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Unit 1: Revolutions

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the heliocentric theory championed during the Scientific Revolution?

a)

The Sun orbits the Earth in perfect circles

b)

The Earth and Sun orbit a distant star

c)

The Sun is the center and Earth orbits it

d)

The Earth is fixed at the center of space

2.

Who used telescopic observations to support the heliocentric model and faced charges of heresy?

a)

Nicolaus Copernicus through star charts

b)

Isaac Newton with gravity proofs

c)

Johannes Kepler with ellipse laws

d)

Galileo Galilei with telescope evidence

3.

Which Enlightenment idea is most closely associated with John Locke?

a)

Divine right of kings over subjects

b)

Natural rights and consent of the governed

c)

Economic freedom through laissez-faire

d)

Total monarchy to prevent disorder

4.

Montesquieu argued governments should be organized how?

a)

Branches with checks and balances

b)

Direct democracy by public vote

c)

Military-led executive councils

d)

Single ruler with divine authority

5.

Multiple ideas influenced changes in government. Which statements reflect Locke’s views? Select ALL that apply.

a)

Consent from the people legitimizes rule

b)

People possess natural rights by birth

c)

Absolutism is necessary for stability

d)

Citizens may overthrow unjust governments

6.

Match each thinker with the contribution during the Scientific Revolution.

a)

Copernicus

1.

Proposed heliocentric model

b)

Galileo

2.

Observed skies with telescope

c)

Newton

3.

Explained motion and gravity

7.

Which condition best explains why many French commoners were angry in 1789?

a)

Nobility financed public granaries

b)

Third Estate paid taxes without privileges

c)

Clergy abolished feudal dues entirely

d)

Equal taxation across all estates

8.

What was a major immediate cause of unrest among French peasants before 1789?

a)

Bad harvests and rising food prices

b)

Colonial trade restrictions only

c)

Mandatory military conscription laws

d)

Closure of village churches

9.

What did the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen accomplish in 1789?

a)

Ended Estates privileges and protected freedoms

b)

Restored absolutism and divine right

c)

Placed clergy in charge of taxation

d)

Created a hereditary constitutional monarchy

10.

During the Reign of Terror, what tactic did revolutionary leaders employ most notably?

a)

Censorship of scientific journals

b)

Use of the guillotine for executions

c)

Negotiated amnesty for nobles

d)

Exile of the entire royal family

11.

Which pair correctly links leaders or events to outcomes in the French Revolution?

a)

Robespierre

1.

Led Reign of Terror and mass executions

b)

Louis XVI

2.

Executed during radical phase

c)

Directory

3.

Failed government replacing monarchy

12.

Which change would Enlightenment thinkers most likely support within a government system?

a)

Expanding separation of powers among branches

b)

Basing law solely on church doctrine

c)

Concentrating all power in monarchy

d)

Eliminating consent from citizens

13.

Which principle of the Napoleonic Code most influenced modern European legal systems?

a)

Absolute power of the emperor over courts

b)

Mandatory military service for all men

c)

Freedom of religion and equality before law

d)

Hereditary privileges for nobility

14.

What was a major reason Napoleon failed to conquer all of Europe?

a)

Allied loyalty among Italian city-states

b)

Shortage of artillery and cavalry

c)

Lack of support from French citizens

d)

Strong British navy and Russian winter

15.

Which event aimed to restore stability in Europe after Napoleon’s defeat?

a)

Treaty of Tordesillas meeting

b)

Congress of Vienna conference

c)

Berlin Conference on Africa

d)

Munich Agreement settlement

16.

Nationalism is best defined as pride in a nation based on which common elements?

a)

Culture and history

b)

Language and ethnicity

c)

Geographic isolation

d)

Shared monarchy

e)

Religious uniformity

17.

Which Latin American leader helped remove European powers and inspired the creation of Bolivia?

a)

Benito Juarez reformer

b)

Jose de San Martin general

c)

Simon Bolivar the liberator

d)

Miguel Hidalgo the priest

18.

Toussaint L’Ouverture is most associated with which achievement?

a)

Unifying South America under one nation

b)

Negotiating peace at the Congress of Vienna

c)

Leading a successful slave revolt in Haiti

d)

Industrializing Caribbean sugar plantations

19.

Match the European nation with the leader linked to its unification movement.

a)

Italy

1.

Giuseppe Garibaldi

b)

Germany

2.

