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science competency based cbse quizz

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is

a)

Dolomite

b)

A marble statue

c)

Calcined gypsum

d)

Sea shells.

2.

A student added 10g of calcium carbonate in a rigid container, secured it tightly and started to heat it. After some time, an increase in pressure was observed, the pressure reading was then noted at intervals of 5 mins and plotted against time, in a graph as shown below. During which time interval did maximum decomposition took place?

a)

15-20 min

b)

10-15 min

c)

5-10 min

d)

0-5 min

3.

Gas A, obtained above is a reactant for a very important biochemical process which occurs in the presence of sunlight. Identify the name of the process -

a)

Respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Transpiration

d)

sphotolysis

4.

Marble statues are corroded or stained when they repeatedly come into contact with polluted rain water. Identify the main reason.

a)

decomposition of calcium carbonate to calcium oxide

b)

polluted water is basic in nature hence it reacts with calcium carbonate

c)

polluted water is acidic in nature hence it reacts with calcium carbonate

d)

calcium carbonate dissolves in water to give calcium hydroxide.

5.

Calcium oxide can be reduced to calcium, by heating with sodium metal. Which compound would act as an oxidizing agent in the above process?

a)

Sodium

b)

sodium oxide

c)

calcium

d)

calcium oxide

6.

The chemical reaction between MnO2 with HCl is depicted in the following diagram. It was observed that a gas with bleaching abilities was released.

a)

displacement reaction

b)

combination reaction

c)

redox reaction

d)

decomposition reaction.

7.

Chlorine gas reacts with _______ to form bleaching powder.

a)

dry Ca(OH)2

b)

dil. solution of Ca(OH)

c)

conc. solution of Ca(OH)

d)

dry CaO

8.

Identify the correct statement from the following:

a)

MnO2 is getting reduced whereas HCl is getting oxidized

b)

MnO2 is getting oxidized whereas HCl is getting reduced.

c)

MnO2 and HCl both are getting reduced.

d)

MnO2 and HCl both are getting oxidized.

9.

In the above discussed reaction, what is the nature of MnO2?

a)

Acidic oxide

b)

Basic oxide

c)

Neutral oxide

d)

Amphoteric oxide

10.

What will happen if we take dry HCl gas instead of aqueous solution of HCl?

a)

Reaction will occur faster.

b)

Reaction will not occur.

c)

Reaction rate will be slow

d)

Reaction rate will remain the same.

11.

Which of the following are the products obtained from the reaction mentioned in the above case?

a)

CO2 H2O

b)

H2O CO

c)

CH3OH H2O

d)

CO2 H2O

12.

Identify the types of chemical reaction occurring during the combustion of fuel:

a)

Oxidation & Endothermic reaction

b)

Decomposition & Exothermic reaction

c)

Oxidation & Exothermic reaction

d)

Combination & Endothermic reaction

13.

On the basis of evolution/absorption of energy, which of the following processes are similar to combustion of fuel?

a)

Photosynthesis in plants

b)

Respiration in the human body

c)

Decomposition of vegetable matter

d)

Decomposition of ferrous sulphate.

14.

Choose the correct reason for the production of black smoke:

a)

Limited supply of air leads to incomplete combustion of fuel.

b)

Rich supply of air leads to complete combustion of fuel.

c)

Rich supply of air leads to a combination reaction.

d)

Limited supply of air leads to complete combustion of fuel.

15.

Identify the correct reason for the statement: 'Although nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere, it does not take part in combustion'.

a)

Nitrogen is a reactive gas

b)

Nitrogen is an inert gas

c)

Nitrogen is an explosive gas

d)

Only hydrocarbons can take part in combustion

16.

Predict the pH value of the water of river Yamuna if the reason for froth is high content of detergents dissolved in it.

a)

10-11

b)

5-7

c)

2-5

d)

7

17.

Which of the following statements is correct for the water with detergents dissolved in it?

a)

low concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-) and high concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+)

b)

high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-) and low concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+)

c)

high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-) as well as hydronium ion (H3O+)

d)

equal concentration of both hydroxide ion (OH-) and hydronium ion (H3O+).

18.

Which of the following correctly represents the solutions in increasing order of their hydronium ion concentration?

a)

P>Q>R>S

b)

P>S>Q>R

c)

S

d)

S

19.

High content of phosphate ion in river Yamuna may lead to:

a)

decreased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae

b)

decreased level of dissolved oxygen and no effect of growth of algae

c)

increased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae

d)

decreased level of dissolved oxygen and decreased growth of algae

20.

If a sample of water containing detergents is provided to you, which of the following methods will you adopt to neutralize it?

a)

Treating the water with baking soda

b)

Treating the water with vinegar

c)

Treating the water with caustic soda

d)

Treating the water with washing soda

21.

In which of the parts would you find anaerobic bacteria?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

22.

Which one of the following is NOT correct for biogas?

a)

its carbon neutral

b)

its non-renewable

c)

it depends on micro-organisms

d)

yields rich manure

23.

Which of the following best indicates the steps of anaerobic digestion?

a)

Waste water feed → biogas storage → generator → biogas

b)

Waste water feed → digester → biogas → biogas storage → generator

c)

Generator → waste water feed → digester → biogas → biogas storage

d)

Waste water feed → biogas → digester → biogas storage → generator

24.

Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cake because

a)

Biogas is a renewable source of energy

b)

Animal dung cake has higher calorific value

c)

Biogas has high heating capacity

d)

Biogas burns without smoke.

25.

