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Virusuri

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which field primarily studies bacteria, archaea, viruses, and microscopic eukaryotes?

a)

Histology of tissue sections

b)

Macrobiology of large organisms

c)

Microbiology of microscopic life

d)

Immunology and vaccine science

2.

Which statement best defines general microbiology at an introductory level?

a)

Study of visible plant anatomy

b)

Study of microscopic organisms broadly

c)

Study of human gross pathology only

d)

Study of animal behavior and instincts

3.

Which discipline most directly examines microbial metabolism, growth, and genetics across taxa?

a)

Plant systematics and taxonomy

b)

General microbiology discipline

c)

Environmental geology of rocks

d)

Comparative vertebrate zoology

4.

Which technique is foundational for observing microbes directly?

a)

Acoustic imaging of tissues

b)

Light microscopy with staining

c)

Ultrasound of large organs

d)

Macroscopic visual inspection

5.

Which concept differentiates prokaryotes from eukaryotic microbes?

a)

Requirement for oxygen always

b)

Movement using flagella exclusively

c)

Ability to photosynthesize only

d)

Presence of membrane-bound nucleus

6.

Which domain includes prokaryotic microbes distinct from bacteria?

a)

Animalia domain of metazoa

b)

Archaea domain of prokaryotes

c)

Fungi domain of yeasts

d)

Eukarya domain of protists

7.

Which method is most appropriate to obtain isolated microbial colonies from a mixed sample?

a)

Streak plate on agar surface

b)

Freeze-thaw repeated cycles

c)

Spectrophotometry of culture

d)

Centrifugation at high speed

8.

Which structure is commonly targeted by Gram staining to differentiate bacteria?

a)

Peptidoglycan cell wall layer

b)

Mitochondrial inner membrane

c)

Chloroplast thylakoid stacks

d)

Nuclear envelope pores

9.

Which growth phase shows maximal specific growth rate in batch culture?

a)

Death phase population decline

b)

Lag phase with adaptation

c)

Log phase exponential growth

d)

Stationary phase nutrient limit

10.

Which strategy would you plan to culture an obligate anaerobe successfully?

a)

Use oxygenated shaker flasks

b)

Add strong oxidizing reagents

c)

Employ anaerobic chamber system

d)

Expose culture to bright light

11.

Which microorganism category includes bacteriophages that infect bacteria?

a)

Protozoan classes like Ciliata

b)

Viral agents including bacteriophages

c)

Fungal forms such as Eumycetes

d)

Prions and viroids groups

12.

What is the primary distinction implied between viruses and their host cells in a parasitic relationship?

a)

Viruses rely on host cellular machinery

b)

Viruses carry complete metabolism

c)

Hosts lack genetic information entirely

d)

Hosts depend on viral ribosomes

13.

In prokaryotology, which class refers to wall-less bacteria such as Mycoplasma?

a)

Class Rickettsia organisms

b)

Class Mollicutes mycoplasmas

c)

Class Bacteria cyanobacteria

d)

Class Flagellata protozoa

14.

Which structural focus would best describe the bacterial cell under morphology topics?

a)

Membrane-bound organelles only

b)

Cell wall, shape, and arrangement

c)

Nuclear envelope and chromatin

d)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts

15.

Under bacteriology, what environmental factor influence is typically studied regarding colonies?

a)

Gravity shaping colony genetics

b)

Medium composition affecting growth

c)

Photoperiod controlling meiosis

d)

Altitude determining respiration

16.

Which topic in mycology most directly examines how fungi obtain carbon and energy?

a)

Classification based on spore types

b)

Respiration pathways in hyphae

c)

Nutrition of fungi by absorption

d)

Morphology of Eumycetes forms

17.

Which protozoology class is characterized by movement using hair-like structures?

a)

Class Sporozoa gliding motility

b)

Class Ciliata ciliary locomotion

c)

Class Flagellata whip-like movement

d)

Class Rhizopoda amoeboid motion

18.

Which reproduction mode in protozoa involves gamete fusion?

a)

Asexual division by binary fission

b)

Sexual reproduction through syngamy

c)

Encystment forming resistant cysts

d)

Excretion via contractile vacuoles

19.

