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Unit 7: 7.3 -7.4

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term describes compulsory enlistment of citizens into the military during World War I?

a)

Militarization

b)

Mobilization

c)

Conscription

d)

Nationalization

2.

What were 'Pals Battalions' in the British Army during World War I?

a)

Foreign volunteers from colonies

b)

Drafted men sorted by age

c)

Elite commandos trained abroad

d)

Units of friends enlisting together

3.

Which experience most defined daily life for soldiers on the Western Front?

a)

Rapid cavalry maneuvers

b)

Continuous city street fighting

c)

Frequent seaside landings

d)

Months living in trenches

4.

Which condition commonly plagued trench systems and caused disease among soldiers?

a)

High-altitude frostbite

b)

Dusty desert sandstorms

c)

Tropical jungle parasites

d)

Cold muddy rat infestations

5.

Which weapon released chlorine, phosgene, and mustard agents during World War I?

a)

Incendiary bomb

b)

Artillery shell

c)

Poison gas

d)

Flamethrower

6.

What battlefield effect did machine guns primarily create on the Western Front?

a)

High defensive firepower

b)

Safe open maneuvering

c)

Reliable mobile offense

d)

Effective cavalry charges

7.

Why were early tanks developed by the British during World War I?

a)

To protect troops crossing trenches

b)

To escort naval convoys at sea

c)

To deliver poison gas over cities

d)

To replace infantry with robots

8.

What outcome best characterizes the Western Front by 1916–1917?

a)

A Central Powers collapse

b)

A negotiated early truce

c)

A prolonged stalemate

d)

A swift Allied breakthrough

9.

Which factor contributed to U.S. entry into World War I in 1917?

a)

British bombing of Mexico City

b)

Allied invasion of Canada

c)

Zimmermann Telegram proposal

d)

French blockade of U.S. ports

10.

What does the term 'total war' mean in the context of World War I?

a)

Entire societies mobilized for war

b)

Battles limited to colonies

c)

Only soldiers fought at fronts

d)

War fought solely at sea

11.

How did governments use propaganda during World War I?

a)

To shape public opinion with biased messages

b)

To reduce emotions and de-escalate tensions

c)

To prohibit all recruiting campaigns

d)

To guarantee strictly neutral reporting

12.

Which phrase best captures the meaning of total war in World War I?

a)

Fighting short, decisive battles with few losses

b)

Limiting combat to professional soldiers only

c)

Mobilizing entire societies and economies for war

d)

Keeping civilians insulated from wartime effects

13.

What was a key Allied objective for Japan when it entered the war?

a)

Annex Korea to expand industrial output

b)

Seize German-held Pacific islands and ports

c)

Retake Manchuria from Russian control

d)

Occupy French Indochina for resources

14.

Which campaign most directly involved the ANZAC forces during World War I?

a)

Gallipoli peninsula operations in Turkey

b)

Somme River offensives in France

c)

East African marches to Lake Tanganyika

d)

Arabian Desert raids toward Damascus

15.

Which statement best explains a common motive for colonial soldiers joining the Allies?

a)

Expectation of immediate independence before the armistice

b)

Hopes that military service would earn political recognition

c)

Desire to avoid compulsory labor in home colonies

d)

Access to land grants in conquered European territories

16.

How did propaganda posters like the two shown function within total war mobilization?

a)

They appealed to national identity to spur recruitment

b)

They provided tactical maps for battlefield maneuvers

c)

They replaced military training with motivational slogans

d)

They distributed ration coupons to civilian households

17.

Which development best illustrates the war’s reach across continents and seas?

a)

A rapid war concluded before colonial forces arrived

b)

Exclusive trench warfare on the Western Front only

c)

Battles over the Suez Canal and in the Pacific islands

d)

Navies avoiding blockades to protect neutral shipping

18.

Which leaders made up the Big Four at the Paris Peace Conference?

a)

Roosevelt, Churchill, Clemenceau, Orlando

b)

Wilson, Lloyd George, Clemenceau, Orlando

c)

Wilson, Lenin, Clemenceau, Orlando

d)

Hoover, Lloyd George, Clemenceau, Mussolini

19.

What did Woodrow Wilson mean by the phrase peace without victory?

a)

No nation should be harshly punished or rewarded

b)

Colonial empires should be expanded by Allies

c)

Victorious powers deserve territorial compensation

d)

Germany must pay severe penalties for aggression

20.

