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Recall CPR

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which option shows the correct C-A-B sequence for adult CPR?

a)

Circulation, Assessment, Breaths

b)

Compressions, Airway, Breathing

c)

Check, Alert, Begin breaths

d)

Chest rise, Assess, Breathing only

2.

During the 'Airway' step in CPR, what simple action should you perform first to open the airway?

a)

Tilt the head back and lift the chin

b)

Seal the nose and give two breaths

c)

Place hands low on the sternum

d)

Roll the victim onto their side

3.

You find an unresponsive adult without normal breathing. Using the C-A-B approach, what is the best immediate plan of action?

a)

Check pulse for thirty long seconds

b)

Start chest compressions hard and fast

c)

Give rescue breaths before compressions

d)

Elevate legs to improve circulation

4.

Which sign most clearly indicates a severely obstructed airway requiring immediate action?

a)

Mild wheezing with normal color

b)

Slow breathing while speaking

c)

Loud, forceful coughing with speech

d)

Silent cough with cyanotic lips

5.

When a responsive adult cannot speak, breathe, or cough and nods yes to help, what is the next best action?

a)

Begin abdominal thrusts and call for help

b)

Encourage continued hard coughing only

c)

Place in recovery position to rest

d)

Give water and pat the back gently

6.

What is the primary anatomical structure blocked during choking leading to poor air exchange?

a)

Esophagus carrying swallowed food

b)

Trachea also called the windpipe

c)

Bronchioles inside lung alveoli

d)

Nasal passages and sinuses

7.

Which statement about assisting a choking person is most accurate?

a)

If they can speak, start thrusts immediately

b)

Wait for cyanosis before intervening

c)

If they can cough, encourage coughing only

d)

Back slaps are safer than thrusts in adults

8.

Which combination lists signs of severe airway obstruction?

a)

Productive cough, chest pain, fever

b)

Wheezing, sneezing, watery eyes

c)

Runny nose, hoarse voice, sore throat

d)

Cyanosis, silent cough, inability to speak

9.

Why should abdominal thrusts not be performed on a person who is not choking?

a)

It increases risk of aspiration pneumonia

b)

It reduces coughing reflex permanently

c)

It can injure ribs and internal organs

d)

It delays needed pain medication

10.

A bystander sees someone grasping their throat, breathing poorly, and unable to speak. What is the best immediate sequence?

a)

Insert fingers to sweep throat for the object

b)

Lay them down, check pulse, start compressions

c)

Give water, wait for EMS, monitor breathing

d)

Ask if choking, start abdominal thrusts, call for help

11.

Which outcome best explains the goal of the Heimlich maneuver in severe choking?

a)

Force air upward to expel the obstruction

b)

Redirect food into the esophagus safely

c)

Lower lung pressure to stop hyperventilation

d)

Relax throat muscles for easier swallowing

12.

In the visual showing a person clutching the throat, which emergency condition is being depicted?

a)

Choking due to airway blockage

b)

Seizure with muscle contractions

c)

Heartburn after heavy meal

d)

Fainting from low blood pressure

13.

Which hospital code is used to indicate a medical emergency requiring immediate clinical response?

a)

Code Pink for severe allergy

b)

Code Blue for medical emergency

c)

Code Yellow for cardiac arrest

d)

Code Violet for power outage

14.

A fire breaks out in a ward. Which code should staff announce to coordinate response?

a)

Code Violet for aggression

b)

Code Blue for collapse

c)

Code Pink for abduction

d)

Code Red for fire incident

15.

A nurse notices escalating aggression from visitors in the emergency department. Which code best addresses this scenario?

a)

Code Pink for neonatal issue

b)

Code Red for building fire

c)

Code Violet for violent behaviour

d)

Code Yellow for disaster triage

16.

During a mass-casualty incident from a nearby transport accident affecting hospital operations, which code is most appropriate?

a)

Code Red for localized equipment fire

b)

Code Blue for general medical emergency

c)

Code Yellow for internal or external disaster

d)

Code Pink for pediatric abduction

17.