Which acellular infectious agent lacks nucleic acid and is composed of misfolded protein?

a)

Typical virions with RNA genomes

b)

Viroids plant circular RNAs

c)

Prions protein-only particles

d)

Bacteriophages with DNA capsids

20.

In studying bacterial systematics, which criterion integrates genotypic data for classification?

a)

Cell size measured by micrometry

b)

Spore color under light microscopy

c)

16S rRNA sequence comparisons

d)

Colony odor on agar plates

21.

Which branch studies bacteria within microbiology?

a)

Protozoology studies bacteria

b)

Mycology studies bacteria

c)

Bacteriology studies bacteria

d)

Virology studies bacteria

22.

Microbiology can be structured into which two main parts?

a)

Animal and plant

b)

Food and soil

c)

General and systematic

d)

Industrial and medical

23.

What does general microbiology primarily investigate?

a)

Morphology and physiology, environment, relations

b)

Taxonomic placement of groups

c)

Industrial production of materials

d)

Clinical protocols for pathogens

24.

Systematic microbiology focuses on what core task?

a)

Measuring growth rates in culture

b)

Testing food contamination levels

c)

Classifying groups by defined criteria

d)

Designing vaccines for viruses

25.

Which field studies microorganisms used by humans in production processes?

a)

Environmental virology research

b)

Protozoology taxonomic studies

c)

Medical pathogenic microbiology

d)

Biotechnology industrial microbiology

26.

Food microbiology primarily examines microorganisms related to what?

a)

Soil nutrient cycles and fixation

b)

Human industry for raw materials

c)

Food use and contamination issues

d)

Taxonomic criteria and grouping

27.

Soil microbiology studies microorganisms in soil and their roles in which cycles?

a)

Pathogenesis in clinical wards

b)

Vitamin synthesis in animals

c)

Wine fermentation in vats

d)

Nitrogen fixation and decomposition

28.

Medical microbiology investigates microorganisms involved in what?

a)

Accidental environmental colonization

b)

Animal diseases and pathogenesis

c)

Symbiosis aiding digestion and vitamins

d)

Industrial processes and materials

29.

Microorganisms that live in symbiosis with animals can contribute to which processes?

a)

Digestion and vitamin production

b)

Airborne transmission of spores

c)

Metal corrosion in pipelines

d)

Photosynthesis in roots

30.

Systematization of microorganisms is divided into which four kingdoms?

a)

Vira, Eukaryota, Plantae, Metazoa

b)

Plants, Animals, Fungi, Viruses

c)

Bacteria, Archaea, Fungi, Protists

d)

Vira, Procaryota, Vegetal (fungi), Animal (protozoa)

31.

Which statement best describes a virion?

a)

Metabolically active virus with its own enzymes

b)

Cell-free infectious particle with full structure

c)

Host ribosome bound viral replication complex

d)

Immature intracellular viral assembly intermediate

32.

Viruses can exist in two alternative states. Which pair correctly names these states?

a)

Extracellular free state and intracellular vegetative state

b)

Dormant spore state and actively motile state

c)

Photosynthetic state and heterotrophic state

d)

Aerobic state and anaerobic fermentative state

33.

Why are viruses classified as obligate intracellular parasites?

a)

Replication requires host cellular machinery and energy

b)

They prefer low oxygen microenvironments

c)

They have rigid cell walls like bacteria

d)

They produce toxins that lyse host cells autonomously

34.

Which nucleic acid types can comprise the viral genome?

a)

Only single-stranded RNA molecules

b)

DNA and protein as co-genomes

c)

Only double-stranded DNA molecules

d)

DNA or RNA as single genome type

35.

What feature makes many viruses ultrafilterable?

a)

Enzymes that degrade filter material during passage

b)

Ability to actively traverse filter pores via motility

c)

Surface charge that repels membrane pores effectively

d)

Dimensions small enough to pass bacteriological filters

36.

Select the best explanation for why viruses lack independent metabolism.

a)

They do not synthesize ATP or macromolecules alone

b)

They store excess glycogen but cannot mobilize it

c)

They respire anaerobically using nitrate as acceptor

d)

They possess mitochondria but lack ribosomes

37.

Which statement about viral growth is accurate?

a)

Incremental enlargement before binary fission

b)

No capacity for growth; fixed number of molecules

c)

Exponential cell division like prokaryotes

d)

Linear growth proportional to nutrient uptake

38.