Which proposal aimed to create an organization for open diplomacy to prevent future wars?

a)

League of Nations within Fourteen Points

b)

Kellogg-Briand Pact for peace renunciation

c)

United Nations charter after World War II

d)

Locarno Treaties guaranteeing borders

21.

Why did Italy’s delegation leave the Paris Peace Conference in anger?

a)

It demanded German disarmament without reparations

b)

It failed to receive promised territories like Dalmatia

c)

It was excluded for undergoing a communist revolution

d)

It opposed creating the League of Nations entirely

22.

Which best defines self-determination in the postwar European context?

a)

Colonies remaining under imperial administration

b)

Allies annexing territories from defeated empires

c)

Victors imposing governments on Central Powers

d)

Conquered peoples deciding their political futures

23.

Which new or revived states emerged after the Austro-Hungarian and Ottoman collapses?

a)

Finland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia

b)

Norway, Belgium, Netherlands, Switzerland

c)

Bulgaria, Greece, Spain, Portugal

d)

Denmark, Ireland, Albania, Luxembourg

24.

Which was a major economic requirement imposed on Germany by the Treaty of Versailles?

a)

Payment of reparations for war damages

b)

Barter exchange with Allied economies

c)

Immediate adoption of a gold-backed mark

d)

Mandatory nationalization of key industries

25.

How did David Lloyd George generally position himself between Wilson and Clemenceau?

a)

He strictly backed Wilson’s idealistic program

b)

He demanded annexations without negotiations

c)

He fully rejected both and supported Orlando

d)

He often mediated between their opposing views

26.

Which outcome illustrates the U.S. response to Wilson’s internationalist agenda?

a)

Supreme Court mandated participation by treaty law

b)

Congress approved League membership with reservations

c)

Senate refused to join the League or ratify Versailles

d)

Voters installed a government favoring collective security

27.

Which term refers to civilians being required by the state to join the military during World War I?

a)

Conscription mandated compulsory service

b)

Stalemate resulted in no advance

c)

Propaganda influenced public opinion

d)

Reparations paid for wartime damage

28.

What best describes a battlefield situation in WWI where neither side could gain ground for long periods?

a)

Global war spanning continents

b)

Total war mobilizing societies

c)

Stalemate with entrenched fronts

d)

Trench warfare defensive systems

29.

What is the term for information used to shape opinion and maintain support for the war effort?

a)

Armistice for ceasing hostilities

b)

Conscription for drafting soldiers

c)

Propaganda for persuasive messaging

d)

Reparations for financial penalties

30.

Which concept advocates that peoples have the right to decide their own political fate?

a)

Self-determination of national groups

b)

Total war across civilian life

c)

Imperial mandate over territories

d)

Collective security through alliances

31.

Payments demanded from a defeated nation to compensate for war damages are called what?

a)

Reparations imposed after conflict

b)

Subsidies for military industries

c)

Tariffs on imported goods

d)

Indemnities on neutral shipping

32.

Which phrase describes a conflict that engages entire societies—economies, civilians, and militaries alike?

a)

Limited war with restricted aims

b)

Total war mobilizing populations

c)

Civil war within one country

d)

Proxy war through client states

33.

Which intercepted message pushed the United States closer to entering WWI by proposing a German-Mexican alliance?

a)

Lusitania passenger liner sinking

b)

Fourteen Points peace blueprint

c)

Zimmermann Telegram diplomatic proposal

d)

Gallipoli campaign amphibious assault

34.

The passenger ship sunk by a German U-boat in 1915, escalating tensions with the United States, was the what?

a)

Titanic luxury steamship

b)

Sussex Channel ferry

c)

Emden commerce raider

d)

Lusitania transatlantic liner

35.

Which multinational force of Australia and New Zealand fought notably at Gallipoli?

a)

CEF Canadian contingent

b)

AEF American forces

c)

ANZAC expeditionary corps

d)

BEF professional army

36.

Which WWI campaign aimed to open a sea route to Russia through the Dardanelles?

a)

Ypres salient engagements

b)

Somme offensive campaign

c)

Verdun attrition battle

d)

Gallipoli peninsula operation

37.

