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WorksheetsMicrobiology, Public Health and Immunology — Worksheet Questions
Total questions: 146
Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins
A type of relationship in which one species of organism uses the body of a larger species as its physical environment and makes use of that environment to acquire nutrients.
Commensalism
Mutualism
Parasitism
Symbiosis
A relationship that manifests reciprocity of benefits between the organisms involved.
Commensalism
Mutualism
Parasitism
Symbiosis
A type of relationship that involves a one‑sided beneficial relationship which usually ends up harmful for one organism.
Commensalism
Mutualism
Parasitism
Symbiosis
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding viruses? I. Are cellular organisms, which require host to replicate II. Contain genetic materials required for production of new viruses III. Require the host’s metabolic machinery to transcribe and translate genetic information
I
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is an example of an anaerobic spore‑forming bacillus.
Clostridium
Bacillus
Listeria
Mycobacteria
Which of the following virus families is characterized as a single‑stranded DNA, non‑enveloped virus?
Herpesviridae
Poxviridae
Adenoviridae
Parvoviridae
This is characterized as the most complex DNA virus.
Herpesviridae
Poxviridae
Adenoviridae
Parvoviridae
This is/are examples of naked DNA viruses: I. Papova II. Adeno III. Parvo
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is/are examples of enveloped DNA viruses: I. Herpes II. Hepadna III. Pox
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
Most RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm. Which of the following RNA viruses replicate in the nucleus?
Retrovirus
Togavirus
Picornavirus
Paramyxovirus
Generally RNA viruses are single‑stranded viral organisms. Which of the following is the only double‑stranded RNA virus?
Rhinovirus
Coronavirus
Reovirus
Orthomyxovirus
One important generalization for RNA viruses is that they are usually enveloped. Among the RNA viruses there are three which are naked. Which of the following is/are naked RNA viruses? I. Picornavirus II. Reovirus III. Retrovirus
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is a condition where there are small changes in the antigenic structure of an organism which may later result in an epidemic.
Antigenic shift
Antigenic drift
Tolerance
Immunity
This refers to the complete change in the antigenic structure of an organism leading to the synthesis of new antigenic substances that have never been exposed to the human immune system. This may result in a pandemic.
Antigenic shift
Antigenic drift
Tolerance
Immunity
Which of the influenza viruses is isolated in both humans and animals?
Influenza A
Influenza B
Influenza C
Influenza D
This condition results when children with influenza or varicella are given aspirin.
Herxheimer reaction
Salicylism
Reye syndrome
Asthma
Amantadine used for influenza A infection has been shown to be effective by preventing which step in the viral replication process?
Penetration
Uncoating
Assembly
Release
This is/are examples of viruses classified under the Paramyxoviridae family: I. Influenza virus II. Respiratory syncytial virus III. Measles virus
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
A viral organism well known to involve infection of the parotid gland and testes in males.
Measles
Mumps
Herpes virus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Koplik’s spots seen among patients with measles are usually localized in the
Upper extremities
Lower extremities
Mouth
Scalp
This/these statement(s) is/are regarding patients with measles during pregnancy: I. may result in birth defects II. is associated with spontaneous abortions III. may also result in premature labor
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
Which of the following is/are transmitted via the fecal–oral route? I. Hepatitis A II. Hepatitis B III. Hepatitis C
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
Which of the following hepatitis viruses is/are examples of RNA virus? I. Hepatitis A II. Hepatitis B III. Hepatitis C
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
Chickenpox is a common disease of children. It is caused by
Poxviridae
Varicella
Zoster
CMV
Virus associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma.
EBV
CMV
Varicella‑Zoster
HSV‑1
The first intestinal microorganism to be observed under a microscope is
Entamoeba histolytica
Cryptosporidium parvum
Ascaris lumbricoides
Giardia lamblia
Which of the following species can be found in the small intestine?
Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia
Trichuris trichiura
Enterobius vermicularis
This organism is one of the important causes of severe diarrhea in immunocompromised individuals such as patients with AIDS.
Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia
Isospora belli
Strongyloides stercoralis
The most common and deadliest Plasmodium.
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium malariae
The organism that is the causative agent of erythema infectiosum in children.
Adenovirus
Parvovirus
Polyomavirus
Which of the following belong/s to the group of the arboviruses? I. Bunyaviridae II. Flaviviridae III. Coronaviridae
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
The presence of this in the serum of patients indicates immunity to Hepatitis B virus.