What term describes the intracellular state capable of multiplication?

a)

Prophage integrated into host genome

b)

Prion aggregated in neural tissue

c)

Vegetative virus within the host cell

d)

Exospore suspended in ambient fluids

39.

Which microscopy methods are most accurate for sizing viruses?

a)

Ultrafiltration, ultracentrifugation, electron microscopy

b)

Light microscopy, Gram staining, phase contrast

c)

Atomic force microscopy, confocal fluorescence, X-ray

d)

Polarized light microscopy, microcalorimetry, TEM

40.

Typical viral dimensions are within which range?

a)

Roughly 0.1–0.5 centimeters across

b)

Between 0.5–5 millimeters in length

c)

About 1–2 micrometers in diameter

d)

Approximately 10–500 nanometers in size

41.

Which size range best characterizes large viruses described in the diagram?

a)

50–150 nm diameter

b)

0.5–1 µm diameter

c)

15–50 nm diameter

d)

150–500 nm diameter

42.

Which group includes viruses measuring about 50–150 nm with notable pathogenic examples?

a)

Medium viruses group

b)

Bacterial group

c)

Small viruses group

d)

Large viruses group

43.

Which statement correctly identifies small viruses in the size classification?

a)

Generally under 50 nm, often around 10–15 nm

b)

Generally over 1 µm, comparable to bacteria

c)

Generally 150–500 nm, enveloped only

d)

Generally 50–150 nm, filamentous only

44.

Which viral shape corresponds to a helical filamentous morphology?

a)

Cartus form, typical of poxvirus

b)

Spermatozoidal form, typical of influenza

c)

Spheroidal form, typical of bacteriophages

d)

Fibrillar form, typical of mosaic virus

45.

Which two primary structural components make up a virion?

a)

Capsid and ribosomes

b)

Genome and envelope membrane

c)

Envelope and peptidoglycan wall

d)

Genome and capsid protein shell

46.

Which nucleic acid types can constitute a viral genome?

a)

Double-stranded DNA only

b)

DNA or RNA, single- or double-stranded

c)

DNA and RNA simultaneously in one virion

d)

Single-stranded RNA only

47.

What unit is commonly used to express viral genome length and how many nucleotides does it represent?

a)

Megabase, about one million bases

b)

Kilobase, about one thousand bases

c)

Nanometer, about one billionth meter

d)

Kilodalton, about one thousand daltons

48.

Which statement about small viral genomes (around 5 kb) is most accurate?

a)

They replicate slower than 20 kb genomes

b)

They reduce replication time compared to larger genomes

c)

They require ribosomes encoded in the genome

d)

They increase mutation frequency compared to bacteria

49.

What is the function of the viral genome relative to replication?

a)

Determines host cell membrane composition

b)

Encodes peptidoglycan for virion wall

c)

Provides energy for capsid assembly

d)

Stores entire information necessary to induce replication

50.

What are capsomeres in the context of viral capsids?

a)

Enzyme complexes forming the nucleoid

b)

Lipid units forming the envelope membrane

c)

Protein subunits forming the capsid shell

d)

RNA segments forming the genome

51.

Which capsid symmetry features a cylindrical tube formed by identical, slightly elongated monomers surrounding nucleic acid, as shown in the upper diagram?

a)

Complex symmetry mixing multiple capsid lattices

b)

Icosahedral symmetry with precise oligomer assembly

c)

Helical symmetry forming a cylindrical nucleocapsid

d)

Binary symmetry with distinct head and tail regions

52.

In the middle diagram, which geometric symmetry is built from an extremely precise assembly of a fixed number of oligomers?

a)

Binary symmetry combining head and tail

b)

Spherical symmetry with random subunit packing

c)

Helical symmetry with repeating monomers

d)

Icosahedral symmetry with 20 triangular faces

53.

Which statement best characterizes bacteriophage capsids depicted in the lower diagram?

a)

Purely helical tubes without specialized ends

b)

Binary symmetry with an icosahedral head and helical tail

c)

Icosahedral symmetry lacking any tail fibers

d)

Amorphous symmetry with variable subunit number

54.

What term labels the protein subunits that repeat to build viral capsids?

a)

Protomer chains

b)

Capsomeres

c)

Peplomers

d)

Glycoprotein spikes

55.