Which statement best defines shock in the human body?

a)

Rapid oxygen delivery causes blood pressure to rise

b)

Normal blood flow maintains stable oxygen to organs

c)

Excess blood volume increases oxygen to all tissues

d)

Inadequate blood flow reduces oxygen to vital organs

18.

According to the diagram, what immediate physiological change contributes to less blood reaching organs during shock?

a)

Increase in blood sugar improves organ perfusion

b)

Increase in blood pressure reduces organ perfusion

c)

Decrease in blood pressure reduces organ perfusion

d)

Rise in body temperature increases organ perfusion

19.

Which set lists only vital organs that are jeopardized when blood flow drops in shock?

a)

Brain, heart, kidneys are at high risk

b)

Intestines, spleen, pancreas are at high risk

c)

Stomach, gallbladder, thyroid are at high risk

d)

Liver, skin, muscles are at high risk

20.

Which combination of signs most strongly suggests a patient is entering shock?

a)

Warm flushed skin with slow breathing

b)

Moist pink skin with normal vital signs

c)

Normal skin color with high blood pressure

d)

Pale or cyanotic skin with low blood pressure

21.

A patient after trauma shows tachycardia, rapid breathing, and complains of intense thirst. What is the most appropriate inference?

a)

These together indicate possible early shock

b)

These together indicate normal stress response

c)

These together indicate improved circulation

d)

These together indicate dehydration only

22.

Look at the hand shown. Which clinical term best describes the purple discoloration of the fingertips seen here in a shock patient?

a)

Erythema indicating increased perfusion

b)

Vitiligo indicating melanocyte loss

c)

Cyanosis indicating poor oxygenation

d)

Jaundice indicating bilirubin excess

23.

Which action should be done first when encountering a person who may be in shock?

a)

Elevate the legs about eight to twelve inches

b)

Notify the provider immediately for medical care

c)

Check pulse and respirations if possible

d)

Place a blanket around the person if cold

24.

When controlling bleeding for a shock patient, what is the correct initial precaution?

a)

Remove constrictive clothing immediately

b)

Elevate the injured limb above the heart

c)

Apply ice directly to the bleeding site

d)

Put on gloves before touching the wound

25.

A conscious patient in shock is vomiting. What is the best position?

a)

Place the person on her side to protect the airway

b)

Have the person sit upright with head forward

c)

Lay the person flat with pillows under the head

d)

Keep the person prone with arms at the side

26.

In which situation should you avoid elevating the legs of a person in shock?

a)

Skin is pale, cool, and clammy without injuries

b)

Minor bleeding controlled with direct pressure

c)

Suspected head, neck, back, or abdominal injury

d)

Mild dizziness that improves with rest

27.

You find an unresponsive adult with no breathing and no pulse, and you are trained and allowed. What should you do next?

a)

Place the person in the recovery position

b)

Offer sips of water to prevent dehydration

c)

Wait quietly for advanced help to arrive

d)

Begin CPR immediately following current guidelines

28.

Which action helps maintain normal body temperature for a shock patient in cold weather?

a)

Fan the person vigorously for air flow

b)

Place a blanket around the person for warmth

c)

Offer hot liquids to warm from the inside

d)

Apply cold packs to the neck and armpits

29.

Why is giving liquids or food to a person in shock not recommended?

a)

Risk of vomiting and aspiration during care

b)

It immediately lowers blood pressure further

c)

It interferes with checking distal pulses

d)

It causes excessive shivering and heat loss

30.

After providing first aid for shock, what is an essential final step for responders?

a)

Give detailed medical diagnosis to relatives

b)

Report and document the incident properly

c)

Dispose of gloves in regular household trash

d)

Transport the person yourself to the hospital

31.

Which action best describes the shock position shown in the visual?

a)

Stand leaning forward with hands on knees

b)

Lie prone with arms above the head

c)

Sit upright with knees flexed comfortably

d)

Lay supine with legs elevated slightly

32.