Which 1919 gathering sought to set postwar terms and redraw borders after WWI?

a)

Berlin Economic Summit talks

b)

Geneva Disarmament Conference

c)

Vienna Congress restoration

d)

Paris Peace Conference negotiations

38.

Which group of leaders—Wilson, Lloyd George, Clemenceau, and Orlando—were collectively known as the what?

a)

Triple Entente chiefs

b)

Supreme War Council

c)

Big Four principal statesmen

d)

Central Council leadership

39.

Which American president promoted a postwar vision summarized in the Fourteen Points?

a)

Woodrow Wilson progressive idealist

b)

Theodore Roosevelt naval strategist

c)

Franklin Roosevelt New Deal author

d)

Warren Harding normalcy advocate

40.

Which British prime minister attended the Paris Peace Conference and negotiated the postwar settlement?

a)

David Lloyd George coalition leader

b)

Herbert Asququith liberal premier

c)

Winston Churchill wartime orator

d)

Neville Chamberlain appeasement PM

41.

Which French premier pressed for harsh terms on Germany at the 1919 peace negotiations?

a)

Aristide Briand conciliatory diplomat

b)

Philippe Pétain defensive commander

c)

Raymond Poincaré legal conservative

d)

Georges Clemenceau security hawk

42.

Which Italian statesman represented Italy among the principal Allied leaders in 1919?

a)

Benito Mussolini fascist leader

b)

Giovanni Giolitti reform politician

c)

Vittorio Orlando liberal negotiator

d)

Gabriele D’Annunzio nationalist poet

43.

What plan articulated principles like open diplomacy, free trade, and self-determination after WWI?

a)

Zimmermann Note secret offer

b)

Locarno Treaties security pact

c)

Treaty of Brest-Litovsk terms

d)

Fourteen Points reform blueprint

44.

Which international organization was created to promote collective security after WWI?

a)

United Nations post-1945 successor

b)

League of Nations intergovernmental body

c)

NATO transatlantic alliance

d)

Holy Alliance nineteenth-century pact

45.

Which treaty formally ended the war with Germany and imposed reparations and military limits?

a)

Treaty of Versailles punitive settlement

b)

Treaty of Sèvres Ottoman arrangement

c)

Treaty of Trianon Hungarian terms

d)

Armistice of Compiègne truce

46.

Which German state established after WWI faced economic crisis and political extremism?

a)

Weimar Republic parliamentary democracy

b)

German Empire authoritarian monarchy

c)

Federal Republic Cold War state

d)

North German Confederation union

47.

Which battlefield method involved soldiers fighting from fortified ditches along the front?

a)

Trench warfare entrenched lines

b)

Guerrilla warfare irregular tactics

c)

Mobile warfare fluid movement

d)

Naval warfare sea engagements

48.

Which chemical weapon caused severe burns and respiratory damage during WWI?

a)

Nerve agents post-1930s

b)

Tear gas limited irritant

c)

Phosphorus smoke screening

d)

Poison gas chlorine and mustard

49.

Which rapid-fire armament contributed heavily to the defensive deadlock of the Western Front?

a)

Field guns light artillery

b)

Mortars short-range bombs

c)

Machine guns sustained fire

d)

Rifles bolt-action arms

50.

Which underwater vessel targeted shipping to cut supply lines during WWI?

a)

Q-ship decoy cruiser

b)

Destroyer escort vessel

c)

Dreadnought capital ship

d)

U-boat German submarine

51.

Which innovation evolved from reconnaissance to bombing and aerial combat during WWI?

a)

Biplanes sport aviation

b)

Zeppelins strategic airships

c)

Airplanes used in warfare

d)

Autogyros rotary aircraft

52.

Which armored vehicle was introduced to cross trenches and support infantry assaults?

a)

Half-tracks hybrid transports

b)

Self-propelled guns artillery

c)

Armored cars wheeled scouts

d)

Tanks tracked armored vehicles

53.

The photograph titled “Removing the Dead from the Trenches” most directly illustrates which feature of World War I combat?

a)

Mobile warfare marked by rapid breakthroughs

b)

Limited casualties due to protective armor

c)

Clean battlefields with few wounded

d)

Static trench lines causing massive losses

e)

Cavalry charges deciding most engagements

54.