For a given virus type, how is the number of capsomeres described?

a)

Determined by host cell enzymes

b)

Increasing during maturation

c)

Fixed and highly ordered

d)

Variable across individual particles

56.

Which recognition criterion relies on the final spatial arrangement of the capsid?

a)

Replication cycle duration

b)

Capsid symmetry architecture

c)

Genome polarity identification

d)

Envelope lipid composition

57.

Which feature distinguishes icosahedral capsids from helical capsids?

a)

Precise oligomer count in a polyhedral lattice

b)

Tail-mediated genome injection

c)

Random oligomer placement

d)

Presence of segmented RNA genomes

58.

In a helical nucleocapsid, how are the capsomeres arranged around the genome?

a)

Linear stacks forming a prism

b)

Radial spokes forming a wheel

c)

Concentric rings forming a sphere

d)

Spiral array forming a cylinder

59.

Which composite symmetry combines an icosahedral head with a helical tail typical of bacteriophages?

a)

Complex symmetry

b)

Helical symmetry

c)

Binary symmetry

d)

Cubic symmetry

60.

Why does capsid assembly result in highly ordered repetition of capsomeres?

a)

Random thermal motion dominates

b)

Template-directed host proteins guide placement

c)

Self-assembly governed by subunit geometry

d)

Enzymatic ligation of diverse subunits

61.

Which component directly protects viral genomic material from nucleases?

a)

Capsid surrounding the genome

b)

Spicules embedded in envelope

c)

Pericapsid external lipid coat

d)

Peplos formed after replication

62.

What is the primary role of the peplos (envelope) in enveloped viruses?

a)

Creating glycoprotein spikes for replication

b)

Forming helical symmetry of nucleocapsid

c)

Housing viral polymerases for metabolism

d)

Shielding nucleocapsid and aiding entry

63.

Enveloped viruses are described as having what external features compared to naked viruses?

a)

Rigid icosahedral protein coat

b)

Spherical form with spicules

c)

Complex capsid without lipids

d)

Helical nucleocapsid exposed

64.

Which statement best distinguishes enveloped viruses from naked viruses?

a)

Enveloped viruses possess active metabolism

b)

Enveloped viruses bear a lipid envelope

c)

Naked viruses contain host ribosomes

d)

Naked viruses replicate outside cells

65.

Which phase initiates the viral replication cycle in a host cell?

a)

Attachment and adsorption

b)

Synthesis of components

c)

Eclipse phase

d)

Maturation of virions

66.

During which stage are new viral components produced using host machinery?

a)

Penetration into the cell

b)

Synthesis of components

c)

Maturation of particles

d)

Attachment and adsorption

67.

What does the eclipse phase in viral replication primarily represent?

a)

Loss of infectivity before assembly

b)

Initial binding to cell receptors

c)

Final release of mature virions

d)

Integration into host genome

68.

Which claim about viruses is supported by their replication process?

a)

Viruses replicate by binary fission

b)

Viruses complete metabolism extracellularly

c)

Viruses multiply only in host cells

d)

Viruses synthesize enzymes autonomously

69.

What structural symmetry is shown for helical viruses in the diagram?

a)

Complex multipart symmetry

b)

Icosahedral capsid symmetry

c)

Radial envelope symmetry

d)

Helicoidal nucleocapsid symmetry

70.

Which set correctly lists consecutive stages of a typical viral life cycle?

a)

Maturation, release, penetration, attachment

b)

Synthesis, eclipse, attachment, maturation

c)

Penetration, maturation, attachment, synthesis

d)

Attachment, penetration, synthesis, maturation

71.

Which term describes a host cell that lacks specific viral receptors and therefore cannot be infected?

a)

Productive cell releasing assembled virions

b)

Permissive cell with compatible receptors

c)

Nonpermissive cell without specific receptors

d)

Latent cell with internalized virions

72.

Viral tropism primarily depends on which factor determining the interaction between virus and host cell?

a)

Affinity between viral capsid and host receptors

b)

Rate of host cell mitosis and cytokinesis

c)

Size of viral genome and capsid diameter

d)

Presence of host lysosomes and peroxisomes

73.

