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Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology — Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 146

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A type of relationship in which one species of organism uses the body of a larger species as its physical environment and makes use of that environment to acquire nutrients.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Symbiosis

2.

A relationship that manifests reciprocity of benefits between the organisms involved.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Symbiosis

3.

A type of relationship that involves a one‑sided beneficial relationship which usually ends up harmful for one organism.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Symbiosis

4.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding viruses? I. Are cellular organisms, which require host to replicate II. Contain genetic materials required for production of new viruses III. Require the host’s metabolic machinery to transcribe and translate genetic information

a)

I

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

5.

This is an example of an anaerobic spore‑forming bacillus.

a)

Clostridium

b)

Bacillus

c)

Listeria

d)

Mycobacteria

6.

Which of the following virus families is characterized as a single‑stranded DNA, non‑enveloped virus?

a)

Herpesviridae

b)

Poxviridae

c)

Adenoviridae

d)

Parvoviridae

7.

This is characterized as the most complex DNA virus.

a)

Herpesviridae

b)

Poxviridae

c)

Adenoviridae

d)

Parvoviridae

8.

This is/are examples of naked DNA viruses: I. Papova II. Adeno III. Parvo

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

9.

This is/are examples of enveloped DNA viruses: I. Herpes II. Hepadna III. Pox

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

10.

Most RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm. Which of the following RNA viruses replicate in the nucleus?

a)

Retrovirus

b)

Togavirus

c)

Picornavirus

d)

Paramyxovirus

11.

Generally RNA viruses are single‑stranded viral organisms. Which of the following is the only double‑stranded RNA virus?

a)

Rhinovirus

b)

Coronavirus

c)

Reovirus

d)

Orthomyxovirus

12.

One important generalization for RNA viruses is that they are usually enveloped. Among the RNA viruses there are three which are naked. Which of the following is/are naked RNA viruses? I. Picornavirus II. Reovirus III. Retrovirus

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

13.

This is a condition where there are small changes in the antigenic structure of an organism which may later result in an epidemic.

a)

Antigenic shift

b)

Antigenic drift

c)

Tolerance

d)

Immunity

14.

This refers to the complete change in the antigenic structure of an organism leading to the synthesis of new antigenic substances that have never been exposed to the human immune system. This may result in a pandemic.

a)

Antigenic shift

b)

Antigenic drift

c)

Tolerance

d)

Immunity

15.

Which of the influenza viruses is isolated in both humans and animals?

a)

Influenza A

b)

Influenza B

c)

Influenza C

d)

Influenza D

16.

This condition results when children with influenza or varicella are given aspirin.

a)

Herxheimer reaction

b)

Salicylism

c)

Reye syndrome

d)

Asthma

17.

Amantadine used for influenza A infection has been shown to be effective by preventing which step in the viral replication process?

a)

Penetration

b)

Uncoating

c)

Assembly

d)

Release

18.

This is/are examples of viruses classified under the Paramyxoviridae family: I. Influenza virus II. Respiratory syncytial virus III. Measles virus

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

19.

A viral organism well known to involve infection of the parotid gland and testes in males.

a)

Measles

b)

Mumps

c)

Herpes virus

d)

Respiratory syncytial virus

20.

Koplik’s spots seen among patients with measles are usually localized in the

a)

Upper extremities

b)

Lower extremities

c)

Mouth

d)

Scalp

21.

This/these statement(s) is/are regarding patients with measles during pregnancy: I. may result in birth defects II. is associated with spontaneous abortions III. may also result in premature labor

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

22.

Which of the following is/are transmitted via the fecal–oral route? I. Hepatitis A II. Hepatitis B III. Hepatitis C

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

23.

Which of the following hepatitis viruses is/are examples of RNA virus? I. Hepatitis A II. Hepatitis B III. Hepatitis C

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

24.

Chickenpox is a common disease of children. It is caused by

a)

Poxviridae

b)

Varicella

c)

Zoster

d)

CMV

25.

Virus associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma.

a)

EBV

b)

CMV

c)

Varicella‑Zoster

d)

HSV‑1

26.

The first intestinal microorganism to be observed under a microscope is

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Cryptosporidium parvum

c)

Ascaris lumbricoides

d)

Giardia lamblia

27.

Which of the following species can be found in the small intestine?

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Giardia lamblia

c)

Trichuris trichiura

d)

Enterobius vermicularis

28.