When providing first aid for shock, which step is appropriate if spinal or neck injury is not suspected?

a)

Turn the head slightly to one side

b)

Remove the blanket immediately

c)

Elevate the head and shoulders

d)

Massage the neck and shoulders

33.

What is the primary reason a myocardial infarction damages heart muscle, as shown in the diagram?

a)

Enlarged ventricles store more oxygen

b)

Open valves allow excess blood flow

c)

Rapid heartbeat increases oxygen delivery

d)

Blocked coronary arteries reduce oxygen supply

34.

A 58-year-old with chest pain and pale, clammy skin becomes dizzy and collapses. Based on the visuals, what is the most appropriate immediate positioning while awaiting EMS?

a)

Place prone, lower legs, cool the room

b)

Lay supine, elevate legs, keep warm

c)

Semi-reclined, knees bent, loosen belt

d)

Sit upright, legs dangling, apply ice

35.

Which symptom is most characteristic of a heart attack involving chest discomfort?

a)

Pressure or squeezing behind the breastbone

b)

Sharp brief twinge over the lower abdomen

c)

Itchy rash on the upper chest area

d)

Burning sensation limited to the tongue

36.

Which set lists locations where heart attack pain can radiate beyond the chest?

a)

Ears, eyelids, scalp, or temple sites

b)

Knees, ankles, toes, or heel areas

c)

Arms, back, neck, jaw, or stomach regions

d)

Lower spine, coccyx, hip crest, or groin

37.

Which combination best represents autonomic signs commonly seen during a heart attack?

a)

Warm dry skin with facial flushing

b)

Hot skin without any sweat formation

c)

Cold clammy skin with perspiration noted

d)

Normal skin tone with brisk capillary refill

38.

Which cardiovascular change is a potential sign of a heart attack?

a)

Pulse that increases after deep breathing

b)

Weak and irregular pulse rate observed

c)

Bounding and perfectly regular pulse

d)

Absent pulse only in one finger

39.

Which symptom pattern is more likely in women experiencing myocardial infarction?

a)

Shortness of breath, nausea, fatigue without chest pain

b)

Severe calf cramps relieved by walking only

c)

Persistent ear pain with decreased hearing noted

d)

Chills and rigors with productive cough only

40.

Which statement best explains why heart attacks in women may go unrecognized?

a)

Symptoms always start with crushing chest pain

b)

Symptoms require immediate fever development

c)

Symptoms can be flu-like and women may deny MI

d)

Symptoms never include shortness of breath

41.

A patient reports indigestion, nausea, and upper body pain with cold sweat. Which action is most appropriate first?

a)

Ask them to perform strenuous exercise briefly

b)

Encourage fluids and observe for two hours

c)

Offer antacids and reassess in thirty minutes

d)

Activate emergency medical services immediately

42.

Which symptom is NOT typically associated with a heart attack?

a)

Itchy skin localized to forearms only

b)

Anxiety accompanied by a sense of doom

c)

Dizziness or feeling faint occurs suddenly

d)

Shortness of breath with minimal exertion

43.

Which finding differentiates heartburn from possible heart attack during triage?

a)

Discomfort radiating to jaw or left arm

b)

Pain limited to one fingertip only

c)

Burning that disappears after sipping water

d)

Relief after gentle neck stretching exercises

44.

Which cluster of symptoms should raise suspicion of MI in the absence of chest pain?

a)

Mild sore throat resolving with lozenges

b)

Chronic itchy scalp without other complaints

c)

Isolated knee swelling after recent sprain

d)

Unexplained fatigue, lightheadedness, and sweating

45.

Which action should be taken first when a person shows signs of a myocardial infarction?

a)

Notify the provider immediately

b)

Loosen tight clothing around neck

c)

Offer cool water for comfort

d)

Document the event thoroughly

46.

During suspected heart attack care, why is loosening clothing around the neck recommended?

a)

To improve airway and breathing comfort

b)

To reduce the person’s heart workload

c)

To prevent aspiration of stomach contents

d)

To prepare for applying a defibrillator

47.