Otto von Bismarck

c)

France

3.

Napoleon Bonaparte

20.

Which phrase captures Otto von Bismarck’s approach to German unification?

a)

Votes and constitutions

b)

Peace and diplomacy

c)

Blood and Iron

d)

Bread and schools

21.

What was a key result of the Agricultural Revolution in Britain?

a)

Increased need for farm laborers

b)

Less labor needed leading to urbanization

c)

Decline in food production across Europe

d)

Immediate end to land enclosure policies

22.

Why did the Industrial Revolution begin in England?

a)

Alliance with Napoleonic France

b)

Large supply of gold and silver

c)

Abundance of coal as an energy source

d)

Early discovery of electricity

23.

Which impact was common in early industrial cities?

a)

Affordable suburban housing

b)

Child labor practices

c)

Safe factory conditions

d)

Widespread disease outbreaks

e)

Overcrowding and pollution

24.

Laissez-faire capitalism promotes which government role in the economy?

a)

Fixed wages set by parliament

b)

Price controls on basic goods

c)

Hands-off approach to markets

d)

Nationalization of factories

25.

According to Marxist communism, who should control the means of production after revolution?

a)

Wealthy industrialists

b)

Religious institutions

c)

The hereditary monarchy

d)

The working class through the state

26.

Which idea used “survival of the fittest” to justify exploitation during industrialization?

a)

Mercantilism trade policy

b)

Romanticism artistic movement

c)

Utilitarianism theory of happiness

d)

Social Darwinism ideology

27.

Which statement best explains the Irish Potato Famine’s severity?

a)

British blockade prevented migration

b)

Industrial pollution poisoned Irish fields

c)

Coal shortages halted food imports

d)

Potato fungus devastated a dependent crop

28.

Which statement best defines imperialism in the 19th century?

a)

Small states isolate to avoid trade

b)

Nations focus solely on domestic policies

c)

Colonies voluntarily form equal unions

d)

A strong nation controls weaker territories

29.

Which was a major ideological cause of European imperialism?

a)

Fear of global alliances

b)

White Man’s Burden belief

c)

Spread of democracy rapidly

d)

Desire to end slavery worldwide

30.

Which economic motive most fueled imperial expansion during industrialization?

a)

Creation of utopian communities

b)

Need for more soldiers

c)

Demand for raw materials

d)

Pursuit of religious freedom

31.

Which outcome was common for native peoples under imperial rule?

a)

Loss of land and culture

b)

Greater political autonomy

c)

Rapid rise in local wages

d)

Guaranteed voting rights

32.

Which benefit did colonizing powers most often gain?

a)

Smaller overseas markets

b)

Dependence on local leaders

c)

Reduced global influence

d)

Increased wealth and power

33.

Direct rule in imperial systems meant what?

a)

Local councils set all policies

b)

Merchants controlled trade zones

c)

Foreign officials governed directly

d)

Religious leaders ran provinces

34.

Indirect rule is best described as:

a)

Colonizers abolished native courts

b)

Local authorities retained some power

c)

Military officers replaced chiefs

d)

Colonies had full independence

35.

In the context of imperialism, what were spheres of influence?

a)

Places banned from commerce

b)

Regions of total annexation

c)

Shared cultural exchange areas

d)

Exclusive foreign trading rights

36.

Match each event or policy to its region or figure.

a)

Berlin Conference

1.

European powers partition Africa

b)

King Leopold II

2.

Belgian monarch in the Congo

c)

Rubber quotas

3.

Resource extracted from the Congo

d)

Hewn punishment

4.

Brutality for unmet collection

37.

Which statement about the Opium Wars is accurate?

a)

Opium trade ended before wars

b)

China seized British India ports

c)

Britain lost Hong Kong territory

d)

Britain forced opium into China

38.

What was a key result of the Treaty of Nanking?

a)

Britain received Hong Kong

b)

Japan opened trade with U.S.

c)

France gained the Congo

d)

Russia annexed Manchuria

39.

Which development ended Japan’s isolation in the 1850s?

a)

Treaty of Kanagawa with U.S.

b)

Zulu-British peace treaty

c)

Boxer Protocol agreements

d)

Berlin Conference decisions

40.

What was the primary impact of the Meiji Restoration?

a)

Conversion to agrarian economy

b)

Annexation by European powers

c)

Return to feudal isolation

d)

Rapid modernization of Japan

41.