This organism is one of the important causes of severe diarrhea in immunocompromised individuals such as patients with AIDS.

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Giardia lamblia

c)

Isospora belli

d)

Strongyloides stercoralis

29.

The most common and deadliest Plasmodium.

a)

Plasmodium vivax

b)

Plasmodium ovale

c)

Plasmodium falciparum

d)

Plasmodium malariae

30.

The organism that is the causative agent of erythema infectiosum in children.

a)

Adenovirus

b)

Parvovirus

c)

Polyomavirus

31.

Which of the following belong/s to the group of the arboviruses? I. Bunyaviridae II. Flaviviridae III. Coronaviridae

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

32.

The presence of this in the serum of patients indicates immunity to Hepatitis B virus.

a)

HBsAg

b)

Anti-HBsAg

c)

Anti-HBcAg

d)

Anti-HBeAg

33.

The presence of this antigen indicates high infectivity and active disease of Hepatitis B virus.

a)

HBsAg

b)

HBeAg

c)

HBcAg

d)

Anti-HBeAg

34.

The presence of this in the serum of a patient with hepatitis will ascertain that the patient has an old Hepatitis B infection.

a)

Anti-HBsAg

b)

IgM-Anti-HBcAg

c)

IgG-Anti-HBcAg

d)

Anti-HBeAg

35.

This is a parenterally transmitted (blood-borne) hepatitis which can only replicate and cause infection with the help of Hepatitis B virus.

a)

HEV

b)

HAV

c)

HCV

d)

HDV

36.

This/These statement/s is/are true for HSV-1: I. Causes gingivostomatitis II. Causes herpetic keratitis III. An STD

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

37.

This is/are example of organisms that can cross the placenta: I. Rubeola II. Cytomegalovirus III. Leprosy

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

38.

This is the arbovirus family from which the dengue fever and yellow fever viruses are classified.

a)

Bunyaviridae

b)

Togaviridae

c)

Flaviviridae

d)

Caliciviridae

39.

Which of the following viral organism is characteristically associated with Peyer’s patches of the intestines?

a)

Poliovirus

b)

Rubella

c)

Coronavirus

d)

Adenovirus

40.

This/These statement/s is/are true concerning the polio vaccine: I. Salk vaccine is made of killed-polio viruses II. Sabin vaccine is made of attenuated polio virus III. The vaccine can pick up virulence and cause paralysis

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

41.

This/These is/are the common viral organism/s: I. Rhinovirus II. Coronavirus III. Flavivirus

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

42.

Which viral organism has a characteristic bullet-shaped, enveloped, helical nucleocapsid?

a)

Poliovirus

b)

Rabies virus

c)

Coronavirus

d)

Adenovirus

43.

This is/are statement(s) pertaining to the rabies virus: I. Brain cells of infected animals and humans contain virions in the cytoplasm called Negri bodies II. Bitten individual should receive human rabies immune globulin (passive immunization) III. Killed rabies virus vaccine (active immunization) is given only as prophylaxis for rabies.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

44.

This is also known as the “break bone fever.”

a)

Dengue fever

b)

Yellow fever

c)

Hay fever

d)

Relapsing fever

45.

Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms. They may be classified according to their organ for locomotion. Which of the following protozoan has no definite organ for motility?

a)

Sarcodina

b)

Mastigophora

c)

Ciliaphora

d)

Sporozoa

46.

Member(s) of the phylum Apicomplexa with motile zygote: I. Cryptosporidium II. Plasmodium III. Toxoplasma

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

47.

This intestinal protozoan/s cause/s severe diarrhea in individuals with defective immune system such as patients with AIDS: I. Giardia II. Isospora III. Cryptosporidium

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

48.

This is the ingested infective form of protozoan parasites in humans.

a)

Cysts

b)

Merozoites

c)

Trophozoites

d)

Cytostome

49.

This is/are examples of free-living pathogenic amoebae in humans: I. Entamoeba II. Naegleria III. Acanthamoeba

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

50.

A protozoan with high incidence of infection among campers and backpackers after drinking from clear mountain streams.

a)

Entamoeba

b)

Trichomonas

c)

Giardia

d)

Toxoplasma

51.

This is an experimental drug given for AIDS patients suffering from cryptosporidiosis.

a)

Spiramycin

b)

Cotrimoxazole

c)

Albendazole

d)

Amphotericin B

52.