You find an adult unresponsive with suspected MI. Breathing stops and there is no pulse. What is the most appropriate action if you are trained and permitted?

a)

Begin CPR immediately

b)

Wait quietly for EMS

c)

Provide small sips of water

d)

Move the person to standing

48.

Which practice is correct when caring for severe external bleeding?

a)

Leave to find help before assisting

b)

Offer fluids to prevent dizziness

c)

Delay gloves to save initial seconds

d)

Put on gloves before controlling bleeding

49.

Which combination best represents a complete, safe response to a suspected heart attack?

a)

Ignore pulse checks, tighten neck clothing

b)

Drive them yourself, give water, leave briefly

c)

Give food, keep standing, apply cold packs

d)

Call for help, comfort position, monitor breathing

50.

In a crowded gym, someone collapses clutching chest. You are trained. Prioritize the next three actions.

a)

Call for provider, position comfortably, stay until help arrives

b)

Offer liquids, document later, then call family

c)

Tighten clothing, wait alone, begin paperwork

d)

Move them outside, delay calling, give snacks

51.

Which action should occur first when you encounter severe external bleeding?

a)

Notify the provider immediately

b)

Apply firm direct pressure

c)

Elevate the injured limb

d)

Secure the dressing in place

52.

When applying direct pressure to a bleeding wound, which practice is correct?

a)

Massage around the wound edges

b)

Remove soaked pads quickly

c)

Press lightly and intermittently

d)

Press down hard continuously

53.

Blood soaks through the first pad while you are controlling bleeding. What should you do next?

a)

Place another pad over the first

b)

Wrap tightly with elastic bandage

c)

Remove the first pad and replace

d)

Rinse the wound with water

54.

When is wound elevation appropriate during bleeding control?

a)

When bleeding is spurting rapidly

b)

When the limb is obviously deformed

c)

When the patient is unconscious

d)

When no broken bones are suspected

55.

After bleeding slows, what is the proper next step?

a)

Give the person sugary fluids

b)

Start chest compressions immediately

c)

Remove gloves and leave the scene

d)

Secure the dressing and reassess

56.

Which combination best indicates possible poisoning in a patient?

a)

Runny nose with itching

b)

Mild headache only

c)

Vomiting with drowsiness

d)

Hiccups with sneezing

57.

You suspect a patient has been poisoned. What is the most appropriate immediate action for a medical assistant?

a)

Induce vomiting right away

b)

Notify the provider immediately

c)

Give milk to dilute toxin

d)

Wait to observe new symptoms

58.

Which burn type is limited to the epidermis and typically presents with redness without blisters, as shown in the leftmost diagram?

a)

Third-degree burn (full-thickness)

b)

Electrical burn with deep tissue

c)

Second-degree burn (partial-thickness)

d)

First-degree burn (superficial)

59.

In the center panel with visible blisters, which skin layers are primarily involved in a partial-thickness burn?

a)

Muscle and bone structures

b)

Epidermis and part of the dermis

c)

Epidermis only, no dermis involved

d)

Entire dermis and subcutaneous fat

60.

According to the rightmost panel, which feature best indicates a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

a)

Moist, blistered surface with pain

b)

Dry, leathery surface with destroyed dermis

c)

Mild erythema that resolves quickly

d)

Pink, warm skin that blanches

61.

Based on the labeled skin layers in the second image, which burn classification extends through the epidermis and entire dermis, potentially reaching subcutaneous tissue?

a)

Full-thickness burn through dermis

b)

Radiation burn limited to hair follicles

c)

Partial-thickness burn into upper dermis

d)

Superficial burn affecting epidermis only

62.

A patient has painful blisters after a scald. Using the diagrams, which initial first aid step best matches partial-thickness burns before definitive care?

a)

Remove adherent clothing immediately

b)

Apply butter to keep moisture

c)

Cool the area with running water

d)

Break blisters to relieve pressure

63.

Using both diagrams, which statement best differentiates superficial and partial-thickness burns?

a)

Both injuries extend through the entire dermis

b)

Superficial burns commonly appear charred and insensate

c)

Partial-thickness involves dermis; superficial does not

d)

Superficial burns blister more than partial-thickness

64.