Which statements correctly identify resistance movements? Select all that apply.

a)

Boxer Rebellion targeted foreigners

b)

Taiping Rebellion weakened Qing rule

c)

Zulu Resistance defeated Britain overall

d)

Sepoy Mutiny opposed British practices

42.

Which set correctly lists the MAIN causes of World War I using the acronym MAIN?

a)

Militarism, Alliances, Imperialism, Nationalism

b)

Militarism, Alliances, Isolationism, Nationalism

c)

Militarism, Appeasement, Industry, Nationalism

d)

Militia, Alliances, Isolationism, Neutrality

43.

Which countries were primarily on the Allied side in World War I at the start?

a)

Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy, Ottoman Empire

b)

England, Germany, Japan, Soviet Union

c)

England, France, Russia, United States

d)

United States, Italy, Japan, Ottoman Empire

44.

Which characteristic best describes combat conditions in World War I?

a)

Trench warfare with machine guns and mustard gas

b)

Blitzkrieg using fast-moving armored divisions

c)

Island hopping across Pacific archipelagos

d)

Guerrilla warfare in mountainous terrain

45.

What was a major outcome of the Treaty of Versailles for Germany?

a)

Unified with Austria to expand borders

b)

Loss of territory, reparations, and military reduction

c)

Gained colonies and naval dominance

d)

Joined the League of Nations as a founder

46.

Why was the League of Nations created after World War I?

a)

To replace national governments with one authority

b)

To enforce naval blockades against aggressors

c)

To divide Germany into occupation zones

d)

To prevent future conflicts through collective security

47.

Which nations were considered the Axis Powers during World War II?

a)

Germany, Italy, Japan

b)

England, France, United States

c)

Italy, France, United States

d)

Germany, England, Soviet Union

48.

Which feature defines totalitarianism in the 1930s and 1940s?

a)

A parliament with shared executive power

b)

A dictator with total control and censorship

c)

A federal system balancing regional autonomy

d)

A monarchy limited by constitutional law

49.

What policy did Britain and France use toward Germany before World War II to avoid war?

a)

Appeasement allowing territorial gains

b)

Deterrence through nuclear threats

c)

Containment blocking expansion overseas

d)

Isolationism withdrawing from alliances

50.

Which event brought the United States into World War II?

a)

Italy’s campaign in North Africa

b)

Germany’s invasion of Poland

c)

Soviet annexation of the Baltics

d)

Japan’s attack on Pearl Harbor

51.

Match each World War II event with its region.

a)

Appeasement

1.

Europe

b)

D-Day

2.

Europe

c)

Holocaust

3.

Europe

d)

Invasion of Nanking

4.

Pacific

e)

Pearl Harbor

5.

Pacific

52.

Which statement best describes blitzkrieg?

a)

Slow trench advances with artillery barrages

b)

German strategy using rapid, coordinated attacks

c)

Naval blockades to starve enemy ports

d)

Strategic bombing of civilian centers

53.

What was the U.S. island-hopping strategy designed to achieve?

a)

Encircle Germany from the west

b)

Liberate North African territories

c)

Secure Atlantic shipping lanes

d)

Capture key islands to approach Japan

54.

Which actions are associated with Nazi totalitarianism under Hitler?

a)

Anti-Semitic race laws

b)

Youth indoctrination organizations

c)

Freedom of the press protections

d)

Promises to restore German greatness

55.

Which describes the Holocaust during World War II?

a)

Systematic persecution and murder of Jews

b)

Trials punishing leaders in Nuremberg

c)

U.S. plan to seize Pacific islands

d)

Quick armored strikes on enemy lines

56.

What was the turning point in Western Europe after the Allied landings in France?

a)

D-Day forcing Germany to fight on two fronts

b)

Battle of Britain ending Luftwaffe dominance

c)

Fall of Rome splitting Axis leadership

d)

El Alamein opening the path to Italy

57.

Which statement about the atomic bomb in World War II is accurate?

a)

The U.S. dropped bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki

b)

Germany used atomic weapons on London

c)

The Soviet Union bombed Berlin with nukes

d)

Japan tested nuclear devices in the Pacific

58.

After World War II, how was Germany reorganized?

a)

Divided into four occupation zones, Berlin divided

b)

Unified under a single democratic government

c)

Annexed entirely by the Soviet Union

d)

Placed under League of Nations control

59.