Which pairing best exemplifies species-level tropism?

a)

Virus infects only porcine cells specifically

b)

Virus infects both plants and animals broadly

c)

Virus infects any tissue regardless of receptor

d)

Virus infects multiple species without limitation

74.

During the reversible phase of viral attachment, which interaction predominates?

a)

Ionic attraction allowing initial binding

b)

Covalent bonding between spike and receptor

c)

Fusion of viral envelope with membrane

d)

Endocytosis forming clathrin-coated pits

75.

Which statement distinguishes the irreversible phase of viral attachment?

a)

Happens exclusively inside endosomes

b)

Requires established tropism between virus and cell

c)

Begins only after genome replication completes

d)

Occurs when no tropism exists for the cell

76.

Which mechanism of entry involves membrane invagination and formation of a vesicle enclosing the virion?

a)

Direct penetration through cell wall proteins

b)

Endocytosis with vesicle internalization

c)

Exocytosis releasing viral particles

d)

Fusion creating a transmembrane channel

77.

In endocytosis-mediated entry, what event leads to release of the viral genome?

a)

Transcription of viral mRNA in cytosol

b)

Proteasomal degradation of capsid externally

c)

Envelope fusion with nuclear membrane

d)

Lysis of vesicle by cytoplasmic enzymes

78.

Which feature is specific to enveloped viruses during cell entry by fusion?

a)

Capsid proteins form clathrin-coated pits

b)

Spike glycoproteins facilitate membrane fusion

c)

Genomes pass through nuclear pores directly

d)

Receptors trigger phagocytosis indiscriminately

79.

What role do viral spikes play in fusion-based entry?

a)

Serve as enzymes that lyse host membrane

b)

Bind mitochondria to energize the capsid

c)

Create a channel allowing capsid passage

d)

Detach receptors to prevent immune response

80.

Which statement best differentiates endocytosis from fusion for viral entry?

a)

Fusion traps virions inside clathrin vesicles

b)

Endocytosis requires envelope spikes exclusively

c)

Endocytosis expels the genome out of cell

d)

Fusion forms a continuous membrane channel

81.

Which process describes the loss of capsid structure and exposure of viral nucleic acid shortly after entry into a host cell?

a)

Adsorption to cell receptors

b)

Eclipse or decapsidation

c)

Budding from the membrane

d)

Assembly of new virions

82.

During the eclipse phase, what is the status of the viral genome in many viruses?

a)

Packaged in mature capsids

b)

Masked as provirus

c)

Free in cytoplasm

d)

Bound to nuclear envelope

83.

Which cellular location is primarily used for protein synthesis from viral mRNA?

a)

Cytosolic ribosomes

b)

Lysosomal lumen

c)

Golgi cisternae

d)

Mitochondrial matrix

84.

Which set best represents the three common aspects of viral replication across groups?

a)

Penetration, uncoating, apoptosis

b)

Endocytosis, autophagy, antigen display

c)

Transcription, genome replication, translation

d)

Attachment, latency, exocytosis

85.

What term refers to the formation of new viral particles from components after genome replication and protein synthesis?

a)

Integration

b)

Maturation

c)

Neutralization

d)

Attenuation

86.

Where can assembly of many viruses occur, with a majority of riboviruses assembling in the nucleus?

a)

Only at plasma membrane

b)

Inside lysosomes

c)

In cytoplasm or nucleus

d)

Exclusively in mitochondria

87.

Which release mechanism involves destruction of the host cell and discharge of large amounts of viral material?

a)

Lysis of the host cell

b)

Exocytosis via vesicles

c)

Budding with envelope

d)

Transcytosis through tight junctions

88.

What characterizes the budding release mechanism in enveloped viruses?

a)

Virion acquires membrane-derived envelope

b)

Formation of capsid in lysosome

c)

Genome remains inside nucleus

d)

Complete destruction of host membrane

89.

Why are viruses released by budding often considered less aggressive than those released by lysis?

a)

Budding prevents capsid assembly errors

b)

Budding does not fully destroy the host cell

c)

Budding releases very small amounts of material

d)

Budding avoids host immunity entirely

90.

What is typically reduced in riboviruses, given that their genome is RNA and often monocatenary?

a)

Latency duration

b)

Cell wall synthesis

c)

Capsid symmetry

d)

Multiplication cycle duration

91.