HBsAg
Anti-HBsAg
Anti-HBcAg
Anti-HBeAg
The presence of this antigen indicates high infectivity and active disease of Hepatitis B virus.
HBsAg
HBeAg
HBcAg
Anti-HBeAg
The presence of this in the serum of a patient with hepatitis will ascertain that the patient has an old Hepatitis B infection.
Anti-HBsAg
IgM-Anti-HBcAg
IgG-Anti-HBcAg
Anti-HBeAg
This is a parenterally transmitted (blood-borne) hepatitis which can only replicate and cause infection with the help of Hepatitis B virus.
HEV
HAV
HCV
HDV
This/These statement/s is/are true for HSV-1: I. Causes gingivostomatitis II. Causes herpetic keratitis III. An STD
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is/are example of organisms that can cross the placenta: I. Rubeola II. Cytomegalovirus III. Leprosy
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is the arbovirus family from which the dengue fever and yellow fever viruses are classified.
Bunyaviridae
Togaviridae
Flaviviridae
Caliciviridae
Which of the following viral organism is characteristically associated with Peyer’s patches of the intestines?
Poliovirus
Rubella
Coronavirus
Adenovirus
This/These statement/s is/are true concerning the polio vaccine: I. Salk vaccine is made of killed-polio viruses II. Sabin vaccine is made of attenuated polio virus III. The vaccine can pick up virulence and cause paralysis
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This/These is/are the common viral organism/s: I. Rhinovirus II. Coronavirus III. Flavivirus
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
Which viral organism has a characteristic bullet-shaped, enveloped, helical nucleocapsid?
Poliovirus
Rabies virus
Coronavirus
Adenovirus
This is/are statement(s) pertaining to the rabies virus: I. Brain cells of infected animals and humans contain virions in the cytoplasm called Negri bodies II. Bitten individual should receive human rabies immune globulin (passive immunization) III. Killed rabies virus vaccine (active immunization) is given only as prophylaxis for rabies.
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is also known as the “break bone fever.”
Dengue fever
Yellow fever
Hay fever
Relapsing fever
Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms. They may be classified according to their organ for locomotion. Which of the following protozoan has no definite organ for motility?
Sarcodina
Mastigophora
Ciliaphora
Sporozoa
Member(s) of the phylum Apicomplexa with motile zygote: I. Cryptosporidium II. Plasmodium III. Toxoplasma
I only
III only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III
This intestinal protozoan/s cause/s severe diarrhea in individuals with defective immune system such as patients with AIDS: I. Giardia II. Isospora III. Cryptosporidium
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is the ingested infective form of protozoan parasites in humans.
Cysts
Merozoites
Trophozoites
Cytostome
This is/are examples of free-living pathogenic amoebae in humans: I. Entamoeba II. Naegleria III. Acanthamoeba
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
A protozoan with high incidence of infection among campers and backpackers after drinking from clear mountain streams.
Entamoeba
Trichomonas
Giardia
Toxoplasma
This is an experimental drug given for AIDS patients suffering from cryptosporidiosis.
Spiramycin
Cotrimoxazole
Albendazole
Amphotericin B
This is the drug of choice in AIDS patients suffering from Isospora belli infection.
Spiramycin
Cotrimoxazole
Albendazole
Amphotericin B
This is the causative agent of the so-called “Leningrad’s curse.”
Entamoeba
Trichomonas
Giardia
Toxoplasma
A protozoan organism usually opportunistic among patients with AIDS; it is naturally harbored by cats.
Entamoeba
Trichomonas
Giardia
Toxoplasma
This is the most common opportunistic infection among AIDS patients.
Cryptosporidiosis
Isosporosis
Pneumonia
Toxoplasmosis
This drug is given both as a prophylactic and symptomatic treatment of PCP in AIDS patients.
Spiramycin
Cotrimoxazole
Albendazole
Amphotericin B
This is the malarial species that causes the so-called quartan malaria.
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium falciparum
This is/are true statements regarding malaria: I. Schizogony or the asexual cycle of malaria occurs in mosquito II. Sporogony or the sexual cycle of malaria occurs in man III. Mosquitoes are the definitive hosts for malaria
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is the malarial species that has a characteristic crescent or banana shaped gametocytes.
P. ovale
P. vivax
P. malariae
P. falciparum
The release of this form of the malarial parasite triggers the fever, chills and sweats of malaria.
Sporozoites
Merozoites
Trophozoites
Gametocytes
This is/are the species of malaria which are capable of forming dormant in the liver called the hypnozoites. I. P. vivax II. P. falciparum III. P. ovale
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is a form of the malarial parasite that is taken up by the mosquito as it bites on human.