Comparing the recruiting poster to the trench photograph, what inference best explains the differing messages?

a)

Soldiers romanticized war more than civilians did

b)

Posters critiqued leadership while photos praised generals

c)

Photographers staged scenes to boost morale

d)

Propaganda emphasized glory while photos revealed costs

e)

The state censored images to hide defeats

55.

Which statement best captures a trend suggested by both images?

a)

Battle tactics relied primarily on naval blockades

b)

Women immediately gained full suffrage rights

c)

Civilian industries declined due to demobilization

d)

European empires expanded peacefully overseas

e)

Public awareness of war’s human cost increased

56.

Which reason best explains why British authorities might object to Owen’s viewpoint during wartime?

a)

It undermined morale and recruitment efforts

b)

It affirmed traditional ideals of bravery

c)

It supported total war mobilization policies

d)

It praised commanders for honest reporting

e)

It encouraged citizens to buy more war bonds

57.

Which historical context helps explain why many soldiers fought for empires they did not culturally identify with?

a)

Conscription within multiethnic imperial states

b)

Universal objection to imperial authority

c)

Voluntary militias without state pressure

d)

Direct democracy in all front-line units

e)

Decolonization creating small nation-states

58.

Which development in war technology most increased the lethality of trench warfare?

a)

Hot air balloons for sightseeing tours

b)

Improved horse saddles for cavalry charges

c)

Wooden shields and chain mail armor

d)

Machine guns and high-explosive artillery

e)

Solar-powered communication devices

59.

Which postwar problem did the Paris Peace Conference leave for Europe to confront?

a)

Economic recovery without reparations burdens

b)

Stable borders accepted by all minorities

c)

Immediate end to nationalist movements

d)

Permanent military disarmament across empires

e)

Resentment and revisionism in defeated states

60.

Which leadership figure headed the British investigation into alleged German atrocities in Belgium in 1914?

a)

Arthur Conan Doyle, noted author and pamphleteer

b)

David Lloyd George, British prime minister in wartime

c)

Viscount James Bryce, respected scholar and ambassador

d)

H.H. Asquith, Liberal Party political leader

61.

What procedural choice did the committee make to enhance the credibility of its report?

a)

Conducted all interviews personally under oath

b)

Excluded the most sensational and lurid accounts

c)

Accepted only testimonies from military officers

d)

Relied exclusively on anonymous newspaper clippings

62.

Which conclusion did the committee assert about civilian treatment during the invasion of Belgium?

a)

Innocent civilians were murdered and women violated

b)

Civilians negotiated truces that limited urban violence

c)

Civilians rarely suffered because targets were military

d)

Most civilians were safely evacuated by neutral powers

63.

Which practice did the report condemn as a violation of the rules and usages of war?

a)

Using civilians as shields for advancing forces

b)

Rationing supplies for frontline battalions

c)

Exchanging prisoners through Red Cross channels

d)

Issuing propaganda to maintain domestic morale

64.

How might the final paragraph affect the reader’s evaluation of the report’s credibility?

a)

Its neutral tone eliminates any potential bias

b)

Its legal citations guarantee verified accuracy

c)

Its moral appeal could suggest propagandistic intent

d)

Its statistical rigor proves objective impartiality

65.

Which condition best describes hyperinflation in Germany during the early 1920s?

a)

Rapid price rises eroding currency purchasing power

b)

Sustained wage growth outpacing productivity trends

c)

Falling prices increasing money’s real purchasing power

d)

Stable prices with minor seasonal cost variations

66.

What immediate global effect followed the 1929 U.S. stock market crash?

a)

Capital outflows from Germany by American investors

b)

Expansion of consumer credit across world markets

c)

Increased Soviet repayments of prerevolutionary debts

d)

Rapid recovery of European agricultural prices

67.

According to John Maynard Keynes, which policy should governments use during a depression?

a)

Raise interest rates to attract foreign capital

b)

Cut public works to limit inflationary pressure

c)

Increase spending even if it creates budget deficits

d)

Balance budgets to restore investor confidence

68.

Which trio correctly lists the New Deal’s overarching aims?

a)

Production, tariffs, savings

b)

Privatization, stability, trade

c)

Growth, austerity, deregulation

d)

Relief, recovery, reform

69.