Which viral replication cycle is characterized by immediate cell lysis and release of progeny virions?

a)

Abortive cycle with incomplete particles

b)

Persistent cycle with low virulence

c)

Lysogenic cycle with genome integration

d)

Lytic cycle with acute antagonism

92.

In the lytic cycle, what primarily causes the host cell’s destruction?

a)

Gradual genome integration events

b)

Rapid antagonistic viral replication

c)

Host immune latency establishment

d)

Endosomal persistence mechanisms

93.

Which term denotes viruses that integrate their nucleic acid into the host genome and can remain as a provirus?

a)

Abortive incomplete variants

b)

Temperate viruses establishing latency

c)

Agressive cytolytic virions

d)

Endosymbiotic attenuated forms

94.

During persistent infections, what feature of viral multiplication is typical?

a)

Reduced rate with long duration

b)

Explosive burst with acute lysis

c)

Immediate maturation without capsid

d)

Strict horizontal spread only

95.

Which route of transmission is emphasized for lytic, acute infections?

a)

Horizontal spread through secretions

b)

Vertical inheritance via germline

c)

Vector-mediated latent carriage

d)

Fomite-based chronic colonization

96.

What can persistent infections produce in the host over time?

a)

Complete sterile immunity

b)

Immediate necrotic lysis

c)

Rapid clearance without symptoms

d)

Progressive degenerative changes

97.

In integrated cycles, what cellular process allows the provirus to persist through cell generations?

a)

Endosomal acidification steps

b)

Host DNA replication and mitosis

c)

Extracellular capsid biosynthesis

d)

Rapid virion release bursts

98.

Which example illustrates vertical transmission mentioned for integrated viral cycles?

a)

Leukemia in humans and animals

b)

Gastroenteritis through secretions

c)

Influenza via respiratory droplets

d)

Foot-and-mouth disease outbreaks

99.

What term describes infections producing viral particles that are incomplete and not fully mature?

a)

Abortive viral infections

b)

Acute lytic outbreaks

c)

Endosymbiotic mutualism

d)

Strict lysogenic latency

100.

What factor can trigger a latently integrated provirus to enter active replication and cause severe disease?

a)

Immediate immune clearance events

b)

External stressors disrupting host cells

c)

Continuous horizontal transmission

d)

Persistent endosomal survival alone

101.

Which term describes intracellular accumulations assembled from viral components visible under light microscopy?

a)

Temperate phage lysogeny

b)

Prophage genomic integrations

c)

Interferon-induced antiviral states

d)

Viral inclusions with specific morphology

102.

What is the primary role of viral inclusions in infected cells?

a)

Channels for nutrient transport across membranes

b)

Scaffolds for bacterial cell wall repair

c)

Reservoirs for cellular energy storage

d)

Sites of viral component synthesis and assembly

103.

Interferon released by infected vertebrate cells acts mainly by which mechanism?

a)

Inducing antiviral proteins that block viral replication

b)

Phagocytosing virus via macrophage receptors

c)

Directly lysing enveloped virions in blood

d)

Neutralizing antibodies against viral capsid

104.

What phenomenon occurs when one virus inhibits replication of another virus in a cell previously contacted by the first?

a)

Antigenic drift during chronic infection

b)

Viral interference blocking replication cycles

c)

Superinfection enhancing progeny production

d)

Recombination increasing capsid diversity

105.

Which statement best characterizes interferon’s action scope in tissues?

a)

Diffuses to surrounding cells establishing antiviral state

b)

Targets exclusively bacterial ribosomes in situ

c)

Remains inside producer cell without secretion

d)

Acts only on lymphocytes lacking receptors

106.

Bacteriophages are viruses that infect which cellular targets?

a)

Protozoa altering contractile vacuoles

b)

Fungi forming syncytial hyphae states

c)

Plant chloroplasts disrupting photosystems

d)

Bacteria causing lytic or lysogenic effects

107.

During lytic infection by virulent bacteriophages, which event occurs?

a)

Production of progeny followed by host cell lysis

b)

Integration into host genome forming prophage

c)

Induction of muropeptide synthesis in wall

d)

Transformation without replication of genome

108.

