

Constipation and/or diarrhea

c)

Colon muscle spasms

d)

Abdominal pain and bloating

46.

Which factors commonly contribute to IBS development or flares?

a)

Psychological stress

b)

Rapid eating habits

c)

Permanent colon damage

d)

Unbalanced diet

47.

Recommended IBS management often involves which steps?

a)

Routine acid-suppressing therapy

b)

Keeping a food journal

c)

Managing stress

d)

Eating slower and adding fiber

48.

Which mechanism best explains tissue injury in celiac disease when gluten is ingested?

a)

Bacterial overgrowth erodes epithelial barrier

b)

Direct toxin damages enterocytes rapidly

c)

Autoantibodies attack intestinal villus cells

d)

Pancreatic enzymes digest mucosal lining

49.

Villus destruction in celiac disease most directly leads to which outcome?

a)

Enhanced micronutrient bioavailability

b)

Malabsorption of iron and folate

c)

Accelerated colonic transit time

d)

Increased gastric acid secretion

50.

Which pair lists grains containing the protein that triggers celiac autoimmunity?

a)

Rice and corn

b)

Wheat and barley

c)

Quinoa and millet

d)

Buckwheat and amaranth

51.

Why is celiac disease described as an iceberg in clinical presentations?

a)

Most cases are rapidly fatal

b)

Diagnosis usually occurs in infancy

c)

Visible symptoms always exceed damage

d)

Many individuals have silent intestinal injury

52.

Which statement about treating celiac disease is most accurate?

a)

High-fat diets protect intestinal mucosa

b)

Lifelong strict gluten avoidance allows healing

c)

Antibiotics clear gluten toxicity

d)

Intermittent fasting reverses villus loss

53.

Which complications are classically linked to chronic villus damage from celiac disease? Select all that apply.

a)

Hyperthyroidism from iodine excess

b)

Cholelithiasis from bile supersaturation

c)

Anemia due to iron and folate deficiency

d)

Osteoporosis from low Vitamin D absorption

54.

Which are modifiable risk factors for diverticulitis? Select all that apply.

a)

Advanced age only

b)

High consumption of red meat

c)

Habitual low-fiber intake

d)

Smoking in regular amounts

55.

How does a high‑fiber diet physiologically aid colon function in diverticular disease?

a)

Decreases peristalsis intensity

b)

Raises luminal acidity markedly

c)

Increases stool bulk and softness

d)

Reduces stool bulk and hardness

56.

Which prevention strategy most effectively reduces progression from benign polyp to colon cancer?

a)

Regular colonoscopies after 50

b)

Annual barium enemas after 30

c)

Prophylactic antibiotics monthly

d)

Routine stool fasting weekly

57.

What are modifiable risk factors for colon cancer emphasized in the lesson? Select all that apply.

a)

High altitude residence

b)

Excessive alcohol consumption

c)

Low fiber and high fat diet

d)

Sedentary lifestyle behaviors

58.

Which dietary approach is recommended to lower colon cancer risk and support colon cell health?

a)

Ultra‑low carbohydrate ketogenic

b)

Fruits, vegetables, whole grains

c)

High sodium and low potassium

d)

Refined grains and processed meats

59.

Which concept from the conclusion links everyday choices to digestive system resilience?

a)

Balanced diet with fiber, prebiotics, probiotics

b)

Calorie tracking guarantees cure

c)

Eliminating all plant foods prevents disease

d)

Intermittent fasting eliminates microbiome

60.

Which statement captures the role of knowledge highlighted in the conclusion section?

a)

Understanding physiology enables informed decisions

b)

Nutrition lacks influence on gut health

c)

Only genetics determines digestive outcomes

d)

Medical devices replace lifestyle choices