Which was a structural cause of the global downturn in the early 1930s?

a)

Energy shortages limiting industrial output

b)

Agricultural overproduction depressing world prices

c)

Gold discoveries disrupting exchange rates

d)

Labor unions restricting wage flexibility

70.

What was one consequence of Germany printing money to pay reparations in the 1920s?

a)

Rapid growth in industrial productivity

b)

Immediate elimination of foreign debts

c)

Sustained budget surpluses and savings

d)

A drastic fall in the currency’s value

71.

Which statement best describes the trade pattern shown for 1929–1933 in the chart ‘The Global Economy, 1929 to 1938’?

a)

Both production and global trade declined sharply from 1929 levels

b)

Production rose steadily while trade remained unchanged overall

c)

Trade increased markedly despite falling production indicators

d)

Production and trade both remained near constant year to year

72.

Which policy shift did many governments adopt in response to the Depression?

a)

Increased state intervention in economic life

b)

Complete abolition of central banking systems

c)

Return to strict laissez-faire principles

d)

Rapid privatization of public infrastructure

73.

Why did Japan’s economy contract sharply between 1929 and 1931?

a)

Shortages of raw materials within home islands

b)

Devastation from domestic civil conflict and strikes

c)

Dependence on foreign trade amid global demand collapse

d)

Exposure to reparations obligations after World War I

74.

Which outcome in 1937 followed Roosevelt’s decision to scale back deficit spending?

a)

Trade balances immediately improved

b)

Private investment fully replaced public works

c)

Inflation spiked to new record levels

d)

Unemployment rose again in the United States

75.

Using the chart, which year first surpasses 1929 in total global production index values?

a)

1938 is the earliest year above baseline

b)

1934 exceeds the 1929 production index

c)

1932 surpasses the baseline production level

d)

1936 shows production above the 1929 baseline

76.

Which inference about tariffs and trade is most consistent with the data and narrative?

a)

Tariff increases stimulated exports across industrial nations

b)

Trade policy had negligible effects on global commerce trends

c)

Lower tariffs were the primary cause of Depression-era job loss

d)

Protectionist policies compounded trade contraction in the early 1930s

77.

Which policy under Vladimir Lenin temporarily reintroduced limited private trade to revive the collapsing Soviet economy?

a)

Collectivization forming state-run kolkhozes

b)

War Communism with grain requisitioning

c)

The New Economic Plan allowing small-scale markets

d)

Five-Year Plans emphasizing heavy industry

78.

What was the primary economic goal of Joseph Stalin’s first Five-Year Plan in the USSR?

a)

Expand consumer goods at low prices

b)

Increase agricultural exports to Europe

c)

Privatize factories to boost competition

d)

Transform the USSR into an industrial power

79.

In Soviet agriculture, what did collectivization involve during Stalin’s rule?

a)

Leasing land to foreign agribusinesses

b)

Farmers freely trading grain on open markets

c)

Peasants forming kolkhozes under state directives

d)

Returning estates to noble landlords

80.

Which consequence best characterizes the agricultural results of Stalin’s collectivization in the early 1930s?

a)

Export booms that funded rearmament

b)

Stable harvests with minor shortages

c)

Widespread famine causing millions of deaths

d)

Rapid increases in rural wages and diets

81.

How did Stalin maintain political control while implementing industrialization?

a)

Decentralizing power to local soviets

b)

Using purges, executions, and gulag sentences

c)

Relaxing censorship of critical newspapers

d)

Allowing multiparty elections nationwide

82.

Which statement best contrasts Lenin’s NEP with Stalin’s later approach?

a)

NEP built heavy industry first; Stalin delayed it

b)

NEP allowed small private trade; Stalin reversed it

c)

Both prioritized consumer goods over defense

d)

Both expanded peasant land ownership broadly

83.

After the Mexican Revolution, which party dominated national politics for much of the 20th century?

a)

Popular Socialist Party (PPS)

b)

Party of the Democratic Revolution (PRD)

c)

Institutional Revolutionary Party (PRI)

d)

National Action Party (PAN)

84.

Under President Lázaro Cárdenas in 1938, what major economic action reshaped Mexico’s oil sector?

a)

Liberalization of drilling concessions

b)

Privatization to foreign investors

c)

Creation of PEMEX through nationalization

d)

Formation of a North American oil cartel

85.