Temperate bacteriophages differ from virulent ones primarily because they can:

a)

Form exclusively enveloped viral particles

b)

Encode ribosomal proteins for bacteria

c)

Only replicate in anaerobic environments

d)

Integrate as prophage and replicate with host

109.

Which structural component of a bacteriophage attaches to the bacterial surface and injects genomic DNA?

a)

Cytoplasmic tail interacting with actin

b)

Capsid spike initiating membrane fusion

c)

Contractile tail sheath driving DNA transfer

d)

Envelope glycoprotein forming pores

110.

What cellular defense mechanism is triggered in non-infected cells exposed to interferon?

a)

Enhanced glycolysis fueling viral assembly

b)

Upregulated peptidoglycan cross-linking

c)

Activation of chlorophyll-binding complexes

d)

Antiviral protein synthesis inhibiting translation

111.

Which statement best describes bacteriophages’ ecological role in bacterial communities?

a)

They convert nonpathogens into autotrophic species

b)

They reduce bacterial numbers through lytic regulation

c)

They increase bacterial diversity by horizontal gene transfer

d)

They form biofilms that protect pathogenic bacteria

112.

What laboratory application uses phage sensitivity to classify bacteria?

a)

Gram staining differentiation by cell wall

b)

Serotyping using specific antibodies

c)

Lysotyping based on phage susceptibility

d)

Hybridization with rRNA probes

113.

In public health monitoring of water, what does detection of phages parasitizing certain bacteria indicate?

a)

Evidence of water source contamination

b)

Presence of viral envelopes in aquatic fauna

c)

Increased oxygenation of the reservoir

d)

Formation of resistant bacterial spores

114.

Viroids are primarily composed of which nucleic acid and structural form?

a)

Double-stranded DNA circular genome

b)

Single-stranded RNA circular molecule

c)

Double-stranded RNA linear genome

d)

Single-stranded DNA linear molecule

115.

What is the typical size range observed for viroids under electron microscopy?

a)

2.5–5 nm strand dimension

b)

25–50 nm capsid diameter

c)

150–300 nm virion length

d)

0.2–0.5 nm particle diameter

116.

Which plant disease impact is commonly linked to viroid infections?

a)

Enhanced fruit pigmentation and yield increase

b)

Induction of nitrogen fixation in root nodules

c)

Progressive bark thickening without symptoms

d)

Disruption of growth with severe economic loss

117.

Why is the replication mechanism of viroids considered enigmatic?

a)

They replicate only inside animal mitochondria

b)

Their small genomes encode no proteins

c)

Their genomes code many metabolic enzymes

d)

They lack any nucleic acid template for synthesis

118.

Which host dependency is characteristic of viroid replication?

a)

Autonomous protein translation in the viroid

b)

Direct coding of a transport protein by viroid RNA

c)

Use of host polymerases with minimal genetic information

d)

Independent synthesis of complete viral capsids

119.

In cultivation, how can viroids be detected despite subtle symptoms?

a)

Observation of phage plaques on bacterial lawns

b)

Serological tests for enveloped virions

c)

Molecular assays targeting circular RNA

d)

Counting acid-fast cells in stained samples

120.

Which biotechnology application exploits phage lysis in aquatic environments?

a)

Increasing bacterial pathogenicity in crops

b)

Producing viroid proteins for vaccine design

c)

Reducing bacterial populations during biosanitation

d)

Transforming bacteria into photosynthetic organisms

121.

Which agent is described as "proteinaeous infectious particles" responsible for subviral infections causing spongiform encephalopathies?

a)

Bacteria producing neurotoxic exotoxins

b)

Viruses with RNA genomes causing neurodegeneration

c)

Prions consisting of infectious proteins only

d)

Viroids composed of short circular RNAs

122.

In animals, scrapie is a spongiform encephalopathy primarily affecting which species?

a)

Cattle with neurodegenerative lesions

b)

Sheep showing pruritus and ataxia

c)

Deer with fatal insomnia

d)

Cats with chronic wasting syndrome

123.

Kuru and familial fatal insomnia are examples of prion diseases affecting which organism?

a)

Domestic cattle in agricultural settings

b)

Wild cervids in forest ecosystems

c)

Felids maintained in captivity

d)

Humans with neurodegenerative disorders

124.