Biogas is formed in the

a)

presence of air only

b)

presence of water only

c)

presence of air and absence of water

d)

presence of water and absence of air.

26.

If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of solar energy will be converted into food energy?

a)

10,000 J

b)

100 J

c)

1000 J

d)

It will depend on the type of the terrestrial plant.

27.

If Ravi is consuming curd/yogurt for lunch, which trophic level in a food chain he should be considered as occupying?

a)

First trophic level

b)

Second trophic level

c)

Third trophic level

d)

Fourth trophic level

28.

The decomposers are not included in the food chain. The correct reason for the same is because decomposers:

a)

Act at every trophic level of the food chain

b)

Do not breakdown organic compounds

c)

Convert organic material to inorganic forms

d)

Release enzymes outside their body to convert organic material to inorganic forms

29.

Matter and energy are two fundamental inputs of an ecosystem. Movement of

a)

Energy is bidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.

b)

Energy is repeatedly circulation and matter is unidirectional.

c)

Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.

d)

Energy is multidirectional and matter is bidirectional.

30.

Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?

a)

Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels

b)

Less availability of food

c)

Polluted air

d)

Water

31.

The mussel can be described as

a)

Producer

b)

Primary consumer

c)

Secondary consumer

d)

decomposer

32.

Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?

a)

Carnivores – secondary or tertiary consumers

b)

Decomposers – microbial heterotrophs

c)

Herbivores – primary consumers

d)

Omnivores – molds, yeast and mushrooms

33.

The given figure best represents:

a)

Grassland food chain

b)

Parasitic food chain

c)

Forest food chain

d)

Aquatic food chain

34.

Why do all food chains start with plants?

a)

Because plants are easily grown

b)

Because plants are nutritious

c)

Because plants can produce its own energy

d)

Because plants do not require energy

35.

In the food web, what two organisms are competing for food?

a)

A and B

b)

D and F

c)

A and C

d)

B and D

36.

Choose the waste management strategy that is matched with correct example.

a)

Refuse

b)

Reduce Give unwanted toys and books to hospitals or schools

c)

Reuse

d)

Repurpose

37.

Recycling of paper is a good practice but recycled paper should not be used as food packaging because

a)

recycled papers may release color /dyes on food items

b)

recycled papers are not absorbent

c)

recycled papers can cause infection due to release of methane

d)

recycled papers are costly

38.

According to the ‘Solid Waste Management Rule 2016’, the waste should be segregated into three categories. Observe the table below and select the row that has correct information.

a)

Cooked food, vegetable peels; Used bulbs, fluorescent lamps; Plastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard

b)

Coffee and tea powder, garden waste; Plastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard; Expired medicines, razors, paint cans

c)

Leftover food, vegetable peels; Coffee and tea powder, garden waste; Insect repellents, cleaning solutions

d)

Uncooked food, tea leaves; Old crockery, frying pans; Coffee and tea powder, garden waste

39.

Effective segregation of wastes at the point of generation is very important. Select the appropriate statements giving the importance of waste segregation.

a)

both i) and ii)

b)

both i) and iii)

c)

both ii) and iii)

d)

both i) and iv)

40.

When recycling a plastic water bottle, what should you do with the cap?

a)

The cap goes into a garbage can and the bottle goes in a recycling bin

b)

Screw the cap back on the bottle, then put the bottle and cap in a recycling bin

c)

Screw the cap back on the bottle, then put the bottle and cap in the garbage can

d)

Recycle the cap separately.

41.

Biogas is formed in the

a)

presence of air only.

b)

presence of water only.

c)

absence of air only.

d)

presence of water and absence of air.

42.

If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of solar energy will be converted into food energy?

a)

10,000 J

b)

100 J

c)

1000 J

d)

It will depend on the type of the terrestrial plant.

43.

Mr. X is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake in a food chain he should be considered as occupying

a)

First trophic level

b)

Second trophic level

c)

Third trophic level

d)

Fourth trophic level

44.

The decomposers are not included in the food chain. The correct reason for the same is because decomposers:

a)

Act at every trophic level of the food chain

b)

Do not breakdown organic compounds

c)

Convert organic material to inorganic forms

d)

Release enzymes outside their body to convert organic material to inorganic forms

45.

Choose the waste management strategy that is matched with correct example.

a)

Refuse: Choose products that use less packaging

b)

Reduce: Give unwanted toys and books to hospitals or schools

c)

Reuse: Not using single use plastic

d)

Repurpose: Making flower pot from used plastic bottle

46.

Recycling of paper is a good practice but recycled paper should not be used as food packaging because

a)

recycled papers take lots of space

b)

recycled papers can’t cover food properly

c)

recycled papers can cause infection

d)

recycled papers are costly

47.

According to the ‘Solid Waste Management Rule 2016’, the waste should be segregated into three categories. Observe the table below and select the row that has correct information.

a)

Cooked food, vegetable peels; Used bulbs, fluorescent lamps; Plastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard

b)

Coffee and tea powder, garden waste; Plastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard; Expired medicines, razors, paint cans

c)

Leftover food, vegetable peels; Coffee and tea powder, garden waste; Insect repellents, cleaning solutions

d)

Uncooked food, tea leaves; Old crockery, frying pans; Coffee and tea powder, garden waste

48.

Effective segregation of wastes at the point of generation is very important. Select the appropriate statements giving the importance of waste segregation.

a)

both i) and ii)

b)

both i) and iii)

c)

both ii) and iii)

d)

both i) and iv)

49.

Who is the Imposter ?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D