Which description best fits Mexico’s political economy under the PRI during the interwar years?

a)

Corporatist rule trading favors for support

b)

Anarchist communes replacing state power

c)

Classical liberalism with minimal state role

d)

Military junta controlling all ministries

86.

Which comparison is most accurate regarding Soviet and Mexican interwar transformations?

a)

USSR expanded private farms; Mexico banned unions

b)

USSR pursued rapid industrialization; Mexico nationalized oil

c)

USSR emphasized consumer goods; Mexico cut land reform

d)

USSR reduced state control; Mexico increased it

87.

Which concept described the fascist organization of Italy’s economy under Mussolini?

a)

Corporatism linking economic sectors as organs

b)

Syndicalism prioritizing worker-led unions

c)

Mercantilism controlling colonial trade flows

d)

Liberalism promoting free market autonomy

88.

What feature best characterizes a totalitarian state under fascism?

a)

Judicial independence restrains executive power

b)

Local councils run regional economies

c)

Elections guarantee party competition

d)

Government controls all aspects of society

89.

Which grievance helped Mussolini gain support in the 1920s?

a)

Dissatisfaction with Treaty of Versailles gains

b)

Opposition to universal male suffrage expansion

c)

Hostility to Italy’s colonial withdrawals

d)

Resentment of rising land redistribution

90.

What title did Italians commonly use for Mussolini?

a)

Il Duce meaning the leader

b)

El Caudillo meaning the chief

c)

Der Führer meaning the guide

d)

El Generalísimo meaning the general

91.

Which African region did Italy invade in 1935 despite sanctions?

a)

Abyssinia in the Horn of Africa

b)

Congo in Central Africa

c)

Sudan along the Nile Valley

d)

Algeria on the Maghreb coast

92.

A key promise of Spain’s Popular Front in 1936 was primarily aimed at which group?

a)

Clergy through enhanced church roles

b)

Industrialists through tariff reductions

c)

Monarchists through royal restoration

d)

Peasants through proposed land reform

93.

Which coalition supported the Nationalists in Spain’s Civil War?

a)

Germany, Italy, and Portugal leadership

b)

Soviet Union, France, and Britain,

c)

United States, Mexico, and Canada

d)

Sweden, Norway, and Denmark

94.

Which label identified supporters of Spain’s elected government during the war?

a)

Unionists or Whigs in Spain

b)

Carlists or Bourbons in Spain

c)

Moderates or Centrists in Spain

d)

Republicans or Loyalists in Spain

95.

Why is the bombing of Guernica historically significant?

a)

One of the first aerial bombings of civilians

b)

Decisive naval battle ending the conflict

c)

First deployment of paratrooper divisions

d)

Largest tank clash on European soil

96.

What military force used Guernica as a testing ground?

a)

Germany’s Luftwaffe air force

b)

Italy’s Regia Marina fleet

c)

Britain’s BEF expeditionary

d)

France’s Armée de l’Air

97.

Who emerged victorious in the Spanish Civil War and how did he rule?

a)

Manuel Azaña ruled as president

b)

Juan Carlos ruled as regent

c)

José Díaz ruled as premier

d)

Francisco Franco ruled as dictator

98.

What political-economic program did Getulio Vargas institute in Brazil?

a)

Alliance Liberal restoring monarchy

b)

Estado Novo centralizing power

c)

Plano Real stabilizing currency

d)

Tenente revolt decentralizing rule

99.

Which policy trend under Vargas mirrored European fascism?

a)

Censorship and abolition of parties

b)

Extensive worker control of factories

c)

Full protection of civil liberties

d)

Pacifist foreign policy commitments

100.

Despite similarities to fascism, which distinction applied to Brazil under Vargas in the late 1930s?

a)

Joined Axis pact with Germany

b)

Aligned with Allies in World War II

c)

Established racial laws like Nuremberg

d)

Invaded neighbors for lebensraum

101.

In the table of approaches, how does fascism view the relationship between business and the state?

a)

Worker control with syndicate councils

b)

Free markets with minimal regulation

c)

State ownership with central planning

d)

Private ownership with restricted competition

102.

Which term describes government spending that exceeds revenue during downturns to stimulate demand?

a)

Protective tariffs on foreign imports

b)

Deficit spending to boost aggregate demand

c)

Balanced budgeting in recessionary times

d)

Currency devaluation to spur exports

103.