What does ATNC stand for in the context of prion research described on the page?

a)

Agents Transmissible Non-Conventional

b)

Amyloid Trimer Nucleic Complex

c)

Adaptive Transmission Neurogenic Corpus

d)

Antigenic Toxin Neuro Cytoplasmic

125.

Which cellular system is primarily targeted by prion replication and aggression according to the studies mentioned?

a)

Central nervous system neurons

b)

Gastrointestinal epithelial linings

c)

Renal tubular epithelium

d)

Peripheral immune lymphoid tissues

126.

What characteristic cytoplasmic change is noted in prion-affected neurons during ultrastructural studies?

a)

Dense mitochondrial clustering in axons

b)

Loss of ribosomes from rough ER

c)

Vacuolization leading to spongiform appearance

d)

Accumulation of lysosomes in dendrites

127.

Which protein is identified as protease-resistant in prion diseases and denoted as PrP?

a)

Peroxisomal Regulatory Protein beta

b)

Proline-rich Peptide complex

c)

Phosphorylated Receptor Protein alpha

d)

Proteinase Resistant Protein variant

128.

Which fibrillar amyloid structures were identified from brains of animals with spongiform encephalopathy?

a)

Amyloid beta diffuse plaques

b)

Alpha-synuclein Lewy bodies

c)

Scrapie Associated Fibrils (SAF)

d)

Tau paired helical filaments

129.

Which prion disease is noted in cattle and associated with spongiform encephalopathy?

a)

Bovine vacuolar neurodegeneration

b)

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy

c)

Bovine chronic wasting disease

d)

Bovine fatal familial insomnia

130.

Which statement best reflects the unresolved nature of ATNC despite common properties?

a)

They remain enigmatic with shared features

b)

They require DNA-based genetic transcription

c)

They are fully explained by viral RNA replication

d)

They are conclusively bacterial in origin

131.

Which statement best describes the structural nature of prions shown in the micrograph?

a)

Fungal conidia carrying chromosomal DNA

b)

Bacterial endospores with thick peptidoglycan walls

c)

Viral particles containing single-stranded RNA genomes

d)

Proteinaceous infectious particles lacking nucleic acids

132.

What key property contributes to prions’ resistance to agents that inactivate nucleic acids?

a)

Efficient DNA repair pathways

b)

Protective polysaccharide capsule

c)

Absence of nucleic acid genomes

d)

Double-membrane encapsulation

133.

Which treatment most effectively inactivates prions compared with typical pathogens?

a)

Prolonged exposure to strong proteases

b)

Standard autoclaving at 121°C

c)

Short bursts of ultraviolet radiation

d)

Low-dose formaldehyde fixation

134.

Which statement about prion thermal resistance is accurate?

a)

They degrade at room temperature

b)

They are sensitive to brief heating

c)

They are killed by mild pasteurization

d)

They survive very high temperatures

135.

Which characteristic of prion infections complicates detection and control?

a)

Long latency that can extend for years

b)

Immediate antibody production after entry

c)

Rapid onset within hours of exposure

d)

Visible cytopathic effects in culture

136.

What is the primary mechanism by which prion protein causes disease in a host?

a)

Producing bacterial toxins in the bloodstream

b)

Triggering autoimmune destruction of myelin

c)

Inserting viral genetic material into neurons

d)

Inducing misfolding of normal host prion protein

137.

Which body tissues are considered to carry the highest prion infectivity during disease progression?

a)

Central nervous system and lymphoid organs

b)

Saliva and milk under normal conditions

c)

Urine and feces in early stages

d)

Skin and hair follicles at onset

138.

Which statement about prion transmission to humans is supported by epidemiologic evidence?

a)

Exposure to infected bovine tissues can transmit disease

b)

Mosquito vectors are required for infection

c)

Airborne droplets are the typical route

d)

Casual contact spreads prions efficiently

139.

Which laboratory reagent is often used to assess prion resistance due to its proteolytic activity?

a)

DNase I during digestion tests

b)

Ribonuclease A in cold conditions

c)

Lysozyme in isotonic buffers

d)

Proteinase K in controlled assays

140.

Why do prions not induce interferon responses like many viruses?

a)

They lack nucleic acids recognized by innate sensors

b)

They replicate via double-stranded RNA intermediates

c)

They block interferon receptors on host cells

d)

They secrete interferon-neutralizing proteins