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Chapter 10

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best distinguishes oxygenation from ventilation in airway management?

a)

Ventilation is purely passive in all patients

b)

Oxygenation is oxygen transfer at alveoli

c)

Oxygenation is air movement into lungs only

d)

Ventilation is oxygen transfer into bloodstream

e)

Oxygenation measures chest wall motion alone

2.

Which statement best defines alveolar ventilation during normal breathing?

a)

Total air moved per minute including dead space

b)

Maximum voluntary ventilation during exercise

c)

Air reaching alveoli per minute after dead space

d)

Air remaining in conducting airways each breath

3.

Match each respiratory term to its description.

a)

Tidal volume

1.

Air per breath moved in and out

b)

Minute volume

2.

Total air per minute (TV × rate)

c)

Dead space

3.

Conducting airways without gas exchange

d)

Pulmonary respiration

4.

Gas exchange between alveoli and blood

4.

A patient’s respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. During an asthma attack, tidal volume drops to 300 mL and dead space is 150 mL. What is the patient’s alveolar ventilation per minute?

a)

5,600 mL per minute

b)

4,800 mL per minute

c)

8,000 mL per minute

d)

2,400 mL per minute

5.

In the lower-left diagram showing an alveolus next to a pulmonary capillary, which statement best describes the direction of gas diffusion under normal pulmonary respiration?

a)

Oxygen moves into blood, carbon dioxide moves into alveolus

b)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide both move into alveolus

c)

Oxygen moves into alveolus, carbon dioxide moves into blood

d)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide both move into blood

6.

Match each concept to its correct description based on the labeled structures and processes in the diagrams and text.

a)

Pulmonary respiration

1.

Exchange of gases between alveoli and blood

b)

Cellular respiration

2.

Exchange of gases between blood and body cells

c)

Ventilation

3.

Mechanical movement of air in and out of lungs

d)

V/Q match

4.

Alignment of airflow with perfusion in alveoli

7.

A patient with anemia and severe acidosis shows adequate ventilation but low oxygen delivery to tissues. Which mechanism most directly explains the impaired oxygen transport in this scenario?

a)

Increased carbon dioxide production at the cellular level

b)

Reduced hemoglobin capacity and decreased oxygen affinity

c)

Decreased diffusion surface area in alveoli only

d)

Airway obstruction reducing alveolar oxygen content

8.

Which finding best differentiates respiratory failure from adequate breathing in a conscious patient?

a)

Air moving in and out of the chest adequately

b)

Normal mental status and normal oxygen saturation

c)

Breathing may be challenged but remains compensating

d)

Shallow ventilations with diminished breath sounds

9.
Question Image

Match each respiratory condition to the most appropriate immediate intervention.

a)

Adequate breathing

1.

Consider supplemental oxygen via nonrebreather or nasal cannula

b)

Respiratory failure (inadequate breathing)

2.

Assisted ventilations using pocket face mask or bag-valve mask

c)

Respiratory arrest (not breathing)

3.

Artificial ventilations at 10–12/min adult or 12–20/min child

10.

A patient with asthma has bronchospasm reducing alveolar ventilation. What physiologic change primarily triggers increased drive to breathe?

a)

Stable minute volume maintaining oxygen saturation

b)

Rising carbon dioxide detected by the brain

c)

Decreased sympathetic tone causing airway dilation

d)

Falling serum bicarbonate improving buffering

11.

An apneic adult shows no chest rise and no breath sounds. What is the most appropriate initial management rate for artificial ventilations?

a)

20–24 breaths per minute with nonrebreather

b)

6–8 breaths per minute using nasal cannula

c)

10–12 breaths per minute with pocket mask

d)

12–20 breaths per minute using oxygen-powered device

12.

In the diagram, which patient presentation warrants a nonrebreather mask rather than assisted ventilations?

a)

Apneic with no visible chest rise

b)

Speaking full sentences, normal mentation

c)

Short of breath, speaking 3–4 word sentences

d)

Sleepy with head-bobbing, unarousable

13.
Question Image

Match each patient condition to the recommended intervention shown in the diagram.

a)

Adequate breathing

1.

Nasal cannula or nonrebreather mask

b)

Severe respiratory distress

2.

Assisted ventilations with pocket face mask or BVM

c)

Continues to deteriorate

3.

Assisted ventilations, adjust rate for rapid/slow breathing

d)

Respiratory arrest

4.

Artificial ventilation with pocket face mask or BVM

14.

A patient with rapid, shallow breathing remains conscious but can speak only 1–2 word sentences and is very diaphoretic. Based on the diagram, what is the most appropriate immediate action?

a)

Apply a nasal cannula for comfort oxygen

b)

Place a nonrebreather mask at high flow

c)

Begin assisted ventilations with a pocket face mask

d)

Wait and reassess after two minutes

15.