What was John Maynard Keynes best known for advocating during the interwar period?

a)

Classical laissez-faire in depressions

b)

Monetarist control of money supply

c)

Countercyclical fiscal stimulus

d)

Fixed exchange rate adherence

104.

Which policy name refers to Roosevelt’s domestic program responding to the Great Depression?

a)

NEP adjustments

b)

Popular Front agenda

c)

New Deal reforms

d)

Five-Year Plan initiatives

105.

The Soviet agricultural unit combining peasants’ lands under state direction was called a:

a)

Soviet kolkhoz cooperative farm

b)

PRI party apparatus

c)

Gulag penal labor camp

d)

Soviet politburo committee

106.

Which term identifies a semi-corporate arrangement linking interest groups to the state?

a)

Collectivization of rural plots

b)

Corporatism coordinating sectors

c)

Totalitarian party monopoly

d)

Hypernationalism in propaganda

107.

Which interwar event refers to a prolonged worldwide economic collapse beginning in 1929?

a)

Great Depression global downturn

b)

Guernica bombing episode

c)

Spanish Civil War conflict

d)

Russian Civil War turmoil

108.

Which Soviet policy under Lenin mixed limited markets with state control?

a)

Popular Front coalition

b)

New Deal public works

c)

Five-Year Plan acceleration

d)

New Economic Plan compromise

109.

Which Spanish Civil War faction name corresponded to supporters of the Republic?

a)

Luftwaffe expeditionary

b)

Loyalists to monarchy

c)

Republicans resisting coup

d)

Nationalists led by Franco

110.

Which leader is associated with Mexican oil nationalization in 1938?

a)

Lázaro Cárdenas of Mexico

b)

John Maynard Keynes

c)

Francisco Franco of Spain

d)

Franklin Delano Roosevelt

111.

Which institution was created to manage Mexico’s nationalized oil industry?

a)

PRI party secretariat

b)

Luftwaffe air command

c)

Politburo executive body

d)

PEMEX state petroleum firm

112.

In his 1938 address, Cárdenas characterizes foreign oil firms’ privileges primarily as:

a)

Necessary incentives for development

b)

Just rewards for efficiency

c)

Temporary measures during crisis

d)

Exaggerated claims of contribution

113.

Cárdenas lists which factor as contributing to oil industry profits at the expense of workers?

a)

Full union recognition nationwide

b)

Miserably underpaid native labor

c)

Strict enforcement of safety codes

d)

Generous wages for native labor

114.

What remedy does Cárdenas propose to end foreign control over Mexican oil?

a)

Gradual voluntary compliance

b)

Private arbitration panels

c)

A definite and legal measure

d)

Negotiated tax reductions

115.

According to Cárdenas, what civic attitude is necessary after nationalization?

a)

Passive acceptance of austerity

b)

Full optimism and greater activity

c)

Cautious retrenchment by citizens

d)

Reliance on foreign managers

116.

Which best captures the speech’s broader claim about national capacity?

a)

Our people can save the economy

b)

Only foreign capital can modernize

c)

Trade isolation ensures prosperity

d)

Oil revenue should fund emigration

117.

Which interwar government form features one-party rule and pervasive control over society?

a)

Liberal parliamentary cabinet

b)

Constitutional monarchy model

c)

Totalitarian state dominance

d)

Confederal league structure

118.

Which bombing became a symbol of civilian targeting during the Spanish Civil War?

a)

Luftwaffe Battle of Britain

b)

Guernica aerial bombardment

c)

Basque region encirclement

d)

Libya desert campaign

119.

The Five-Year Plan in the Soviet Union primarily aimed to:

a)

Restore free trade unions

b)

Privatize heavy industry trusts

c)

Reduce collectivization efforts

d)

Accelerate industrial output quotas

120.

Which term denotes extreme nationalist fervor surpassing traditional patriotism?

a)

Hypernationalism mass mobilization

b)

Popular Front cross-class

c)

Loyalists constitutionalism

d)

Corporatism interest mediation

121.

Which party dominated Mexican politics after the revolution and into the interwar?

a)

Nationalists military junta

b)

Republican Party of Spain

c)

Popular Front coalition

d)

Institutional Revolutionary Party