Which action is recommended first when treating a minor burn on a patient’s forearm?

a)

Notify the provider and put on gloves

b)

Apply ice directly to the burned skin

c)

Cover the area with petroleum jelly

d)

Remove clothing stuck to the burned skin

65.

For a minor burn, what is the correct method to cool the injury?

a)

Use cool clean water on the burn

b)

Apply cold butter over the skin

c)

Use a bag of crushed ice

d)

Spray alcohol to evaporate heat

66.

After pain from a minor burn eases, what dressing is appropriate?

a)

Dry clean dressing or nonadhesive sterile bandage

b)

Tight elastic wrap with strong pressure

c)

Adhesive bandage directly on the blister

d)

Wet gauze soaked in antiseptic solution

67.

Which substance is contraindicated for any burn care in the field?

a)

Cool clean running water only

b)

Nonadhesive sterile dry bandage

c)

Ointment, salve, or grease on the burn

d)

Light sterile gauze covering

68.

A person’s shirt ignites and flames are present. What immediate action should be taken?

a)

Pour ointment to smother fire

b)

Have them stop, drop, and roll

c)

Run to improve air flow

d)

Remove the shirt by pulling fast

69.

During care for a more serious burn, the patient is unresponsive and not breathing with no pulse. What should a trained rescuer do next?

a)

Remove all burned clothing quickly

b)

Apply cool water over the burn

c)

Place ointment to prevent drying

d)

Begin CPR if trained and allowed

70.

When clothing is stuck to a serious burn, what is the safest approach?

a)

Cover with sterile gauze without pulling clothing

b)

Pull the clothing away slowly from skin

c)

Cut around and peel off adhered fabric

d)

Rinse vigorously to loosen the fabric

71.

A lab worker splashes a corrosive chemical on both arms. What is the priority first aid?

a)

Neutralize acid with a basic solution

b)

Call for help and irrigate thoroughly with water

c)

Cover with ointment and wrap tightly

d)

Apply ice packs to reduce the heat

72.

Which symptom is most commonly reported just before a fainting episode?

a)

Sharp joint stiffness

b)

Dizziness or lightheadedness

c)

Itchy skin patches

d)

Sudden high fever

73.

A person feels faint while sitting. What immediate position is recommended?

a)

Bend forward, head between knees

b)

Lean back, head extended

c)

Stand up and pace slowly

d)

Cross legs and squeeze hands

74.

When a person has fainted and has no suspected injuries, which leg position is advised?

a)

Keep legs flat and crossed

b)

Elevate legs eight to twelve inches

c)

Elevate one leg twenty inches

d)

Hang legs over a chair

75.

Which sign listed below can precede fainting and indicates reduced perfusion?

a)

Flushed skin with rapid pulse

b)

Rash with normal pulse

c)

Pale skin with weak pulse

d)

Warm skin with strong pulse

76.

Which action should occur first when you recognize someone may faint soon?

a)

Apply cold packs to the neck

b)

Begin documenting the incident

c)

Notify the provider immediately

d)

Offer water and sugary snacks

77.

After symptoms resolve, how long should the person remain in position before rising?

a)

Nearly twenty minutes

b)

At least five minutes

c)

About thirty seconds

d)

Roughly one minute

78.

You must call for help but cannot leave the person who feels faint. What should you do?

a)

Escort the person to a nurse

b)

Wait quietly until recovery

c)

Ask bystanders to move away

d)

Use the facility communication protocol

79.

Which step is recommended immediately after a person recovers from a simple faint?

a)

Have the person jog in place

b)

Help the person get up slowly

c)

Give strong coffee immediately

d)

Encourage quick deep squats

80.

Why is reporting and documenting a fainting incident important even if recovery is quick?

a)

Records guarantee no recurrence

b)

Documentation prevents future episodes

c)

Paperwork replaces medical evaluation

d)

Fainting may indicate serious conditions