Which organization was created after World War II to replace the League of Nations?

a)

United Nations

b)

Warsaw Pact

c)

NATO

d)

European Union

60.

Which promise best summarizes Lenin’s slogan during the Bolshevik Revolution?

a)

Victory, Farms, and Freedom

b)

Workers, Wealth, and Wages

c)

Order, Authority, and Stability

d)

Peace, Land, and Bread

61.

Under Lenin’s New Economic Policy, what limited change occurred in the Soviet economy?

a)

Allowed some private ownership

b)

Ended all state control

c)

Returned land to nobility

d)

Created full free markets

62.

Which policy under Stalin aimed to combine small farms into large state-run units?

a)

Great Leap Forward

b)

New Economic Policy

c)

Collectivization of agriculture

d)

Containment strategy

63.

What was a result of Stalin’s Five Year Plans?

a)

Rapid return to capitalism

b)

Dissolution of secret police

c)

Industrial goals set centrally

d)

Immediate political freedoms

64.

The Holodomor in Ukraine is most directly associated with which factor?

a)

Man-made famine from quotas

b)

Foreign blockade of grain

c)

Natural disaster and drought

d)

Failure of the Marshall Plan

65.

Which describes the Iron Curtain during the Cold War?

a)

Treaty establishing NATO borders

b)

Naval blockade around Berlin

c)

Concrete wall across Germany

d)

Imaginary line dividing Europe

66.

Match each Cold War item to its description.

a)

Marshall Plan

1.

U.S. funds to rebuild Europe

b)

Truman Doctrine

2.

U.S. pledge to resist communism

c)

Containment

3.

Strategy to limit communism’s spread

d)

NATO

4.

Military alliance of Western nations

67.

Which pair correctly contrasts the Warsaw Pact with NATO?

a)

Economic aid program vs defense pact

b)

Eastern bloc alliance vs Western alliance

c)

Democratic union vs capitalist union

d)

U.S. domestic policy vs Soviet policy

68.

Why was the Berlin Wall constructed in 1961?

a)

To defend West Berlin from invasion

b)

To enforce the Marshall Plan rules

c)

To prevent escapes from East Berlin

d)

To divide NATO sectors in Berlin

69.

Which Cold War competition extended into science and technology?

a)

Agricultural collectivization

b)

Arms Race and Space Race

c)

Glasnost and Perestroika

d)

Five Year Plans and NEP

70.

Which conflicts are examples of Cold War proxy wars?

a)

Korean War

b)

Vietnam War

c)

Soviet-Afghan War

d)

Bay of Pigs Invasion

71.

What was the Bay of Pigs invasion?

a)

U.S. blockade of Soviet ships

b)

Successful Cuban revolution

c)

Failed attempt to oust Castro

d)

Peace talks ending the crisis

72.

During the Cuban Missile Crisis, what created the immediate danger of war?

a)

U.S. withdrawal from NATO

b)

Marshall Plan’s suspension

c)

Soviet missiles in Cuba

d)

Berlin Wall’s construction

73.

Which reforms under Gorbachev helped end the Cold War?

a)

Glasnost and Perestroika

b)

Great Leap Forward

c)

Five Year Plans

d)

Cultural Revolution

74.

Which event symbolized the Cold War’s conclusion in Europe?

a)

Fall of the Berlin Wall

b)

Signing of the Marshall Plan

c)

Creation of the Warsaw Pact

d)

Launch of Sputnik

75.

Which leader initiated the Great Leap Forward in China?

a)

Vladimir Lenin

b)

Mao Zedong

c)

Joseph Stalin

d)

Mikhail Gorbachev

76.

What was a consequence of the Great Leap Forward?

a)

Successful space program

b)

Failure of communal farms

c)

Rapid capitalist growth

d)

Peaceful political reforms

77.

Which idea aimed to unite Africans across the continent to achieve freedom and independence?

a)

Pan-Africanism across all African nations

b)

African socialism in select countries

c)

Colonial federation run by Europe

d)

Regional trade blocs for commerce

78.

Kwame Nkrumah promoted "positive action." What policy did he introduce alongside this approach?

a)

Africanization of government roles

b)

Militarization under foreign advisors

c)

Isolation from global trade networks

d)

Religious leadership in state law

79.

Kemal Ataturk’s reforms in Turkey are best described as:

a)

Westernized culture and dress codes

b)

Modernized institutions and industry

c)

Expanded empire through conquest

d)

Secularized state by removing religion from law

80.