Sporozoites
Merozoites
Trophozoites
Gametocytes
Which of the following drugs is given for the exo-erythrocytic form of malaria?
Primaquine
Chloroquine
Mefloquine
Doxycycline
This is/are agents given for Chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum. I. Quinine II. Fansidar III. Mefloquine
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is the drug coined used as the “radical cure” of malaria.
Primaquine
Chloroquine
Mefloquine
Doxycycline
This is the only form of the blood-borne flagellates which is non-flagellated.
Promastigote
Epimastigote
Amastigote
Trypomastigote
This is the organism which causes kala-azar or Visceral Leishmaniasis.
L. braziliensis
L. donovani
L. tropica
L. cruzi
This is the causative agent of Espundia or Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis.
L. braziliensis
L. donovani
L. tropica
L. cruzi
This is the drug of choice for all forms of leishmaniasis.
Primaquine
Stibogluconate
Pentamidine
This is the causative agent of the West African sleeping disease.
Trypanosome brucei rhodesiense
T. brucei gambiense
T. cruzi
L. donovani
This is the drug given for the treatment of African sleeping disease.
Nifurtimox
Stibogluconate
Sulfadiazine
Suramin
There is currently no approved drug for the treatment of American sleeping disease, although there are two drugs currently used for acute cases only. Which of the following drugs is used for acute cases of American sleeping disease?
Nifurtimox
Stibogluconate
Sulfadiazine
Suramin
This is/ are examples of nematode that can cause infection by penetrating intact skin. I. Necator americanus II. Trichuris trichura III. Enterobius vermacularis
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is/ are examples of nematodes which is/are acquired thru the ingestion of eggs. I. Ascaris lumbricoides II. Trichuris trichura III. Strongyloides stercoralis
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This nematode is acquired through the ingestion of encysted larvae present in pork meat.
Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichuris trichura
Strongyloides stercoralis
Trichinella spiralis
This is the drug of choice for patients having Ascariasis.
Pyrantel pamoate
Ivermectin
Mebendazole
Praziquantel
This is the drug of choice for patients having filariasis.
Thiabendazole
Ivermectin
Mebendazole
Praziquantel
Drug of choice for patients suffering from Strongyloides stercoralis infection.
Thiabendazole
Ivermectin
Mebendazole
Praziquantel
This is the drug of choice for flukes.
Thiabendazole
Ivermectin
Mebendazole
Praziquantel
The infection from this nematode will cause a rise in the levels of serum muscle enzymes such as creatinine phosphokinase.
Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichinella spiralis
Strongyloides stercoralis
Trichuris trichura
A helminth infection usually is accompanied by increase in the serum levels of eosinophils. This may be result of the tissue invasion of the helminth. Which of the following organisms listed has no tissue invasion, hence, will not manifest with elevated level of serum eosinophils.
Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichinella spiralis
Strongyloides stercoralis
Trichuris trichura
This is a diagnostic test for the presence of Enterobius vermicularis.
Kato thick method
Kato-katz method
Scotch tape swab method
Brine flotation technique
This is/ are example(s) of nematode which is/are transmitted usually by an arthropod vector. I. Onchocerca volvulus II. Wuchereria bancrofti III. Brugia malayi
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This organism is usually acquired by fishermen eating raw small brackfish water fish called “bagsit” (Hypseleotris bipartite).
Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichinella spiralis
Capillaria philippinensis
Trichuris trichura
This drug is given as the drug of choice for the bancroftian filariasis.
Diethylcarbamazine
Ivermectin
Mebendazole
Praziquantel
This is an example of trematode which inhibit/s the portal blood stream of vertebrates.
Fasciola hepatica
Schistosoma japonicum
Fasciolopsis buski
Clonorchis sinensis
This is/are example/s of flukes which inhibit/s the liver if vertebrates. I. Fasciola hepatica II. Clonorchis sinensis III. Paragonimus westermani
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is/are example/s of tapeworms which require/s a vertebrate as intermediate host. I. Taenia solium II. Hymenolepsis nana III. Dipylidium caninum
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
Which of the following tapeworms will require an invertebrate as intermediate host? I. Taenia solium II. Hymenolepsis nana III. Dipylidium caninum
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is the organism which cause the Chinese liver fluke infection
Fasciola hepatica
Clonorchis sinensis
Fasciolopsis buski
Schistosoma japonicum
This is also known as the Giant intestinal fluke
Fasciola hepatica
Clonorchis sinensis
Fasciolopsis buski
Schistosoma japonicum
This is/are true statement/s regarding Schistosoma I. They are the number one worldwide water-borne protozoal infection II. They multiply in humans III. Eggs must reach freshwater to hatch
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
There are different species of Schistosoma and common in them is they lay eggs in the feces. Which of the following Schistosoma deposits eggs in the urine?