This is the drug of choice in AIDS patients suffering from Isospora belli infection.

a)

Spiramycin

b)

Cotrimoxazole

c)

Albendazole

d)

Amphotericin B

53.

This is the causative agent of the so-called “Leningrad’s curse.”

a)

Entamoeba

b)

Trichomonas

c)

Giardia

d)

Toxoplasma

54.

A protozoan organism usually opportunistic among patients with AIDS; it is naturally harbored by cats.

a)

Entamoeba

b)

Trichomonas

c)

Giardia

d)

Toxoplasma

55.

This is the most common opportunistic infection among AIDS patients.

a)

Cryptosporidiosis

b)

Isosporosis

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Toxoplasmosis

56.

This drug is given both as a prophylactic and symptomatic treatment of PCP in AIDS patients.

a)

Spiramycin

b)

Cotrimoxazole

c)

Albendazole

d)

Amphotericin B

57.

This is the malarial species that causes the so-called quartan malaria.

a)

Plasmodium ovale

b)

Plasmodium vivax

c)

Plasmodium malariae

d)

Plasmodium falciparum

58.

This is/are true statements regarding malaria: I. Schizogony or the asexual cycle of malaria occurs in mosquito II. Sporogony or the sexual cycle of malaria occurs in man III. Mosquitoes are the definitive hosts for malaria

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

59.

This is the malarial species that has a characteristic crescent or banana shaped gametocytes.

a)

P. ovale

b)

P. vivax

c)

P. malariae

d)

P. falciparum

60.

The release of this form of the malarial parasite triggers the fever, chills and sweats of malaria.

a)

Sporozoites

b)

Merozoites

c)

Trophozoites

d)

Gametocytes

61.

This is/are the species of malaria which are capable of forming dormant in the liver called the hypnozoites. I. P. vivax II. P. falciparum III. P. ovale

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

62.

This is a form of the malarial parasite that is taken up by the mosquito as it bites on human.

a)

Sporozoites

b)

Merozoites

c)

Trophozoites

d)

Gametocytes

63.

Which of the following drugs is given for the exo-erythrocytic form of malaria?

a)

Primaquine

b)

Chloroquine

c)

Mefloquine

d)

Doxycycline

64.

This is/are agents given for Chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum. I. Quinine II. Fansidar III. Mefloquine

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

65.

This is the drug coined used as the “radical cure” of malaria.

a)

Primaquine

b)

Chloroquine

c)

Mefloquine

d)

Doxycycline

66.

This is the only form of the blood-borne flagellates which is non-flagellated.

a)

Promastigote

b)

Epimastigote

c)

Amastigote

d)

Trypomastigote

67.

This is the organism which causes kala-azar or Visceral Leishmaniasis.

a)

L. braziliensis

b)

L. donovani

c)

L. tropica

d)

L. cruzi

68.

This is the causative agent of Espundia or Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis.

a)

L. braziliensis

b)

L. donovani

c)

L. tropica

d)

L. cruzi

69.

This is the drug of choice for all forms of leishmaniasis.

a)

Primaquine

b)

Stibogluconate

c)

Pentamidine

70.

This is the causative agent of the West African sleeping disease.

a)

Trypanosome brucei rhodesiense

b)

T. brucei gambiense

c)

T. cruzi

d)

L. donovani

71.

This is the drug given for the treatment of African sleeping disease.

a)

Nifurtimox

b)

Stibogluconate

c)

Sulfadiazine

d)

Suramin

72.

There is currently no approved drug for the treatment of American sleeping disease, although there are two drugs currently used for acute cases only. Which of the following drugs is used for acute cases of American sleeping disease?

a)

Nifurtimox

b)

Stibogluconate

c)

Sulfadiazine

d)

Suramin

73.

This is/ are examples of nematode that can cause infection by penetrating intact skin. I. Necator americanus II. Trichuris trichura III. Enterobius vermacularis

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

74.

This is/ are examples of nematodes which is/are acquired thru the ingestion of eggs. I. Ascaris lumbricoides II. Trichuris trichura III. Strongyloides stercoralis

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

75.

This nematode is acquired through the ingestion of encysted larvae present in pork meat.

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Trichuris trichura

c)

Strongyloides stercoralis

d)

Trichinella spiralis

76.

This is the drug of choice for patients having Ascariasis.

a)

Pyrantel pamoate

b)

Ivermectin

c)

Mebendazole

d)

Praziquantel

77.