Under apartheid in South Africa, what was the purpose of pass laws?

a)

Control Black South Africans’ movement

b)

Grant voting rights to all races

c)

Promote equal access to education

d)

Encourage interracial political parties

81.

Which statement best summarizes Nelson Mandela’s role in South Africa?

a)

Commanded foreign troops against rebellion

b)

Led anti-apartheid movement and later presidency

c)

Directed economic reforms under apartheid

d)

Negotiated colonial rule and preserved pass laws

82.

Which economic resources drew the British East India Company to control India?

a)

Cotton textiles and opium trade

b)

Spices production for export

c)

Tea plantations and indigo dye

d)

Gold mining and oil drilling

83.

Why was India called the "Jewel in the Crown" of the British Empire?

a)

Its military bases and naval ports

b)

Its early industrial revolution centers

c)

Its alliances with neighboring empires

d)

Its vast resources and strategic value

84.

Which methods characterize Mohandas Gandhi’s strategy against British rule?

a)

Nonviolence and passive resistance

b)

Salt March civil disobedience

c)

Homespun Movement boycotting textiles

d)

Guerrilla warfare and sabotage

85.

The Salt March primarily challenged which British policy in India?

a)

Compulsory military conscription

b)

Restrictions on religious gatherings

c)

Monopoly on salt production and taxes

d)

Ban on local textile weaving crafts

86.

What immediate outcome followed the Partition of India in 1947?

a)

Mass migrations causing widespread deaths

b)

Permanent peace between India and Pakistan

c)

Formation of a unified secular state

d)

Rapid end to all regional conflicts

87.

Which region remains contested between India and Pakistan since partition?

a)

Gujarat under international rule

b)

Bengal split into small districts

c)

Punjab controlled by one side

d)

Kashmir claimed by both countries

88.

Match each movement or leader to its country or focus.

a)

Pan-Africanism

1.

Continental African unity

b)

Mau Mau Rebellion

2.

Kenya against British rule

c)

Kemal Ataturk reforms

3.

Turkey modernization and secularism

d)

Apartheid resistance

4.

South Africa anti-segregation struggle

e)

Gandhi’s nonviolence

5.

India civil disobedience

89.

Which leader headed the Khmer Rouge during Cambodia’s genocide from 1975 to 1979?

a)

Pol Pot

b)

Ho Chi Minh

c)

Suharto

d)

Kim Il-sung

90.

In Cambodia, what were the “Killing Fields” primarily associated with during the Khmer Rouge era?

a)

Civil war between monarchists

b)

Religious persecution of Buddhists

c)

Foreign military occupation

d)

Mass starvation and executions

91.

During Argentina’s Dirty War, who organized protests to find the Missing?

a)

Military officers

b)

University students

c)

Mothers and grandmothers

d)

Foreign journalists

92.

Which technology helped Argentina’s Abuelas track down stolen children from the Dirty War?

a)

Facial recognition software

b)

Encrypted phone records

c)

Satellite geolocation

d)

Mitochondrial DNA testing

93.

What dynamic between Hutu and Tutsi contributed to the 1994 Rwandan Genocide?

a)

Colonial favoritism of Tutsi

b)

Border clashes with Uganda

c)

Religious rivalry

d)

Oil resource disputes

94.

Approximately how long did the Rwandan Genocide last and how many were killed?

a)

Three years; about 100,000

b)

About 100 days; up to 1 million

c)

Ten days; about 10,000

d)

Six months; about 50,000

95.

In Bosnia (1995), which policy targeted Christians and non-Serbs?

a)

Cultural revolution

b)

Ethnic cleansing

c)

Collectivization

d)

Apartheid laws

96.

Who led the Serbian forces implicated in Bosnia’s ethnic cleansing?

a)

Slobodan Milosevic

b)

Radovan Karadzic

c)

Franjo Tudman

d)

Alija Izetbegovic

97.

Which group did the Janjaweed target in Darfur, leading to mass killings and village burnings?

a)

Black Africans in Darfur

b)

Tutsi refugees in Congo

c)

Kurds in northern Iraq

d)

Copts in Egypt

98.

Which resource is repeatedly highlighted as crucial in Sudan/Darfur and broader Middle Eastern conflicts?

a)

Freshwater

b)

Oil

c)

Copper

d)

Timber

99.