Which finding most strongly indicates inadequate breathing during a primary assessment?

a)

Regular rhythm with adequate depth

b)

Altered mental status with cyanotic skin

c)

Quiet breathing without unusual sounds

d)

Chest expansion present and equal bilaterally

16.
Question Image

Match each age group to its typical normal respiratory rate at rest.

a)

Adult

1.

12–20 breaths per minute

b)

Child

2.

18–30 breaths per minute

c)

Infant

3.

30–60 breaths per minute

17.

During the Look, Listen, Feel technique, which observation best supports adequate breathing?

a)

Audible gurgling or stridor on inspiration

b)

Paradoxical abdominal–thoracic motion

c)

Air movement felt at nose or mouth

d)

Skin color pale or blue-gray

18.

A pediatric patient shows nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and a slow pulse. What is the most appropriate immediate clinical interpretation?

a)

Normal variations seen during quiet rest

b)

Signs suggest adequate ventilation in children

c)

Findings are typical of mild anxiety only

d)

Indicators of increased work of breathing and hypoxia

19.

Which statement best describes positive pressure ventilation compared with normal breathing?

a)

It increases venous return by enhancing chest recoil

b)

It pushes air in from outside using external positive pressure

c)

It pulls air in by creating intrathoracic negative pressure

d)

It relies on passive diffusion without pressure gradients

20.

Match each negative side effect of positive pressure ventilation to its primary mechanism.

a)

Decreased cardiac output

1.

Eliminates normal negative pressure, reducing venous return

b)

Gastric distention

2.

Air forced into esophagus inflates stomach, limiting diaphragm

c)

Hyperventilation

3.

Ventilating too fast lowers CO2, causing cerebral vasoconstriction

21.

During mouth-to-mask ventilation for an adult, which action helps minimize the risk of gastric distention while ensuring adequate ventilation?

a)

Apply continuous positive airway pressure at high levels

b)

Deliver rapid breaths exceeding twenty per minute

c)

Use slow ventilations with just enough volume to see chest rise

d)

Seal the mask loosely to allow air to escape

22.

In the head-elevated, sniffing position, what visual alignment confirms proper positioning?

a)

Eyes level with eyebrows, face tilted toward floor

b)

Ear aligned with suprasternal notch, face parallel to ceiling

c)

Ear aligned with mandible angle, face rotated laterally

d)

Chin touching chest, face perpendicular to ceiling

23.
Question Image

Match each patient scenario to the optimal positioning strategy to achieve a patent airway for face-mask ventilation.

a)

Obese adult supine on stretcher

1.

Ramp position using towels under torso and head

b)

Preschool child with large occiput

2.

Minimal or no shoulder padding due to natural flexion

c)

Infant requiring sniffing position

3.

Padding under shoulders to align ear-to-notch

d)

Adult with normal BMI

4.

Standard head-elevated, sniffing without ramp

24.

To optimize a face mask seal during ventilation, which action most directly prevents air leaks?

a)

Select proper mask size and seal from bridge to chin

b)

Elevate shoulders without adjusting head flexion

c)

Increase ventilation rate above patient’s own rate

d)

Place excessive downward pressure on the mask rim

25.

When providing mouth-to-mask ventilation with a pocket face mask that has a one-way valve, what is the primary infection-control benefit of the valve?

a)

It prevents ambient air from entering the lungs

b)

It blocks the patient’s exhaled air from reaching the rescuer

c)

It seals the mask to the face more effectively

d)

It increases oxygen concentration without an inlet

26.

A patient has suspected spine injury and requires pocket mask ventilation. Which hand positioning best maintains airway control while avoiding neck movement?

a)

Single-hand seal while tilting the head backward

b)

Head tilt with thumbs over mask and fingers under jaw

c)

Jaw lift using thumbs to secure mask, avoid head tilt

d)

Two-handed C-E clamp with vigorous head extension

27.

A patient is a stoma breather after a laryngectomy. Which action best ensures effective ventilation during an arrest?

a)

Apply high-flow nasal cannula at maximum settings

b)

Attach a BVM directly to the tracheal stoma opening

c)

Insert an oral airway and ventilate through the mouth

d)

Seal a standard face mask over the mouth and nose

28.

You are providing supplemental oxygen to a spontaneously breathing adult with mild hypoxemia. Which plan balances benefit and risk of oxygen toxicity?

a)

Deliver 100 percent oxygen continuously for several hours

b)

Maintain fixed 15 liters per minute regardless of saturation

c)

Use the lowest flow achieving target SpO2 94 to 98 percent

d)

Switch between room air and high-flow oxygen every few minutes

29.

Which size oxygen cylinder is typically considered portable for short transport and commonly used with regulators in prehospital care?

a)

D cylinder for short transport use

b)

E cylinder for wall-mount systems

c)

M cylinder for handheld units

d)

K cylinder for pediatric-only use

30.

An E-cylinder shows 1,800 psi. Using the duration of flow concept, which factor most directly reduces the usable minutes at a set flow rate?

a)

Cylinder material composition

b)

Regulator-safe residual pressure

c)

Patient’s oxygen saturation level

d)

Color of the cylinder shoulder