This is the drug of choice for patients having filariasis.

a)

Thiabendazole

b)

Ivermectin

c)

Mebendazole

d)

Praziquantel

78.

Drug of choice for patients suffering from Strongyloides stercoralis infection.

a)

Thiabendazole

b)

Ivermectin

c)

Mebendazole

d)

Praziquantel

79.

This is the drug of choice for flukes.

a)

Thiabendazole

b)

Ivermectin

c)

Mebendazole

d)

Praziquantel

80.

The infection from this nematode will cause a rise in the levels of serum muscle enzymes such as creatinine phosphokinase.

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Trichinella spiralis

c)

Strongyloides stercoralis

d)

Trichuris trichura

81.

A helminth infection usually is accompanied by increase in the serum levels of eosinophils. This may be result of the tissue invasion of the helminth. Which of the following organisms listed has no tissue invasion, hence, will not manifest with elevated level of serum eosinophils.

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Trichinella spiralis

c)

Strongyloides stercoralis

d)

Trichuris trichura

82.

This is a diagnostic test for the presence of Enterobius vermicularis.

a)

Kato thick method

b)

Kato-katz method

c)

Scotch tape swab method

d)

Brine flotation technique

83.

This is/ are example(s) of nematode which is/are transmitted usually by an arthropod vector. I. Onchocerca volvulus II. Wuchereria bancrofti III. Brugia malayi

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

84.

This organism is usually acquired by fishermen eating raw small brackfish water fish called “bagsit” (Hypseleotris bipartite).

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Trichinella spiralis

c)

Capillaria philippinensis

d)

Trichuris trichura

85.

This drug is given as the drug of choice for the bancroftian filariasis.

a)

Diethylcarbamazine

b)

Ivermectin

c)

Mebendazole

d)

Praziquantel

86.

This is an example of trematode which inhibit/s the portal blood stream of vertebrates.

a)

Fasciola hepatica

b)

Schistosoma japonicum

c)

Fasciolopsis buski

d)

Clonorchis sinensis

87.

This is/are example/s of flukes which inhibit/s the liver if vertebrates. I. Fasciola hepatica II. Clonorchis sinensis III. Paragonimus westermani

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

88.

This is/are example/s of tapeworms which require/s a vertebrate as intermediate host. I. Taenia solium II. Hymenolepsis nana III. Dipylidium caninum

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

89.

Which of the following tapeworms will require an invertebrate as intermediate host? I. Taenia solium II. Hymenolepsis nana III. Dipylidium caninum

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

90.

This is the organism which cause the Chinese liver fluke infection

a)

Fasciola hepatica

b)

Clonorchis sinensis

c)

Fasciolopsis buski

d)

Schistosoma japonicum

91.

This is also known as the Giant intestinal fluke

a)

Fasciola hepatica

b)

Clonorchis sinensis

c)

Fasciolopsis buski

d)

Schistosoma japonicum

92.

This is/are true statement/s regarding Schistosoma I. They are the number one worldwide water-borne protozoal infection II. They multiply in humans III. Eggs must reach freshwater to hatch

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

93.

There are different species of Schistosoma and common in them is they lay eggs in the feces. Which of the following Schistosoma deposits eggs in the urine?

a)

Schistosoma haematobium

b)

Schistosoma Israeli

c)

Schistosoma mansoni

d)

Schistosoma japonicum

94.

Aside from Praziquantel, this drug is also given for tapeworms

a)

Diethylcarbamazine

b)

Ivermectin

c)

Mebendazole

d)

Niclosamide

95.

This is the smallest tapeworm that infects humans

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Taenia saginata

c)

Hymenolepsis nana

d)

Echinococcus granulosus

96.

This is the organism causing the so called River blindness

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Trichinella spiralis

c)

Capillaria philippinensis

d)

Onchocerca volvulus

97.

This is the organism causing “Hydratid disease”

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Taenia saginata

c)

Hymenolepsis nana

d)

Echinococcus granulosus

98.

This is/are example/s of antihelminthic drugs which produce/s their effects by inducing paralysis of the worm I. Praziquantel II. Mebendazole III. Diethylcarbamazine

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

99.

This is/ are example/s of filarial nematodes I. Wuchereria bancrofti II. Brugia malayi III. Loa loa

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

100.