Which event saw the U.S. help remove Iraq from Kuwait and eventually capture Saddam Hussein?

a)

Arab–Israeli War

b)

Syrian Civil War

c)

Iran–Iraq War

d)

Persian Gulf War

100.

Which movement led to pro-democracy uprisings across North Africa and the Middle East?

a)

Cedar Revolution

b)

Orange Revolution

c)

Green Revolution

d)

Arab Spring

101.

Which group controlled Afghanistan and sheltered Osama bin Laden before and after 9/11?

a)

Al-Qaeda in Iraq

b)

Northern Alliance

c)

Hezbollah

d)

Taliban

102.

Which organization emerged from Iraq and Syria and leveraged the internet to spread terror?

a)

Hamas

b)

ISIS

c)

Boko Haram

d)

FARC

103.

Which factor partly fueled protests against Iran’s Shah leading to the 1979 revolution?

a)

UN sanctions on agriculture

b)

Disputes over freshwater exports

c)

Loss of colonial territories

d)

Perceived U.S. influence and threatened culture

104.

Match each event or group to its description.

a)

Khmer Rouge

1.

Communist regime that created Killing Fields

b)

Mothers of the Plaza de Mayo

2.

Protesters seeking the Missing in Argentina

c)

Janjaweed

3.

Militia attacking Black Africans in Darfur

d)

Arab Spring

4.

Pro-democracy uprisings across the Middle East

105.

Which statements accurately describe Middle Eastern conflicts in this unit? Select ALL that apply.

a)

The U.S. removed Iraq from Kuwait

b)

Taliban protected Osama bin Laden

c)

ISIS used internet to amplify terror

d)

Oil is a central strategic resource

106.

Which statement best describes Zionism in the context of the Israel-Palestine conflict?

a)

Religious reform aiming to separate synagogue and state

b)

Economic plan to integrate regional oil markets

c)

Policy promoting pan-Arab unity across the Middle East

d)

Movement advocating a Jewish homeland in Israel

107.

After World War II and the Holocaust, what action did the United Nations take regarding the region?

a)

Declared Jerusalem an international protectorate

b)

Established a single Arab-led federation

c)

Placed the territory under British mandate

d)

Divided the land into Palestine and Israel

108.

Which outcome is associated with the Camp David Accords?

a)

Egypt recognized Israel and regained Sinai

b)

Jordan annexed the West Bank permanently

c)

Syria obtained control of the Golan Heights

d)

Palestinian Authority assumed Gaza administration

109.

What were the Intifadas primarily in response to?

a)

Jordanian restrictions on trade routes

b)

Egyptian blockade of the Sinai Peninsula

c)

Israeli settlements and military incursions

d)

Syrian withdrawal from the Golan Heights

110.

Which organization controls the Gaza Strip and continues conflict with the Israeli military?

a)

NAFTA, a North American trade bloc

b)

OPEC, an oil-producing consortium

c)

Hamas, a Palestinian militant group

d)

EU, a European economic union

111.

Match each agreement or organization with its primary purpose.

a)

Kyoto Protocol & Paris Accords

1.

Reduce greenhouse gas emissions

b)

European Union (EU)

2.

Create unified European market and currency

c)

NAFTA

3.

Increase North American trade integration

d)

OPEC

4.

Coordinate oil production and pricing

112.

What was a key goal of the Green Revolution?

a)

End desertification through urbanization

b)

Reduce oil dependence through wind power

c)

Unify currency across developing nations

d)

Increase food production using inputs

113.

Which global problems are highlighted in the modern era?

a)

Pollution affecting ecosystems

b)

Deforestation and desertification

c)

Climate change driven by emissions

d)

Universal resource abundance

114.

What was a major motivation behind forming the European Union?

a)

Increase oil exports to North America

b)

Prevent economic crises like pre-WWII Germany

c)

Expand military alliances in Eastern Europe

d)

Standardize agricultural subsidies worldwide

115.

Which description best fits NAFTA?

a)

A monetary union adopting the Euro

b)

An alliance coordinating Middle East policy

c)

A climate treaty limiting carbon emissions

d)

A trade pact among the U.S., Mexico, Canada

116.

What does OPEC primarily do in the global economy?

a)

Manages refugee resettlement programs

b)

Controls oil production and price coordination

c)

Regulates international banking standards

d)

Sets global carbon tax enforcement