Schistosoma haematobium
Schistosoma Israeli
Schistosoma mansoni
Schistosoma japonicum
Aside from Praziquantel, this drug is also given for tapeworms
Diethylcarbamazine
Ivermectin
Mebendazole
Niclosamide
This is the smallest tapeworm that infects humans
Taenia solium
Taenia saginata
Hymenolepsis nana
Echinococcus granulosus
This is the organism causing the so called River blindness
Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichinella spiralis
Capillaria philippinensis
Onchocerca volvulus
This is the organism causing “Hydratid disease”
Taenia solium
Taenia saginata
Hymenolepsis nana
Echinococcus granulosus
This is/are example/s of antihelminthic drugs which produce/s their effects by inducing paralysis of the worm I. Praziquantel II. Mebendazole III. Diethylcarbamazine
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is/ are example/s of filarial nematodes I. Wuchereria bancrofti II. Brugia malayi III. Loa loa
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
Endotoxins are usually found in garam-neagative organism. Which of the is the only gram-positive organism which produces an endotoxin
Listeria monocytogenes
Bacillus anthracis
Clostridium sp
Nocardia
This is the average time required for the population , or the biomass of an organism to double
Lag time
Growth rate constant
Generation time
Priming time
This is the portion in the bacterial growth curve representing the period at which the newly inoculated cells are adapting to their new environment. Enzymes and intermediates are formed and accumulated until they are present inn concentrations that permit growth to resume.
Lag time
Exponential phase
Maximum stationary phase
Death phase
This phase in the bacterial growth curve represents the time where exhaustion of nutrients or the accumulation of toxic products causes growth to cease completely. There is slow loss of cells through death, which is just balanced by the formation of new cells through growth and division. This is a period where the total count slowly increases although the variable count stays constant.
Lag time
Exponential phase
Maximum stationary phase
Death phase
This is/are example/s of drugs that cause/s the destruction of bacterial DNA I. Ionizing radiation II. Alkylating agents III. UV light
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Amphotecin B as an antifungal agent/
Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Alteration of cell membrane function
Inhibition of protein synthesis
Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
This is/are possible ways in which bacteria may gain resistance to antibacterial agents I. Alteration of the target site II. Synthesis of enzymes that modify or destroy the antibacterial agent III. Presence of capsule inn a bacteria
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This is/are example/s of drugs that inhibit/s the cell wall synthesis I. Penicillins II. Cyclosporine III. Teicoplanin
I only
II only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III
This/ These statement/s is/are true about the glycopeptide antibiotics I. Given only parentally as it is not absorbed from the GIT II. Given only for gram-positive organism III. Potentially ototoxic and nephrotoxic
I only
II only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III
This is/are aminoglycoside antibiotics derived from Streptomyces species I. Streptomycin II. Gentamicin III. Azithromycin
I only
II only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III
Tetracyclines are indicated for the treatment of bacterial infection from which organism/s I. Staphylococcus II. Mycoplasma III. Chlamydia
I only
III only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III
This antibacterial agent claimed its glory by being the first broad spectrum antibiotic introduced. It contains a nitrobenzene nucleus, which is responsible for some of its toxic side effects. It blocks the action of peptidyl transferase, thereby preventing peptide bond synthesis. Currently its main indication is for infections of Salmonella typi
Erythromycin
Doxycycline
Chloramphenicol
Vancomycin
This is the most common drug used as alternative for patients allergic to penicillins
Erythromycin
Doxycycline
Chloramphenicol
Vancomycin
This is a steroid-like compound that inhibit protein synthesis by forming a atable complex with elongation factor EF-G , guanosine diphosphate and the ribosome. It is given for gram-positive cocci but not used alone due to the development of rapid resistance to the drug.