Endotoxins are usually found in garam-neagative organism. Which of the is the only gram-positive organism which produces an endotoxin

a)

Listeria monocytogenes

b)

Bacillus anthracis

c)

Clostridium sp

d)

Nocardia

101.

This is the average time required for the population , or the biomass of an organism to double

a)

Lag time

b)

Growth rate constant

c)

Generation time

d)

Priming time

102.

This is the portion in the bacterial growth curve representing the period at which the newly inoculated cells are adapting to their new environment. Enzymes and intermediates are formed and accumulated until they are present inn concentrations that permit growth to resume.

a)

Lag time

b)

Exponential phase

c)

Maximum stationary phase

d)

Death phase

103.

This phase in the bacterial growth curve represents the time where exhaustion of nutrients or the accumulation of toxic products causes growth to cease completely. There is slow loss of cells through death, which is just balanced by the formation of new cells through growth and division. This is a period where the total count slowly increases although the variable count stays constant.

a)

Lag time

b)

Exponential phase

c)

Maximum stationary phase

d)

Death phase

104.

This is/are example/s of drugs that cause/s the destruction of bacterial DNA I. Ionizing radiation II. Alkylating agents III. UV light

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

105.

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Amphotecin B as an antifungal agent/

a)

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

b)

Alteration of cell membrane function

c)

Inhibition of protein synthesis

d)

Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis

106.

This is/are possible ways in which bacteria may gain resistance to antibacterial agents I. Alteration of the target site II. Synthesis of enzymes that modify or destroy the antibacterial agent III. Presence of capsule inn a bacteria

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

107.

This is/are example/s of drugs that inhibit/s the cell wall synthesis I. Penicillins II. Cyclosporine III. Teicoplanin

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II and III

108.

This/ These statement/s is/are true about the glycopeptide antibiotics I. Given only parentally as it is not absorbed from the GIT II. Given only for gram-positive organism III. Potentially ototoxic and nephrotoxic

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II and III

109.

This is/are aminoglycoside antibiotics derived from Streptomyces species I. Streptomycin II. Gentamicin III. Azithromycin

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II and III

110.

Tetracyclines are indicated for the treatment of bacterial infection from which organism/s I. Staphylococcus II. Mycoplasma III. Chlamydia

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II and III

111.

This antibacterial agent claimed its glory by being the first broad spectrum antibiotic introduced. It contains a nitrobenzene nucleus, which is responsible for some of its toxic side effects. It blocks the action of peptidyl transferase, thereby preventing peptide bond synthesis. Currently its main indication is for infections of Salmonella typi

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Doxycycline

c)

Chloramphenicol

d)

Vancomycin

112.

This is the most common drug used as alternative for patients allergic to penicillins

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Doxycycline

c)

Chloramphenicol

d)

Vancomycin

113.

This is a steroid-like compound that inhibit protein synthesis by forming a atable complex with elongation factor EF-G , guanosine diphosphate and the ribosome. It is given for gram-positive cocci but not used alone due to the development of rapid resistance to the drug.

a)

Erythromycin

b)

sulfonamides

c)

Fusidic acid

d)

lincomycin

114.

sulphonamides are drugs acting as nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors by competing this substrate

a)

Aminoacyl

b)

ATP

c)

PABA

d)

Peptidyl tRNA

115.

These antibacterial agents prevent the supercoiling of the bacterial chromosomes

a)

Macrolides

b)

Rifampicin

c)

Nalidixic acid

d)

Clindamycin

116.

These drugs are contraindicated in children due to the possible toxic effects on cartilage development

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Rifampicin

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Clindamycin

117.

This drug acts by inhibiting the synthesis of mRNA

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Rifampicin

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Clindamycin

118.

This drug is currently given as the drug of choice for the prophylaxis of close contacts of meningococcal and Haemophilus meningitis

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Rifampicin

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Clindamycin

119.

This drug is important in the management of parasites and anaerobic bacteria

a)

Rifabutin

b)

Rifampicin

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Nitrofurantoin

120.

This is/are true statements about Colistin I. It is a polymyxin antibiotic acting on the cell membrane II. It is systemically given for systemic infections III. It is used topically for wound irrigation and bladder washout

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II and III

121.

Methenamine is used as urinary tract antiseptic/s. Methenamine is hydrolysed into which compound to provide its antibacterial effect in the urinary tract?

a)

Ethylene

b)

Formaldehyde

c)

Ammonia

d)

Acetic acid

122.

This is given together with isoniazid for patients with TB to prevent its neurologic side effects

a)

Rifampicin

b)

Ethambutol

c)

Pyridoxine

d)

Pyrazinamide

123.

This is anti-TB drug that inhibits and does not kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It usually presents an important toxic side effect such as optic neuritis

a)

Rifampicin

b)

Ethambutol

c)

Pyridoxine

d)

Pyrazinamide

124.

This expensive drug is given for dapsone-resistant M. leprae

a)

Thalidomide

b)

Para-aminosalicylic acid

c)

Clofazime

d)

Rifampicin

125.

This is the most important agent used for severe systemic mycoses, but is toxic

a)

Ketoconazole

b)

Miconazole

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Amphotericin

126.

This is an antifungal that acts by inhibiting lanosterol C14-demethylase, an important enzyme in sterol synthesis

a)

Griseofulvin

b)

Miconazole

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Amphotericin

127.

This is an important antifungal agent which inhibits DNA synthesis and is active only on yeasts (Candida and Cryptococcus)

a)

Griseofulvin

b)

Miconazole

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Amphotericin

128.

An antifungal that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis and has anti-mitotic activity by inhibiting microtubule assembly

a)

Griseofulvin

b)

Miconazole

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Amphotericin

129.

This is an example of a topical agent, which is derived from the combination of benzoic and salicylic acids

a)

Haloprogin

b)

Tolnaftate

c)

Naftifine

d)

Whitfield’s ointment

130.

This antiviral agent specifically acts by inhibiting the penetration and uncoating of viral organism

a)

Acyclovir

b)

Amantadine

c)

Ribavirin

d)

Interferons

131.

This is an antiviral agent which is effective in preventing viral protein synthesis

a)

Acyclovir

b)

Amantadine

c)

Ribavirin

d)

Interferons

132.

This is/are example of antiviral agent/s that act in the viral DNA or RNA synthesis I. Idoxuridine II. Acyclovir III. Zidovudine

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II and III

133.

Vaccines are prepared from which of the following I. Immunoglobulins II. Killed organism III. Subcellular fractions

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

134.

This was the first vaccine in humans used to be made by recombinant DNA technology

a)

Polio vaccine

b)

Rabies vaccine

c)

Hepa B

d)

Measles vaccine

135.

This is the only viral disease where post-exposure vaccination is successful due to its long incubation period

a)

Polio

b)

Rabies

c)

Hepa B

d)

Measles

136.

This is an agent used for the control of bacterial growth, and is classified as an alkylating agent

a)

Formaldehyde

b)

Alcohols

c)

Detergents

d)

Heavy metal ions

137.

This agent works by binding to sulfhydryl groups of bacteria

a)

Formaldehyde

b)

Alcohols

c)

Detergents

d)

Heavy metal ions

138.

These organisms do not require organic nutrients for growth

a)

Heterotrophs

b)

Chemolithotrophs

c)

Autotrophs

d)

Psychotrophs

139.

These are organisms that use an inorganic substrate such as hydrogen or thiosulfate as reductant and carbon monoxide as carbon source

a)

Heterotrophs

b)

Chemolithotrophs

c)

Autotrophs

d)

Psychotrophs

140.

These are organisms characterized to have flagella all over the cell body

a)

Lopotrichous

b)

Atrichous

c)

Peritrichous

d)

Amphitrichous

141.

These are organisms that possess no flagella

a)

Lopotrichous

b)

Atrichous

c)

Peritrichous

d)

Amphitrichous

142.

These are organisms that possess a tuft of flagella at one end

a)

Lopotrichous

b)

Atrichous

c)

Peritrichous

d)

Amphitrichous

143.

There are generally two types of stain, an Acidic and Basic stain. Which is/are true statement/s about Basic stains I. They are composed of colored cation with a colorless anion II. They combine with negatively charged phosphate present in bacterial cells III. They are used in negative staining

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II and III

144.

This is a specific stain used for staining nuclei

a)

Feulgen stain

b)

Carbolfuchsin

c)

Nigrosin

145.

This is also known as the Welch method

a)

Gram stain

b)

Acid-fast stain

c)

Spore stain

d)

Capsule stain

146.

A stain specifically used to stain spores

a)

Malachite green

b)

Carbolfuchsin

c)

Nigrosin