Erythromycin
sulfonamides
Fusidic acid
lincomycin
sulphonamides are drugs acting as nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors by competing this substrate
Aminoacyl
ATP
PABA
Peptidyl tRNA
These antibacterial agents prevent the supercoiling of the bacterial chromosomes
Macrolides
Rifampicin
Nalidixic acid
Clindamycin
These drugs are contraindicated in children due to the possible toxic effects on cartilage development
Ciprofloxacin
Rifampicin
Metronidazole
Clindamycin
This drug acts by inhibiting the synthesis of mRNA
Ciprofloxacin
Rifampicin
Metronidazole
Clindamycin
This drug is currently given as the drug of choice for the prophylaxis of close contacts of meningococcal and Haemophilus meningitis
Ciprofloxacin
Rifampicin
Metronidazole
Clindamycin
This drug is important in the management of parasites and anaerobic bacteria
Rifabutin
Rifampicin
Metronidazole
Nitrofurantoin
This is/are true statements about Colistin I. It is a polymyxin antibiotic acting on the cell membrane II. It is systemically given for systemic infections III. It is used topically for wound irrigation and bladder washout
I only
III only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III
Methenamine is used as urinary tract antiseptic/s. Methenamine is hydrolysed into which compound to provide its antibacterial effect in the urinary tract?
Ethylene
Formaldehyde
Ammonia
Acetic acid
This is given together with isoniazid for patients with TB to prevent its neurologic side effects
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyridoxine
Pyrazinamide
This is anti-TB drug that inhibits and does not kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It usually presents an important toxic side effect such as optic neuritis
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyridoxine
Pyrazinamide
This expensive drug is given for dapsone-resistant M. leprae
Thalidomide
Para-aminosalicylic acid
Clofazime
Rifampicin
This is the most important agent used for severe systemic mycoses, but is toxic
Ketoconazole
Miconazole
Flucytosine
Amphotericin
This is an antifungal that acts by inhibiting lanosterol C14-demethylase, an important enzyme in sterol synthesis
Griseofulvin
Miconazole
Flucytosine
Amphotericin
This is an important antifungal agent which inhibits DNA synthesis and is active only on yeasts (Candida and Cryptococcus)
Griseofulvin
Miconazole
Flucytosine
Amphotericin
An antifungal that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis and has anti-mitotic activity by inhibiting microtubule assembly
Griseofulvin
Miconazole
Flucytosine
Amphotericin
This is an example of a topical agent, which is derived from the combination of benzoic and salicylic acids
Haloprogin
Tolnaftate
Naftifine
Whitfield’s ointment
This antiviral agent specifically acts by inhibiting the penetration and uncoating of viral organism
Acyclovir
Amantadine
Ribavirin
Interferons
This is an antiviral agent which is effective in preventing viral protein synthesis
Acyclovir
Amantadine
Ribavirin
Interferons
This is/are example of antiviral agent/s that act in the viral DNA or RNA synthesis I. Idoxuridine II. Acyclovir III. Zidovudine
I only
III only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III
Vaccines are prepared from which of the following I. Immunoglobulins II. Killed organism III. Subcellular fractions
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
This was the first vaccine in humans used to be made by recombinant DNA technology
Polio vaccine
Rabies vaccine
Hepa B
Measles vaccine
This is the only viral disease where post-exposure vaccination is successful due to its long incubation period
Polio
Rabies
Hepa B
Measles
This is an agent used for the control of bacterial growth, and is classified as an alkylating agent
Formaldehyde
Alcohols
Detergents
Heavy metal ions
This agent works by binding to sulfhydryl groups of bacteria
Formaldehyde
Alcohols
Detergents
Heavy metal ions
These organisms do not require organic nutrients for growth
Heterotrophs
Chemolithotrophs
Autotrophs
Psychotrophs
These are organisms that use an inorganic substrate such as hydrogen or thiosulfate as reductant and carbon monoxide as carbon source
Heterotrophs
Chemolithotrophs
Autotrophs
Psychotrophs
These are organisms characterized to have flagella all over the cell body
Lopotrichous
Atrichous
Peritrichous
Amphitrichous
These are organisms that possess no flagella
Lopotrichous
Atrichous
Peritrichous
Amphitrichous
These are organisms that possess a tuft of flagella at one end
Lopotrichous
Atrichous
Peritrichous
Amphitrichous
There are generally two types of stain, an Acidic and Basic stain. Which is/are true statement/s about Basic stains I. They are composed of colored cation with a colorless anion II. They combine with negatively charged phosphate present in bacterial cells III. They are used in negative staining
I only
III only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III
This is a specific stain used for staining nuclei
Feulgen stain
Carbolfuchsin
Nigrosin
This is also known as the Welch method
Gram stain
Acid-fast stain
Spore stain
Capsule stain
A stain specifically used to stain spores
Malachite green
Carbolfuchsin
Nigrosin
